Final Exam - Quizzes Flashcards

(38 cards)

1
Q

The cumulative growth curve is really:

a) A measure of average gain in time over time
b) A good way to accurately determine the maximum growth velocity
c) Stair stepped due to sporadic growth spurts
d) Shaped like the letter U

A

c) Stair stepped due to sporadic growth spurts

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2
Q

Which statement about the components of the growth curve is correct?

a) An animal stops growing when it enters the self-inhibiting phase of development
b) The asymptote represents the point of maximum growth velocity
c) The point of inflection is the time when animals grow the fastest
d) Growth at the beginning of the self-accelerating phase is usually highly complex

A

c) The point of inflection is the time when animals grow the fastest

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3
Q

A body part with an allometric growth coefficient (b-value) of <1 grows:

a) Late and slowly compared to the rest of the body
b) Late and fast compared to the rest of the body
c) Early and fast compared to the rest of the body
d) Early and slowly compared to the rest of the body

A

d) Early and slowly compared to the rest of the body

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4
Q

John Hammond made important observations about the proportions of animals as they grow including that:

a) Bone develops before nerve and muscle tissue
b) Body components that are chronologically more important develop first
c) Extremities complete their development first
d) Development is completed from the inside out

A

c) Extremities complete their development first

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5
Q

Rearrange the descriptions in the table below to match the different types of growth models:

Growth models:
- Physiological growth
- Absolute growth
- Cumulative growth
- Relative growth

Description
A. Change in weight over time
B. Refers to specific physical/chemical stages of maturity
C. Growth in relation to total weight
D. Plots weight gain per unit of time over time

A

Physiological = B, Absolute = D, Cumulative = A, Relative = C

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6
Q

Growth can be compared as a function of physiological age when:

c) We want to compare animals at specific physical and chemical stages of maturity
a) We want to compare animals at the same time during their development
d) B & C
e) A & B
b) We want to compare animals when a single system reaches physiological maturity

A

d) B & C

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7
Q

An absolute growth rate curve:

a) Peaks when the growth rate is highest
b) Peaks when an animal is heaviest
c) Tells you the weight of an animal over time
d) Is a good way to determine the asymptote

A

a) Peaks when the growth rate is highest

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8
Q

The importance of new growth relative to the growth that has already happened is best described using:

a) (Y2-Y1)/(lnt2-lnt1)
b) Absolute growth rate
c) Cumulative growth
d) Relative growth rate

A

d) Relative growth rate

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9
Q

As the body grows, the proportions of different chemicals changes according to the following:

a) Water increases, fat increases, protein increases
b) Water decreases, fat decreases, protein increases
c) Water decreases, fat increases, protein decreases
d) Water increases, fat increases, protein decreases

A

c) Water decreases, fat increases, protein decreases

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10
Q

Which answer is correct about how bone composition changes with age?

a) The proportion of water increases
b) The proportion of protein increases
c) The proportion of bone ash decreases
d) The proportion of fat increases

A

d) The proportion of fat increases

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11
Q

Heredity…..

a) Results from selection of mutations that arise in genes
b) Is an animals set of observable traits
c) Is the process of passing along genes from one generation to the next
d) Refers to the unique set of genes that an animal possesses in its genome

A

c) Is the process of passing along genes from one generation to the next

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12
Q

The reason(s) for abnormally high growth rates achieved during compensatory growth include:
.

a. Higher feed intake
b. Lower basal energy metabolism requirements due to decreased visceral weight
c. Reduced somatostatin levels
d. Answers a and b are correct
e. Answers b and c are correct

A

d. Answers a and b are correct

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13
Q

The heritability value for meat tenderness is 0.29 which is:

a) Intermediate, meaning moderately heritable
b) Low, meaning difficult to breed for
c) Suboptimal, meaning difficult to breed for
d) High, meaning highly heritable
e) Intermediate, meaning highly heritable

A

a) Intermediate, meaning moderately heritable

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14
Q

Which answer about fat deposition in cattle, sheep, pigs and poultry is false?

a) Poultry deposit similar proportions of subcutaneous, visceral and intermuscular fat
b) Swine favor subcutaneous fat deposition
c) Cattle favor intermuscular and subcutaneous fat deposition
d) Sheep favor intermuscular and visceral fat deposition

A

d) Sheep favor intermuscular and visceral fat deposition

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15
Q

What statement about muscle development in beef vs dairy cattle breeds is false?

a) Beef breeds develop more muscle fibers throughout the carcass during prenatal development
b) Selection for muscle is inversely related to milk production
c) Reduction in muscle fiber numbers in milk breeds occurs prenatally
d) Animals used for milk production are less muscular
e) Selection has changed muscle distribution between beef and dairy breeds

