Exam 1 - Lecture Notes Flashcards
1
Q
gross anatomy / macro anatomy
A
large structures, visible
2
Q
microanatomy
A
requires a microscope to observe
3
Q
cytology
A
study of cells, individual cells
4
Q
histology
A
study of tissue
5
Q
regional anatomy
A
within a region, often multiple tissues / organs serving coordinated function, complementary
6
Q
systemic anatomy
A
all structures making up a system
7
Q
what system?
- hair, skin and nails
- encloses internal body structures, site of many sensory receptors
A
integumentary system
8
Q
what system?
- cartilage, bones, joints
- supports the body, enables movement
A
skeletal system
9
Q
what system?
- skeletal muscles, tendons
- enables movement, helps maintain body temperature
A
muscular system
10
Q
what system?
- brain, spinal cord, peripheral nerves
- detects and processes sensory, activates bodily responses
A
nervous system
11
Q
what system?
- pituitary gland, thyroid gland, pancreas, adrenal glands, testes, ovaries
- secretes hormones, regulates bodily processes
A
endocrine system
12
Q
what system?
- heart, blood vessels
- delivers oxygen and nutrients to tissues, equalizes temperature in the body
A
cardiovascular system
13
Q
what system?
- thymus, lymph nodes, spleen, lymphatic vessels
- returns fluid to blood, defends against pathogens
A
lymphatic system
14
Q
what system?
- nasal passage, trachea, lungs
- removes carbon dioxide from the body, delivers oxygen to blood
A
respiratory system
15
Q
what system?
- stomach, liver, gall bladder, large intestine, small intestine
- processes food for use by the body, removes wastes from undigested food
A
digestive system
16
Q
what system?
- kidneys, urinary bladder
- controls water balance in the body, removes waste from blood and excretes them
A
urinary system
17
Q
what system?
- epididymis, testes
- produces sex hormones and gametes, delivers gametes to female
A
male reproductive system
18
Q
what system?
- mammary glands, ovaries, uterus
- produces sex hormones and gametes, supports embryo/fetus until birth, produces milk for infant
A
female reproductive system
19
Q
homeostasis
A
maintaining steady state (via physiological regulation)
20
Q
structural organization of a body from smallest to largest
A
- chemical (atoms, electrons, molecules)
- cell
- tissue
- organ
- organ system
- organism
21
Q
what is the smallest independently functioning unit?
A
cell
22
Q
2+ cells, has a specific function
A
tissue
23
Q
anatomically distinct with more than 2 tissues
A
organ
24
Q
a group of organs that perform major function
A
organ system
25
two types of metabolism
anabolism and catabolism
26
anabolism
building up, often using energy
27
catabolism
breaking down, often gaining energy
28
differentiation
cells become specialized/functional
29
hyperplasia
increase in cell number
30
hypertrophy
increase in cell size
31
4 requirements for life
- oxygen
- nutrients
- narrow range of temperature
- narrow range of atmospheric pressure
32
3 basic nutrients
- water
- energy
- micronutrients
33
nutrient: energy and examples
- yielding / body building nutrients
- carbohydrates, fats, proteins
34
nutrients: micronutrients
vitamins and minerals (cofactors for enzymes)
35
homeostasis
maintenance of steady state; especially normal state (set point, normal range)
36
negative feedback
reverses a change, maintains homeostasis
37
3 basic components of a feedback system
1. sensor
2. control center
3. effector
38
positive feedback
augments change, increasing the change
39
what is more common, positive or negative feedback?
negative feedback
40
is positive feedback considered maintaining homeostasis?
