Final Exam Questions Flashcards

(92 cards)

1
Q

Bacteria in early infections:

A

Gram positive aerobes

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2
Q

Oral side effects with Beztropine?

A

Xerostomia

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3
Q

What patient would NOT be a good candidate for short course NSAIDs?

A

End stage kidney dx

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4
Q

Pathogen for infective endocarditis?

A

Strep

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5
Q

How would you prescribe amoxicillin?

A

Drug: Amox
Dose: 500mg
#: 4 capsules
Direction: By mouth x1

Amox 500mg, 4 caps po x1

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6
Q

Which med should you NOT hold morning of?

A

You would not hold long-acting /ultra-long acting insulin such as Glargine and Degludec

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7
Q

Which is NOT an NSAID?

A

Acetaminophen (APAP)

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8
Q

Which antidepressant drug class may cause bruxism?

A

SSRIs
- Fluoxetine (Prozac)
- Paroxetine (Paxil/Pexeva)
- Sertaline (Zoloft)
- Citalopram (Celexa)
- Escitalopram (Lexapro)

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9
Q

Diabetes can increase:

A

Risk of infection an periodontitis

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10
Q

What agent might be given for a LATER odontogenic infection?

A

Augmentin

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11
Q

What meds should be avoided if opioid therapy is warranted for dental pain management?

A

Diazepam

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12
Q

Which insulin causes Hypoglycemia?

A

Insulin Aspart

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13
Q

Oral antidiabetic medications most likely to cause hypoglycemia?

A

Sulfonylureas
- Glimepiride
- Glyburide
- Glipizide

Meglitinides
-Nataglinide
- Repaglinide

GLYBURIDE MOST LIKELY

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14
Q

Which antibiotics should NOT be used in pregnancy?

A

Doxy

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15
Q

What best explains why amoxicillin is dosed 3x daily?

A

8 hour half life and time dependent

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16
Q

Antidepressant that’s MOA is both NE and dopamine re-uptake inhibition?

A

Wellbutrin

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17
Q

Medication that is most likely to contribute to the development of dose-related thrombocytopenia?

A

Valproic acid

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18
Q

Antipsychotics that can be associated with both dry mouth and sialorrhea?

A

Clozapine

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19
Q

Medication used to manage HIV?

A

Genvoya

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20
Q

If a patient has a sulfa allergy you would not give them

A

zonisamide

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21
Q

MOA for Lorazepam?

A

GABA-A receptor agonist

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22
Q

Need for adjunctive systemic antibiotics in a patient with a perio abscess that presents with:

A

systemic symptoms

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23
Q

Drug interaction with Warfarin:

A

FLuconazole

(ASA/NSAIDs)

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24
Q

Monoclonal antibody:

A

Denosumab (anything ending in “mab”)