A

e) Selection has changed muscle distribution between beef and dairy breeds

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16
Q

Identify which is incorrect for the order of sex class maturation for the species listed below (earliest to latest)

E. A & D
D. Pullet, Capon, Cockerel
A. Gilt, Barrow, Boar
B. Ewe, Wether, Ram
C. Heifer, Steer, Bull

A

A. Gilt, Barrow, Boar

17
Q

The mature frame size in cattle can be calculated from:

a) Average daily gain and feed intake
b) Genotype and environment
c) Relative growth rate and age
d) Hip height and age
e) Breed and sex

A

d) Hip height and age

18
Q

Select the most accurate missing word: At the same chronological age, large framed animals are physiologically ___________ than small framed animals.

a) Fatter
b) Older
c) Younger
d) Weaker

19
Q

Better sanitation improves growth rate and feed efficiency because:
a) Microorganisms in the gut cause more energy to be used for fat than muscle
b) Animals eat more in a clean environment
c) Less nutrients are required for immune responses against microorganisms
d) Dirty environments reduce growth hormone production

A

c) Less nutrients are required for immune responses against microorganisms

20
Q

Select the correct answer about maintenance energy requirements:

a) Changes in response to feed intake
b) Increases as an animal grows
c) Greater in young animals than older animals
d) Remains the same as an animal grows
e) Includes energy requirements for organ growth

A

b) Increases as an animal grows

21
Q

Energy requirements for growth depend on:

a) Genetics and breeding
b) Stage of the growth curve
c) All of the statements are true
d) Hormone treatments
e) Sex of an animal

A

c) All of the statements are true

22
Q

The reason(s) for abnormally high growth rates achieved during compensatory growth include:

a. Reduced somatostatin levels
b. Answers c and d are correct
c. Higher feed intake
d. Lower basal energy metabolism requirements due to decreased visceral weight
e. Answers a and b are correct

A

b. Answers c and d are correct

23
Q

Energy substrate used up within the first 8-10 seconds of exercise.

a) ATP
b) Lactic acid
c) Glycogen
d) Fatty acids
e) Glucose

24
Q

Both endurance and resistance exercise induces the release of the hormone:

a) Growth hormone
b) Insulin
c) Estrogen
d) Cortisol

A

a) Growth hormone

25
Type of housing system that reduces the stress of rearing animals together. a) All-in all-out housing b) One health housing c) Specific stress free housing d) Group focused housing
c) Specific stress free housing
26
Chronically stressed animals suffer from elevated circulating concentrations: a) Glucocorticoids b) Leptin c) Adrenalin d) Trenbalone acetate e) Catecholamines
a) Glucocorticoids
27
T or F: The lymph node’s overall immunologic function is to provide a location rich in immune cells to sample for foreign invaders in the extracellular fluid.
True!
28
T-cell areas of the lymph nodes (LNs) are: a) The paracortical areas b) Surrounded by M cells c) Identified by immunohistochemistry using anti-IgM-peroxidase labeled antibodies d) The folicular zone
a) The paracortical areas
29
Which statement about Peyer's patches is false? a) Are exposed to antigens through M cells b) Contain afferent and efferent lymph vessels c) Contain B and T cell zones d) Are exclusively in the intestine
b) Contain afferent and efferent lymph vessels .
30
T/F: Conformational epitopes rely on three dimensional structure of an antigen.
true
31
T/F: The spleen’s overall immunologic function is to provide a location rich in immune cells to sample for foreign invaders in the blood stream.
true
32
What is not a mechanism through which antibodies neutralize an organism? a) Stimulate affinity maturation b) Induce histamine release c) Induce phagocytosis d) Stop enzymes working e) Make holes in membranes
a) Stimulate affinity maturation
33
Thymocytes (T cell precursors): a) Develop in the Bursa of Fabricius in birds b) Enter the thymus as stem cells from the spleen c) Enter the thymus as out-pouchings from the pharyngeal pouches and the third branchial cleft c) Compete their develpment in the bone marrow d) Undergo extensive differentiation and maturation in thymus and leave as naïve T cells
d) Undergo extensive differentiation and maturation in thymus and leave as naïve T cells
34
T/F: A primary/initial adaptive immune response to an antigen is characterized by specificity and memory
false
35
T/F: Passive immunity describes the transfer of immunity from an actively immunized host to a naïve host
true
36
A general characteristic that does not contribute to immunogenicity is: a) Size b) Complexity c) Temperature d) Host e) Phylogenetic foreignness
c) Temperature
37
What change in an antibody structure does not impact effector functions? a) None are correct b) Change to secreted form c) Affinity maturation d) Isotype switching
c) Affinity maturation
38
Lymphocytes traffic from the blood into the lymphnodes through.... a) High endothelial venules b) Efferent lymphatic vessels c) Germinal centers d) Afferent lymphatic vessels
a) High endothelial venules