Final Exam - Don't Knows Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
what is paraformaldehyde fixative used for
A
fluorescent studies and research
2
Q
what is glutaraldehyde fixative used for
A
EM and kidneys
3
Q
what is the permissible exposure limit for formaldehyde in the workplace (short term)
A
2 ppm over a 15 minute period
4
Q
what is hanks special solution used for
A
cytogenetics and genetic mutations
4
Q
what does chloroform do to tissue
A
clears fatty tissue and increases alcohol penetration
5
Q
what is zenker’s fixative used for
A
nuclear chromatin, connective tissue fibers, and cytoplasmic features
6
Q
what does alcohol do to tissue
A
coagulates proteins and causes shrinkage
7
Q
what is RPMI special solution used for
A
flow cytometry and lymphoma
8
Q
when was the first recorded autopsy performed and on who
A
44 B.C. on Julius Caesar
9
Q
explain the Rokitansky autopsy method
A
organs are removed in situ (where it originated) in one block from neck to rectum
10
Q
what is the average weight of a 20-30 year old prostate
A
15 g
11
Q
what is the average weight of a 16-20 year old spleen
A
170 g
12
Q
what is the average weight of a left lung
A
375 g
13
Q
what is the average weight of combined female kidneys
A
288 g
14
Q
what is average weight of a right lung
A
475 g
15
Q
what are the four types of pericardial effusion
A
transudative, exudative, hemorrhagic, and malignant
16
Q
when should a PAD be finished according to the joint commission for hospital accreditation
A
2 days
17
Q
where are stress ulcers most commonly located
A
stomach
18
Q
what is caput succedaneum
A
accumulation of interstitial fluid in the soft tissues of the scalp - head becomes edematous and swells
19
Q
what is the most common, important pathologic finding associated with birth head injuries
A
intracranial hemorrhage
20
Q
what is craniorachischisis
A
neural tube defect that causes both anencephaly and bony defect of the spine
21
Q
coarctation of aorta is associated with which syndrome
A
turner syndrome
22
Q
what are the most common teratomas of childhood
A
sacrococcygeal teratomas
23
Q
what does the ADAM complex stand for
A
amniotic deformities, adhesions, mutilations
24
what are two common fetal findings in fetal alcohol syndrome cases
deceased brain weight
agenesis of the corpus callousum
25
what is the single largest cause of neonatal deaths globally
infections - they usually arise from the placenta
26
what is the CPT code for a foreskin from someone other than a newborn
88304
27
what is ENE
extra nodal extension - metastasis of tumor to lymph node (through the lymph node’s capsule)
28
what is the CPT code for a hemorrhoid
88304
29
what is the CPT code for aortic valves
88305
30
what is the most common type of malignant salivary gland tumor
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
31
krukenberg tumors are most common in which four locations
stomach, colon, appendix, and breast
32
what is the CPT code for a frozen section
88331
33
which three conditions can cause lipomas
gardner syndrome
adiposis dolorosa
familial multiple lipomatosis
34
what’s an important thing to look for with salivary gland specimens
nerves
35
what is the CPT code for a spermatocele
88304
36
what is the CPT code for lymph nodes and lung specimens
88305
37
what is the CPT code for skin tags
88304
38
define an adverse event
any error that would have resulted in a sentinel event but was caught and did not affect the outcome in a negative way - a “near miss”
39
what is the most common salivary gland tumor in infants/chidlren
hemangioma
40
what are sialoliths mainly made of
carbonate apatite
41
what is the most common type of nasal papilloma
inverted
42
which salivary gland is the most common gland for tumor
parotid
43
what is the CPT code for a POC less than 20 weeks
88305
44
what is the CPT code for vulvar tags
88305
45
what is the CPT code for a tonsil specimen from a younger patient
88300
46
what is the CPT code for a hernia
88302
47
what is the most common type of parotid tumor
pleomorphic adenoma
48
define polkilodermatous