NO
41
how does positive feedback send out signals and amplify them through the body?
a 1st messenger binds to a membrane receptor, an effector turns on and activates a 2nd messenger
42
what do kinases do?
phosphorylate things, often to increase activity
43
after phosphorylation by kinases, the enzyme ______________ will come in and chop off the phosphate to inactivate it
phosphodiesterases
44
homeohesis
the orchestrated or coordinated control in metabolism of body tissues necessary to support physiological state (an animal not in normal state)
45
examples of homeohesis
- gestation
- lactation
- growing additonal muscle
46
body planes: sagittal / longitudinal plane
divides left vs right side
47
body planes: frontal / coronal plane
divides anterior (front) vs posterior (rear)
48
body planes: transverse plane / cross section
divides upper vs lower
49
pleural cavity
surrounds lungs
50
pericardium
surrounds heart
51
peritoneum
surrounds organs in abdominal cavity
52
serous membranes (serosa)
thin membranes cover organs, walls
53
parietal layer
covers walls
54
visceral layer
covers organs
55
fluid-filled cavity
serous space (lubricate and reduce friction)
56
what elements are the body mostly made up of?
- oxygen
- carbon
- hydrogen
- nitrogen
57
isotopes
a nucleus of an element that have a different number of neutrons (oftentimes unstable)
58
radioactive isotopes
the nucleus readily decays giving off subatomic particles and electromagnetic energy
59
why are radioactive isotopes important in medicine?
they are detectable, so they can be used to detect and shrink tumors
60
stable isotopes
do not decay but can be detected by mass spectrometry
61
3 types of reactions
- synthesis
- decomposition
- exchange
62
dehydration synthesis reaction
substrates are combined by the removal of water
63
synthesis reaction
A + B ---> AB
64
decomposition reaction
AB -----> A + B
65
exchange reaction
AB + CD ---> AC + BD
66
what factors alter the rate of reactions?
- reactant properties
- temperature
- concentration and pressure
- enzymes and catalysts
67
how do enzymes and catalysts effect reaction rate?
lower activation energy of a reaction
68
inorganic: mostly lack carbon but always lack ___ and ___
C and H
69
organic: generally carbon containing but always contains ___ and ___
C and H
70
acids
donate H+ (proton) in solution
71
base
donates OH- in solution / accepts H+ (protons) in solution
72
the lower the pH = more ______ = more _____ ions
more acidic = more H+ ions
73
the higher the pH = less ______ = more ______
less acidic = more basic
74
pH of normal body fluids
about 7.4
75
buffer
solution of weak acid and its conjugate base
76
acidosis
lower than normal pH
77
alkalosis
more than normal pH
78
metabolic acidosis
- reactions that generate CO2 or acidic compounds
- ex: lactic acid buildup
79
respiratory acidosis
low respiratory rate (hypoventilation), CO2 will stay inside the body increasing pH
80
metabolic alkalosis
diarrhea and loss of HCl
81
respiratory alkalosis
high respiratory rate (hyperventilation) not enough CO2 in the body so it raises blood pH
82
what happens when your blood pH differs from normal?
can cause you to pass out so that the body can fix itself
83
what is the bicarbonate buffering system and what does it regulate?
- CO2 + H2O <--> H2CO3 <--> HCO3- + H+
- regulates plasma pH
84
VFA
- volatile fatty acids
- short chain fatty acids
85
what are the three VFAs?
- acetate
- butyrate
- propionate
86
monomers
single unit
87
oligomers
few molecules
88
polymer
many molecules
89
carbohydrates general formula
(CH2O)n
90
5 important monosaccharides
- hexose: glucose, fructose, galactose
- pentose: ribose and deoxyribose
91
3 important disaccharides
sucrose, lactose, maltose
92
3 important polysaccharides
starch, glycogen, cellulose
93
how do we store glucose in the body?
glycogen
94
what are the three words used to describe connective tissue?
cells, gels, and fibers
95
what is the "gel" of connective tissue?
ground substance
96
what is ground substance made up of?
water stabilized by glycosaminoglycans (GAGs), proteoglycans, and glycoproteins
97
ground substance
a gel-like substance in the extracellular space that contains all components of the extracellular matrix (ECM) except fibers
98
what is the purpose of ground substance?
provide a route for communication and transport by diffusion between tissues
99
components of ground substance
- mainly water
- glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)
- proteoglycans
- glycoproteins
100
what are glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)?
polysaccharides that trap water, giving the ground substance a gel-like texture
101
components of the ground substance are secreted by ___________
fibroblasts
102
loose connective tissue has few ____ and ____, and a large amount of __________ ___________
fibers and cells; ground substance
103
dense connective tissue has a small amount of ____________ __________ compared to fibrous material
ground substance
104
what is this structure?
ground substance
105
what are the common GAGs?