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25
MOA of Buspirone:
5HT receptor partial agonist
26
Antibiotic that kill strep (gram +), oral gram negative and bacteriodes?
Augmentin
27
Oral side effects with antidepressants?
Xerostomia
28
What would be the best for treating a patient who becomes unconscious with hypoglycemia?
Glucagon IV 1mg
29
Prescription for 4 year old weight 37lbs:
Amox 125mg
30
Warrants antibiotic prophylaxis in high risk patient:
maniuplation of gingival tissues
31
Side effects of paroxetine following treatment?
Nausea, Vomitting, Diarrhea, headache, & insomnia
32
What labs do you want to get prior to a patient starting Gabapentin?
Renal function test
33
Cathinones are derived from which plant?
Khat
34
Ideal characteristic of anesthetic agents?
Amnestic effect
35
Which designer drugs are detected on a drug screen?
None
36
Which of the following anesthesia medications is a negative ionotrope?
Propofol
37
Best drug for patient with xerostomia and mild candidiasis?
Nystatin
38
Patient is on once weekly azithromycin, what is this indicative of?
HIV
39
Patients taking acetaminophen should be educated regarding the following?
Do not take more than one med that contains APAP
40
What medication has a really high potential for drug interactions?
Fluconazole
41
Medication of choice for anxiety disorders including generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder?
Escitalopram
42
Which drug is common for treatment of hyperthyroidism?
Methimazole (Tapazole) Prophylthiauracil (PTU)
43
Bevacizumab is associated with the following effects:
Increased bleeding
44
Cavulonic acid will increase amoxicillin activity if a bacteria is resistant to _____
Beta lactamases
45
How long should citalopram be continued after first episode of depression?
9-12 months
46
Oral antidiabetic agent most likely to cause hypoglycemia?
Nateglinide (Meglitinide) (also Repaglinide) (Also sulfonylureas like glimepiride, glyburide, & glipizide)
47
Med used to treat hyperthyroidism?
Proplythiouracil
48
Patient has Addisons dx, what treatment for stress prophylaxis to minimize risk of adrenal crisis?
None indicated
49
EPS:
Tardive dyskinesia (common side effect of anti-psychotics)
50
Best option to prescribe to begin 24 hours BEFORE extractions as an initial pain management :
Ibuprofen
51
MOA of rispieridone?
D2/5HT antagonist
52
What anti epileptic drug commonly causes gingival hyperplasia?
Phenytoin
53
Pure opioid antagonist:
Naloxone
54
What anti-infective drug has a lot of interactions with other drugs?
Erythromycin
55
What drug can potentially decrease Calcium and Vitamin D?
Valproic acid (anti-convulsant)
56
Denosumab inhibits:
RANKL
57
MOA fluconazole
Conversion to ergosterol
58
Side effect of Zoloft that is NOT transient?
Sexual dysfunction
59
MOA of Nystatin?
Binds to ergosterol
60
Cytochrome P450:
3A4
61
Azithromycin dosed once a day because it is:
Concentration dependent
62
Antiretroviral lipid changes and fat redistribution:
Protease inhibitors
63
Meds for best coverage of anaerobic bacteria:
Metronidazole
64
Chemotherapy with tooth pain:
Oxaloplatin
65
Abscess formation is due to:
Bacteroides
66
Drug that causes immunosuppression:
Methotrexate
67
IV anesthetic causing adrenal suppression due to 11-beta:
Etomidate
68
Antidepressant 1st line therapy:
SSRIs and SNRI
69
Maximum dose of acetaminophen per day:
4g
70
Type 2 DM drug of choice:
Metformin
71
Antibiotic associated with HIGH c-dff presence:
Clindamycin
72
Antidepressant medication that you can OD with on a 7 day supply:
Amitriptyline
73
Anything ending in "tide"
GLP-1
74
MOA of Aripiprazole:
D2- partial agonist (Anti-psychotic for schizophrenia)
75
Potentent alpha 2 receptor agonist:
Precedex
76
When should you avoid Keflex?
Blistering skin rxn
77
Ingested K2:
Synthetic cannabinoids
78
Education for patients taking prednisone?
Take in the morning (insomnia)
79
Zometa MOA:
Osteoclast ruffled border
80
Maintains airway:
ketamine
81
Adverse effect of dapagliflozin (SGLT2) (Flozins):
UTIs and Yeast infections and gangrene of the d
82
Adverse effects have been reported after synthetic cannabinoid use:
all of the above
83
Avastin mechanism of action:
Blocks VegF and angiogenesis
84
Antipsychotics that causes your to be HUGE, Hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia:
Queitiapine (Seroquil)
85
Management of agitation:
Benzo
86
MOA for metformin:
Decreases hepatic glucose production
87
Over supplementation thyroid treatment:
Sweating and nervousness, tachycardia and difficulty sleeping
88
Fludrocortisone is a:
Mineralocorticoid
89
Strep viridian has high resistance to:
Azithromycine
90
Increase nephrolithiasis is caused by what drug?
Topiramate
91
Anti-epileptic medication that is considered a controlled substance:
Phenobarbital (also pregabalin, clonazepam, and clobazam)
92