variegated appearance
49
where do malignant laryngeal lesions most commonly arise
vocal cord
50
what is the CPT code for lymph nodes
88307
51
what is the CPT code for a parathyroid gland
88305
52
what should you submit for a papillary thyroid lesion
1 section/cm
53
where is squamous cell carcinoma most commonly located in the mouth
floor of mouth
lateral/ventral surfaces of tongue
54
a tumor of which size differentiates a T1 and T2 lip and oral cavity tumor
<2 cm = T1
>2 cm = T2 and beyond
55
what is a papilloma
benign, HPV associated papillary wart often caused by types 6 and 11
56
what is the leading cause of death worldwide
TB
57
what is the most common type of lung cancer
adenocarcinoma - a type of non-small cell lung cancer
58
what is small cell carcinoma
includes neuroendocrine tumors and carcinoids
usually adjacent to bronchi
59
what is large cell carcinoma
a type of non-small cell lung cancer that is diagnosis by exclusion
60
HIV infection is associated with an increase risk of _______
TB
61
what are the two main subtypes of lung adenocarcinoma
mucinous vs non-mucinous
62
what can asbestos cause
mesothelioma
63
what are the 5 basic histologic patterns of non-mucinous lung adenocarcinoma
acinar
papillary
micropapillary
lepidic
solid
64
which stage involves the pleura
T2 and above
65
what is the difference between a high anterior resection and a low anterior resection
high: cut above the anterior serosal reflection (no mesorectal tissue)
low: cut below the anterior serosal reflection (mesorectal tissue shows)
66
define hematochezia
passage of fresh blood through the anus
67
which device is used to give proximal and distal donuts of colon resections
anvil
68
which staging system is used for anal/rectal malignancies
TNM
69
what is another name for the circumferential radial margin
mesorectal margin
70
NET make up ____ % of small bowel t
50%
71
signet-ring cell carcinoma causes what
linitus plastica (leather bottle appearance)
72
50% of Meckel’s diverticulum have what on cut section
ectopic gastric mucosa or pancreatic parenchyma
73
what is the gross appearance of a yolk sac tumor
yellow tan with focal myxoid/gelatinous areas with focal hemorrhage
74
what is the CPT code for a ureter
88307
75
what is another name for a myelolipoma
incidentaloma
76
what are the four main morphologic patterns of bladder tumors
papilloma
invasive papillary carcinoma
flat non-invasive carcinoma (CIS)
flat invasive carcinoma
77
tumor invasion into the periureteric fat stages a ureter to what
pT3
78
what are the 5 variants of renal cell carcinoma
clear cell
papillary
chromophobe
Xp11 translocation
collecting duct
79
what is the critical size for an adrenal tumor
<5 cm - pT1
>5 cm - pT2
80
what is a simple prostatectomy
large chunks of the prostate are removed in the case of benign prostatic hyperplasia
weigh, measure in aggregate, and do not ink because there is no capsule
81
what is the gross appearance of a seminoma
homogeneous, gray white lobulate surface
82
what are the two benign, neoplastic conditions of the kidney
angiomyolipoma
oncocytoma
83
sprionolactone bodies are seen in which condition
adrenal cortical adenoma
84
a male radical cystectomy can be oriented anterior/posterior using what primary structure
peritoneal reflection - it is much shinier on the posterior aspect
85
what is a myelolipoma (incidentaloma)
adrenal tumor with mature adipose tissue and normal bone marrow elements
86
what is the difference in gross appearance of a small and large adrenal pheochromocytoma
small: yellow-tan
large: hemorrhage, necrosis, and cystic
87
which kidney lesion is variegated and poorly demarcated with necrosis, hemorrhage, and cystic change
adrenal cortical carcinoma
88
what are corpora amylacea
amyloid bodies found in the damaged prostate - note and removed before submitting section
89
what is waterhouse-friderichson syndrome
bacterial infection of the adrenals causes major adrenal insufficiency which leads to hypertension
90
what is the most common testicular tumor in infants/children up to 3 years of age