- hyaluronic acid
- heparan sulfate
- dermatan sulfate
- chondroitin sulfate
106
monoacylglycerides have ___ fatty acid chains
1
107
diglyceride has ____ fatty acid chains
2
108
triglyceride has ____ fatty acid chains
3
109
saturated fats
no double bonds, solid at room temperature, higher melting point
110
unsaturated fats
double bonds, fluid at room temperature
111
phospholipids
phosphate group with 1 or more lipid molecules (usually 2 FA tails)
112
phospholipids have a _____ head and _____ tail
polar (hydrophilic) and non-polar (hydrophobic)
113
how do phospholipids look when they make up the cell membrane?
the heads are on the outside and inside of the cells and the tails are in the center
114
sterols
steroid hormones
115
____________ is the mother compound of steroid hormones
cholesterol
116
name this molecule
cholesterol
117
name this molecule
estradiol
118
name this molecule
progesterone
119
lipid nomenclature: delta system
- carbons counted from the carboxyl (alpha) end
- (delta=carboxyl end, remember abCD)
120
lipid nomenclature: omega system
- carbons counted from the methyl (omega) end
- (omega=methyl, remember oMEga=MEthyl)
121
trans vs cis fat
122
what is the name of this molecule?
PGF2a
123
what is the name of this molecule?
PGE2
124
what is the difference between PGF2a and PGE2?
125
what does PGE2 do? what drug blocks this from being produced?
- causes inflammation, dilation, pain
- ibuprofen
126
in proteins, shape determines ___________
function
127
protein: primary structure
sequence of AA
128
protein: secondary structure
beta sheets / alpha helix
129
protein: tertiary structure
further folding and bonding, 3D structure
130
protein: quaternary structure
multiple protein subunits
131
parts of an amino acid
- amine group
- carboxyl group
- R group (side chain)
132
a ______ bond connects AA
peptide
133
what reaction must occur for a peptide bond to form?
dehydration - condensation reaction
134
name the 5 nitrogenous bases
adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine, uracil
135
purines
adenine, guanine
136
pyrimidines
cytosine, thymine, uracil
137
components of a nucleotide
- one or more phosphate groups
- pentose sugar (ribose or deoxyribsose)
- nitrogenous base
138
nucleoside
sugar + nitrogenous base
139
nucleotide
sugar + nitrogenous base + phosphate
140
components of the cell membrane
- phospholipid bilayer
- cholesterol
- embedded proteins
141
integral proteins and examples
- span from the inside of the membrane to the outside of the membrane
- channel proteins, receptors - ligands, glycoproteins
142
peripheral proteins
on inside or outside of the cell, can attach to integral proteins
143
glycocalyx
- glycoprotein
- contributes to cell-cell recognition, communication, and intercellular adhesion
144
the membrane of cells is selectively permeable. what can pass through?
small, non polar (hydrophobic) molecules
145
passive transport
does not require energy
146
active transport requires ________
energy
147
examples of passive transport
diffusion, facilitated diffusion
148
GLUTS
glucose transporters (14 in humans)
149
osmosis
the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane down its concentration gradient
150
isotonic
soluble concentration at equilibrium
151
hypertonic
solute concentration is higher, so the water will leave the cell and the cell shrivels
152
hypotonic
solute concentration is lower, water enters the cell and bursts it
153
hydrostatic pressure
flowing from high to lower pressure due to permeability, fluid leaves the vessel
154
osmotic pressure
the opposing force, pulls the blood back into the blood vessel
155
when hydrostatic pressure is greater than osmotic pressure (net filtration is positive), meaning...
