Old Exam 3 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of action of Aripiprazole (Abilify) for treating schizophrenia:

A

D2 partíal agonist/ 5HT2A antagonist

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2
Q

What common side effect do pregabalin (Lyrica) and Sertaline (Zoloft) have in common when being used to treat generalized anxiety?

A

Weight gain

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3
Q

What is a proposed mechanism of action of Lorazepam (Ativan) for treating anxiety?

A

GABA-A receptor Agonist

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4
Q

What is the proposed mehcanism of action of Risperidone (Risperdal) for treating schizophrenia?

A

D2 antagonist
5HT2A antagonist

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5
Q

Which antipsychotic has the greatest risk of causing metabolic side effects such as weight gain, hyperglycemia, and hyperlipidemia?

A

Quetiapine (Seroquel)

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6
Q

What is the proposed mechanism of acton of Haloperidol (Haldon) for schizophrenia?

A

D2 antagonist

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7
Q

Which Benzodiazepine would be most appropriate to give 15-20min prior to a dental procedure to manage anxiety?

A

Triazolam (Halcion)

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8
Q

Why does Alprazolam (Xanax) have a higher risk of abuse compared with Clonazepam (Klonopin)

A

Alprazolam (Xanax) has a faster onset of affect

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9
Q

Why does Clonazepam (Klonopin) have a lower risk of abuse compared with Alprazolam (Xanax)?

A

Clonazepam (Klonopin) has a longer duration of effect

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10
Q

What is the reason a patient with a psychiatric illness is taking Deutetrabenazine (Austedo) medication?

A

Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)

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11
Q

Which statement correctly describes a second generation antipsychotic (Haloperidol- Haldol) (Chlorpromazine - Thorazine)

A

A & C

  • Low risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as dystonia, pseudoparkinsonism, and akathisia
  • Low risk of Tardive Dyskinesia (TD)
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12
Q

What medication is the treatment of choice for anxiety disorders including generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and social anxiety disorder?

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

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13
Q

Which antipsychotics have the greatest potential to prolong the QT interval and cardiac arrhythmia?

A

Clozapine (Clozaril) and Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

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14
Q

Proper disposal of short acting opioids includes all of the following options except:

A

Flushing

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15
Q

Which of the following is true regarding PDMP:

A

Reduces prescription drug misuse, abuse and diversion while ensuring patients have accesss to safe, effective treatment

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16
Q

Patients may experience increased CNS depression from benzodiazepines when suffering from uncontrolled:

A

Hypothyroidism

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17
Q

Patients may experience increased effects from epinephrine when suffering from uncontrolled:

A

Hyperthyroidism

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18
Q

Acetaminophen has which of the following properties?

A

Analgesic and anti-pyretic

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19
Q

Which of the following is indicated to treat hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spironolactone

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20
Q

Naloxone can be five every:

A

2-3 minutes

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21
Q

You give a patient hydrocodone/ acetaminophen. What should you educate her about before sending her home?

A

All of the above

  • do not drink alcohol or take other medications that cause drowsiness
  • how medication will effect you
  • potential medication abuse
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22
Q

Which of the following is a pure opioid antagonist that blocks opioid receptors and is used to reverse opioid overdoses?

A

Naloxone

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23
Q

NSAIDs are contraindicated or should be used with caution in patients with which of the following conditions?

A

Chronic Kidney Disease

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24
Q

Which of the following medications is not recommended for children under 12 years of age?

A

Tramadol or Codeine

25
Sierra is a 42 year old undergoing endo for tooth #15, which has irreversible pulpitis, and is extremely percussion sensitive. She reports she has HTN but is otherwise healthy. Her BP is currently well controlled. She reports the only medication she is taking is Amlodipine. She reports NKDA. Which of the following is the best pain management regimen?
Ibuprofen 600mg QID with Acetaminophen 650mg QID for 48-72 hours post procedure, then PRN
26
Acetaminophen is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
Alcoholic liver disease
27
ST, a 24 year old white male was given hydrocodone/ acetaminophen after have 3rd molars removed. Before leaving the office, you should educate him/ his caregiver on which common side effects?
Constipation
28
Patient in pain and has history of NSAID induced GI bleed, CKD -stage 3, active Hep C, and MI (2014). Patient is NKDA. What pain management regimen should be given?
Oxycodone 5mg Q6hrs prn with a 3 day supply
29
Which of the following medications is used for chronic neuropathic pain and has been used for pre-op and peri-op analgesia in dental school and other surgical procedures?
Pregabalin (Lyrica)
30
When prescribing an oral corticosteroid for its anti-inflammatory effects and pain management to treat an inflammatory dental condition, what instruction should be provided for administration?
A & B - GI upset is a common adverse reaction - Take in the morning with food
31
Therapeutic qualities of corticosteroids include:
anti-inflammatory
32
What is a realistic pain goal?
30-50% pain reduction
33
Opioid script contains all except:
Patients age (does include: patient full name and address, doctors full name and address)
34
What is the proposed mechanism of Latuda? (schizod drug)
D2 antagonist 5HT2A Antagonist (double negative)
35
Which of the following is a mechanism of action of naproxen?
NON-selectively inhibits Cox-1 and Cox-2 which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis
36
What are the side effects of Clozapine (Clozaril)
1. sialorrhea 2. dry mouth 3. hypersalivation
37
Max dosage for acetopminophen?
400mg
38
Which treatment initiated 24 hours before a dental procedure decreases post-op edema and improves healing time?
Ibuprofen
39
Acetominophen effect?
Constipation
40
Patient is hypertensive and other than that is healthy. What can she take after a tooth extraction?
Acetaminophen and Oxy NO IBUPROFEN
41
Patient is taking acetaminophen. What is the most important thing you can tell her?
Do not take more Han one medicine at a time
42
What drug should you avoid taking with an opioid?
Dapezium
43
Pregabalin (Lyrica) and gabapentin share:
NO oral side effects
44
What is a proposed mechanism of action of Diazepam (valium) for treating anxiety?
GABA-A receptor agonist
45
What medications should you NOT take with Acetaminophen?
1. Leflunomide (RA med) 2. Methotrexate (RA med) 3. Carbamazepine (Anti-convulsant)
46
What is the max recommended daily dose for acetaminophen?
LESS than 3g/daily for adults and 2-3g/daily for elderly
47
What patient risk factors are important to assess when considering treating pain with NSAIDs?
1. Hx of GI problems and GI risk factors 2. Cardiovascular conditions and CV risk factors 3. Renal dysfunction (All of the above)
48
GABA-A is coupled to what channels and is the mechanistic target for therapeutic benzodiazepines:
Chloride
49
Which of the following medications has been associated with the development of seizures?
1. Clozapine 2. Carbamazepine 3. Bupropion (all of the above)
50
Ions may cross cellular membranes by one of the three mechanisms which includes ion pumps, ligand gated channels, and :
voltage gated channels
51
The action potential depolarization phase begins with an influx of which one of the following?
sodium
52
Which of the following adjunctive pain medications is an anticonvulsant often used to treat neuropathic pain?
Gabapentin
53
What would you prescribe to a patient who experienced their FIRST schizophrenic episode?
Apiprazole (Abilify)
54
What drug would you give for REFRACTORY Schizophrenia?
Clozapine
55
What is the primary advantage of using a 2nd generation antipsychotic over 1st?
No risk of EPS
56
EEG activity 1-2 MAC was seen with which anesthetic?
Etomidate (sevoflurane)
57
What receptor does Lorazepam act on?
GABA-A
58