yolk sac tumor
91
what is Conn syndrome
excessive cortisol production by the adrenal cortex
92
a kidney tumor that invades the renal vein is staged as what
pT3a - regardless of tumor size
93
what is the CPT code for a hydrosalpinx/hemosalpinx
88305
94
what is SEE-FIM and what is its importance
sectioning and extensively examination the fimbriated end
a specific way of grossing a fallopian tube for a prophylactic removal due to BRCA gene
95
what can a blunted fallopian tube indicate
PID
96
what is the important size for omentum staging
2 cm
97
what is important about grossing adenosarcomas of the endometrium
staged based on tumor size (5 cm) and infiltration
98
what is Rokitansky’s protuberance
nipple-like structure covered with hair in an ovarian teratoma
important to submit as it has the highest possibility to undergo malignant change
99
what is considered stage 1 cervical cancer
confined to cervix
100
what is an important measurement for an endometrial cavity
cornu to cornu
101
what is an endometrioma
chocolate cyst caused by endometriosis
102
what is the CPT code for fallopian tubes for ectopic pregnancy
88305
103
what is important about grossing endometrial carcinoma/sarcomas
need to submit full thickness sections
note how deep (< or > 50%) the invasion is into the myometrium
104
what is considered stage 0 cervical cancer
carcinoma in situ
105
what is the CPT code for uterine prolapse
88305
106
which two stains can be useful for confirming cervical intraepithelial lesions
Ki-67 and p16
107
what is a common appearance of adenomyosis
trabeculation
108
where are you most likely to find serosal endometriosis
corneal regions and posterior cul-delsac
109
define AGUS
atypical glandular cells of underdetermined significance
110
define ASCUS
atypical cells of undetermined significance
111
what is the CPT code for the uterus for something other than prolapse or malignancy
88307
112
what is a nabothian cyst
cyst on the cervix or in the endocervical canal - note and submit one section
113
what is the normal length range for an umbilical cord
50-70 cm long
114
what is the CPT code for a placenta in the first or second trimeste
88305
115
what is the normal amount of cord coiling
2 coils per 10 cm
116
what is the normal diameter of an umbilical cord
0.8-1.3 cm
117
what is a circumvallate insertion
membranes insert before the disc margin/edge and have fibrin deposition that forms a palpable ridge
118
what is important to note about the staging of invasive breast carcinoma
based on tumor size and involvement of skin/chest wall
119
what is the appearance of medullary breast carcinoma
soft fleshy mass
120
what is the CPT code for a breast reduction
88305
121
what is the CPT code for a sentinel lymph node
88307
122
what is the appearance of ductal carcinoma
firm grey-pink stellate mass
123
what is PASH
pseudoangiomatous stroma hyperplasia
shows anastomosing slit-like spaces
124
which breast lesion has a radial scar and grossly resembles carcinoma
complex radial sclerosing lesion
125
what is an important feature of a serous cystadenoma of the pancreas
central stellate scar
126
congenital cysts of the pancreas are associated with which two conditions
PKD and von-hippel
127
what is the CPT code for traumatic finger/toe amputations
88302
128
what is the CPT code for exostosis (osteochondroma)
88305
129
what is the CPT code for non-traumatic extremity amputations
88307
130
what is an important pertinent negative in amputation cases
depth and involvement of underlying bone
131
what is the CPT code for a gout smear
89060
132
what is the CPT code for a femoral head not for fracture
88304
133
what is the most important staging factor for bone
tumor site
134
what are two important measurements to take for an above the knee amputation
proximal soft tissue margin to heel and heel to toe
135
which condition accounts for 82% of amputations in the United States
poor vascular health
136
what is the CPT code for bone fragments/pathological fracture
88307
137
what is the CPT code for bone resection
88309