fluid exits the vessel
156
when osmotic pressure is greater than hydrostatic pressure (net filtration is negative), meaning...
fluid flows back into the vessel
157
active transport can go _______ the concentration gradient
against
158
sodium potassium pump causes _____ Na+ to leave the cell and ____ K+ to enter the cell
3 Na+ leave, 2 K+ enter
159
the sodium potassium pump creates an __________ gradient
electrical
160
symporters
moves 2 molecule in the same direction
161
antiporters
moves two molecules in the opposite direction
162
endocytosis and exocytosis are types of _______ transport
active
163
endocytosis
bringing into the cell using an intracellular vesicle
164
endocytosis: pinocytosis
cell drinking (fluid containing dissolved substances)
165
endocytosis: phagocytosis
cell eating (large particles)
166
endocytosis: recepto-mediated
receptors attract certain molecules
167
exocytosis
exiting the cell in a vesicle
168
cytosol + organelles = __________
cytoplasm
169
organelles in the endomembrane system
- ER
- Golgi apparatus
- lysosome
170
the rough ER is covered in _________
ribosomes
171
what is the main role of the rough ER?
protein synthesis (translation)
172
role of membrane bound ribosomes
attached to the ER membrane, synthesis of proteins that move into the ER
173
the smooth ER lacks ___________
ribosomes
174
role of smooth ER
lipid synthesis and stores Ca2+
175
what are the two sides of the Golgi apparatus and their purpose?
- cis = receives vesicles from the ER
- trans = releases new vesicles
176
job of the Golgi apparatus
- sort, modify, send to target site
- post-transcriptional modifications
177
lysosomes
large vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes
178
autophagy
"self-eating" = destroy damaged organelles
179
phago-lysosomes
phagocytizied materiał bacterial/foreign material is transported inside the lysosome to be killed
180
autolysis
cell self-destruction (apoptosis)
181
mitochondria
- 2 lipid bilayer membranes
- produces ATP
- cite of cellular respiration
182
peroxisomes
detoxification
183
peroxisomes transfer H to O forming _____________________ then it's catalase catalyzes it to 2 H2O + O2 making it harmless
hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)
184
ROS
reactive oxygen species, highly reactive and can damage organelles and molecules
185
which organ has the most peroxisomes?
the liver, where detoxification takes place
186
cytoskeleton
forms structural framework of cells
187
microtubules are composed of _____________
alpha and beta tubules subunits
188
function of microtubules
cell motility, mitosis, intracellular transport, cell shape
189
what structures do microtubules form?
cilia, flagella, centrioles
190
microfilaments are composed of _____________
actin
191
function of microfilaments
cell contraction, movement, transport
192
intermediate filaments are composed of _______
keratin
193
functions of intermediate filaments
cell shape, structure, anchoring of organelles and cells to each other and the ECM
194
DNA organization
- histones (proteins)
- nucleosomes (DNA wrapped around histone)
- chromosomes (chromatin condenses for replication)
195
transcription
DNA --> RNA
196
translation
RNA ---> protein
197
somatic cells
body cells
198
cell cycle
1. G1 (gap 1, growth)
2. S (synthesis of DNA)
3. G2 (gap 2, grow and prep)
4. M (mitotic phase, cell divides, mitosis)
5. Go (rest, no division)
199
5 phases of mitosis
PPMAT (prophase, pro metaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase)
200
why are checkpoints important in the cell cycle?
they look for errors in DNA replication, proofreading
201
what are cyclins in the cell cycle? what is an example?
- one of the primary classes of the cell cycle control molecules
- CDK = controls the cell cycle, push it on unless there is a given stop signal
202
tumor supressor genes
send stop signals during the cell cycle, they proofread and can trigger self deletion
203
what are oncogenes?
genes that are most commonly liked with mutations that cause cancer
204
what is the gaurdian of the genome?
p53, tumor suppressor genes
205
what is the most frequently mutated gene in human cancer
p53 or TP53
206
if DNA damage is recognized, what two things can a tumor suppressor gene do?
1. fix the damage
2. eliminate it through apoptosis
207
BRCA 1 and BRCA 2
- tumor suppressor genes
- breast cancer associated (risks of breast cancer, pancreas, ovarian, and prostate cancer)
208
totipotent
early embryos; can become any cell or whole organism
209
pluripotent
become any tissue
210
multipotent
can differentiate into any cell within a lineage
211
oligopotent
can form a few cell types within a lineage
212
unipotent
specialized (can only make more of its own cell type)
213
3 types of stem cells
1. embryonic stem cells
2. fetal stem cells
3. adult stem cells
214
3 types of adult stem cells
1. hematopoietic
2. endothelial
3. mesenchymal (muscle)
215
how do cells differentiate?
transcription factors
216
hematopoiesis
differentiation of multipotent cells into blood and immune cells
217
hECs
human embryonic stem cells (pluripotent)
218
adult stem cells, umbilical cord are ____potent
multipotent
219
iPSCs
induced pluripotent stem cells, yamanaka factors (4 types)
220
some individuals bank the _____ blood or _______ _______ of their child, storing these sources of stem cells for future use
cord blood or deciduous teeth
221
4 tissue types
- epithelial
- connective
- nervous
- muscle
222
brain, spinal cord, and nerves are all examples of _________ tissue
nervous
223
lining of GI tract organs and other hollow organs, and skin surface are examples of __________ tissue
epithelial
224
cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, skeletal muscle are examples of ________ tissue
muscle
225
fat and other soft padding tissue, bone, and tendon are examples of _________ tissue
connective
226
what are epithelial cells specialized for?
exchange or barrier
227
epithelial sheets
common, exchange nutrients across it
228
epithelial glands
secretion
229
exocrine glands
- ducts
- deliver to the outside
230
endocrine glands
- no ducts
- secrete into the extracellular space and bloodstream
231
lumen
the open space inside of glands
232
anoikis
a process of epithelial cell death after they are isolated or detached
233
why do epithelial cells die after they are isolated or detached?
to prevent ectopic growth or attachment
234
main cell type in connective tissue
fibroblasts
235
skin: cell types and fiber
- cells: mostly fibroblasts, some keratinocytes
- major fiber: collagen fibers
236
3 types of muscle tissue
- cardiac
- smooth
- skeletal
237
skeletal muscle
- striated, long, individual, multinucleated cells
- encased by connective tissue
238
epimysium
dense irregular connective tissue that surround the entire (smooth) muscle
239
perimysium
thinner connective tissue, bundles muscle fibers into fascicles
240
endomysium
fine connective tissue, surrounds each muscle fiber
241
smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary?
involuntary
242
cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary?
involuntary
243
skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary?
voluntary
244
cardiac muscle
composed of branched, cylindrical cells called cardiomyocytes, which are connected by specialized junctions called intercalated discs
245
intercalated discs
used in cardiac cells to ensure coordinated contraction
246
smooth muscle
spindle shaped, inner circular and outer longitudinal
247
nervous tissue
specialized to transmit and receive electrical impulses
248
myelin sheath
insulting nerve fibers so it makes conduction more efficient
249
oligodendrocytes
makes the CNS myelin
250
schwann cells
makes the peripheral myelin
251
neuron: cell body
can sense things
252
neuron: axons
send information
253
neuron: synapse
communicate to the next neuron
254
neuroglia
support cells in nervous tissue (astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, schwann cells, microglia)
255
neuroglia: microglia
macrophages (remove the damaged neurons and infections)
256
multiple sclerosis
antibodies attach the myelin sheath
257
larger objects have a ____ surface area:volume ratio
lower
258
ectoderm
outer layer
259
mesoderm
middle layer
260
endoderm
inner layer
261
what does the ectoderm form?
skin, neurons, pigment cells, etc.
262
what does the mesoderm form?
muscle, connective tissue, kidneys, RBCs, etc.
263
what does the endoderm form?
lining of airways and digestive system, glands, lung cells, thyroid cells, pancreatic cells, etc.
264
through _________ of the embryo, the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm can differentiate
gastrulation
265
synovial membranes
forms synovial fluid to lubricate joints (fibroblasts secrete hylaronic acid which traps water)
266
examples of epithelial membranes
- mucous membranes
- serous membranes
- cutaneous membranes
267
epithelial membranes are anchored by...
underlying connective tissue (lamina propria)
268
mucous membranes
lines external and secretes mucous
269
serous membranes
mesothelium, internal organs (pleura, pericardium, peritoneum)
270
cutaneous membranes
skin, stratified squamous, lamina propia; dead keratinized cells
271
the top of the cell is the ______ side, and the bottom of the cell is the _______ side
apical; basal
272
parts of the basement membrane
- basal lamina (attachment - glycoproteins/collagen)
- reticular lamina (connective tissue)
273
where is cilia commonly located in the body?
in the airways
274
where is microvilli commonly located in the body?
in the intestines
275
3 types of cell junctions
- tight junctions
- anchoring junctions
- gap junctions
276
tight junctions
- connect cells, creates a seal
- creates blood:brain barrier, blood:milk barriers, and zonula occludes
277
zonula occludes
tight junction
278
3 types of anchoring junctions
- desmosomes
- hemi-desmosomes
- zonula adherens
279
desmosomes: purpose, component
- cell:cell
- made up of CAMS (cell adhesion molecules)
- caherin
280
hemi-desmosomes: purpose, component
- cell:ECM
- integrins
281
zonula adherens: purpose, component
- cell shape
- attach to actin:contractile
282
gap junction allows _____ __________
open passage
283
goblet cells secrete _______
mucus
284
goblet cells make the protein _______, which attracts water
mucin
285
what type of cell is located in: air sacs of the lungs and the lining of the heart, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels
simple squamous epithelium
286
simple squamous epithelium function
allows materials to pass through by diffusion and filtration, and secretes lubricating substance
287
what type of cell is located in: ducts and secretory portions of small glands and in kidney tubules
simple cuboidal epithelium
288
simple cuboidal epithelium function
secretes and absorbs
289
what type of cell is located in: ciliates tissues are in broochi, uterine tubes, and uterus; smooth are in digestive tract and bladder
simple columnar epithelium
290
simple columnar epithelium function
absorbs; also secretes mucous and enzymes
291
what type of cell is located in: ciliated tissue lines the trachea and much of the upper respiratory tract
pseudo stratified columnar epithelium
292
pseudo stratified columnar epithelium function
secretes mucus; ciliates will move mucus
293
what type of cell is located in: lines the esophagus, mouth, and vagina
stratified squamous epithelium
294
stratified squamous epithelium function
protects against abrasion
295
what type of cell is located in: sweat glands, salivary glands, and mammary glands
stratified cuboidal epithelium
296
stratified cuboidal epithelium function
protective tissue
297
what type of cell is located in: the male urethra and the ducts of some glands
stratified columnar epithelium
298
stratified columnar epithelium function
secretes and protects
299
what type of cell is located in: bladder
transitional epithelium
300
transitional epithelium function
allows expansion and stretch of organs
301
melanocytes make _________
melanin
302
albinism
congenital absence of melanin
303
in albinism, melanocytes are present but lack the enzyme _________
tyrosinase
304
endocrine glands secrete:
secrete hormones, ductless
305
exocrine glands secrete:
secrete saliva, milk, sweat, mucous, digestive enzymes
306
3 modes of secretion
- merocrine
- apocrine
- holocrine
307
merocrine secretion
exocytosis
308
apocrine secretion
cut the top off (apo=apical)
309
holocrine secretion
the whole cell bursts
310
connective tissue fibers
collagen, elastin
311
3 main categories of connective tissue
1. proper connective tissue
2. supportive connective tissue
3. fluid connective tissue
312
what are the two types of proper connective tissue?
- loose CT
- dense CT
313
what are types of supportive connective tissue?
bone and cartilage
314
what are types of fluid connective tissue?
blood and lymph
315
what are the two TYPES of cells in the connective tissue?
- fixed cells
- wandering cells
316
types of fixed cells
fibroblasts, adipocytes, osteocytes, mesenchymal cells
317
types of wandering cells
immune cells (macrophages, mast cells, lymphocytes, plasma cells, neutrophils)
318
white vs brown adipocytes
- white = unilocular
- brown = multilocular
319
3 types of connective tissue fibers
- collagen
- elastic fiber
- reticular fiber
320
what common structures in the body contain collagen?
ligaments, tendons
321
what structure has elastic fiber?
skin
322
what structures have reticular fiber?
soft organs: liver, spleen, etc.
323
parenchyma
functional part of the organ, blood vessel, and nerves
324
stroma
supportive connective tissue
325
function of loose connective tissue
protects, insulates, shock absorb, allows diffusion
326
types of loose connective tissue
adipose tissue, areolar tissue, reticular tissue
327
two types of dense connective tissue
- regular
- irregular
328
regular dense connective tissue: structure and examples
- structure: parallel fibers
- examples: ligaments and tendons
329
irregular dense connective tissue: structure and examples
- structure: direction of fiber is random
- examples: dermis of skin, arteriole
330
what is the hardest connective tissue?
bone
331
cells in bone
osteoblasts, osteoclasts, osteocytes, osteoprogenitor, chondroblasts, chondrocytes
332
osteo = _______
bone
333
chondro = ________
cartilage
334
function of osteoblasts
lay down bone
335
function of osteoclasts
mobilize
336
gels in bone
glycoproteins, GAGs
337
fiber in bone
collagen
338
what mineral is in bone?
calcium phosphate --> hydroxyapatite
339
function of bone
provides protection and structural support
340
bones ECM is mostly ________ fibers and its ground substance is _________________
collagen; hydroxyapatite
341
endosteum in bone
on the inside
342
periosteum in bone
on the outside
343
where do osteocytes live in bone?
in lacunae (caves in the bone)
344
bone is highly ______________ so it can heal quickly
vascularized
345
ossification
bone formation
346
2 types of bones
- flat bones
- long bones
347
flat bones are made by _____________ ossification
intramembranous
348
long bones are made by _____________ ossification
endochondral (endoCHONDRal = cartilage first).
349
intramembranous ossification
mineral deposited with in a membrane template, makes flat bones
350
endochondral ossification
mineral is laid down with in a cartilage template, makes long bones
351
bone remodeling is a ___________ process, it is always breaking down and remaking itself
continuous
352
bone is ___________ so it can heal fast, while cartilage is ___________ and can typically only heal through surgery
vascular, avascular
353
arteriole vs venule structure
- arteriole = smooth muscle so it looks round and muscular
- venule = no smooth muscle, easily collapses and occludes
354
erythrocytes
red blood cells
355
leukocytes
white blood cells
356
Buffy coat
the white blood cell layer when you spin blood
357
platelets are used for ___________
clotting
358
lymph
ECF (no RBCs), delivers absorbed dietary fats through circulation
359
why do people collapse after standing for a long time?
lymph is moved by breathing and muscle contraction, so if you don't move your muscles for an extended period of time it accumulates in the legs/feet causing edema
360
components of lymph
- lymphatic fluid
- lymphatic vessels
- lymphocytes
- lymphoid tissues, organs (spleen, thymus)
361
3 types of cartilage
1. hyaline
2. fibrocartilage
3. elastic cartilage
362
hyaline cartilage
- most common
- strong and flexible
363
template for embryonic skeletal
hyaline cartilage
364
rib cage, nose, end of articulated bone are examples of ______ cartilage
hyaline
365
fibrocartilage and examples
tough, thick bundles of collagen
366
elastic cartilage
contains elastin with collagen and PGs
367
meniscus of knee, vertebral discs are ________cartilage
fibrocartilage
368
pinna of ears, Eustachian tubes, larynx are examples of ______ cartilage
elastic
369
melanocytes use __________ mode of secretion
merocrine
370
melanocytes sit in between the ________ cells of the skin
basal
371
2 main layers of skin
- epidermis
- dermis
372
beneath the dermis is the _________
hypodermis
373
keratinocytes
majority of skin cells
374
basal cells
proliferating/replicating layer (creates more cells)
375
merkel cells
touch receptors (attached to a sensory nerve)
376
melanocytes
melanin pigment (skin pigmentation, protects from environment)
377
langerhans cells
- macrophages
- protects the skin by "eating" infections that come into contact with the skin
378
what makes keratinocytes die?
basal cells keep dividing, pushing out keratinocytes, the further pushed out they are the further they are from blood supply, so devoid of nutrients and oxygen they will die
379
what is the lifespan of a keratinocyte?
30-40 day lifespan
380
cornification / coenocytes
layer of dead cells
381
skin cancer is called ________
melanomas
382
an important player in UVB-induced apoptosis is the transcription factor ______
p53
383
sebaceous glands produce _________
sebum (oily, sticky secretion)
384
acne vulgaris
plugged hair follicle or excess sebum secretion, bacteria love it and will make inflammation response causing acne or blackheads
385
when trying to pop a pimple, the _______ layer does NOT have blood vessels, so if you make yourself bleed you have cut into the ____________
keratin; epidermis
386
lanolin
wax secreted by the sebaceous glands of wool-bearing animals
387
exocrine sweat glands
- most common
- hypnotic sweat
- all over body
388
apocrine sweat glands
- large and deep
- make other compounds
- associated with hair follicles
389
during cold stress, what happens to the blood vessels?
- heat is retained
- vasoconstriction (blood goes deep into the body)
390
during heat stress, what happens to the blood vessels?
- heat is dissipated
- vasodilation (heat loss through radiation and convection)
391
5 cardinal signs of inflammation
- redness (rubor)
- heat (calor)
- pain (dolor)
- swelling (tumor)
- loss of function (functio laesa)
392
acute
short term, very painful
393
chronic
pain lasts forever
394
the mast cell is part of the __________ system
immune
395
the mast cell is known for releasing _____________
histamine
396
when does the mast cell release histamine?
when encountering an antigen they don't recognize it triggers a response, the mast cell will degranulate releasing histamine causing inflammation
397
main difference between mast cell and basophil
- mast cells are in tissue
- basophil is in blood
398
mast cell vs basophil
- mast cell: in tissue, many granules, membrane projections, large size, lives months, round nucleus
- basophil: in blood, few granules, smooth muscle, small size, lives days, lobed nucleus
399
mast cells and basophils arise from a ___________ stem cell precursor in the bone marrow
common
400
what activates mast cells
- receptor-binding agonists
- physical activators
- cell-cell contact
401
what is released from mast cells (stored in granules)
- performed mediators
- T and B cell ligands
- newly synthesized mediators
402
steps of healing
1. clotting
2. healing
3. angiogenesis
4. primary union or secondary union
403
angiogenesis
replace blood vessels
404
primary union
healing a narrow gap (small wound)
405
secondary union
healing a gaping wound (big wound)
406
granulation tissue
- primary tissue to fill in a wound
- appears red and bumpy, highly vascular, made up of macrophages
407
cytokines
activate fibroblasts (to make collagen, trigger endothelialization, and help form blood vessels)
408
atrophy
wastage, degeneration, decline, loss of mass
409
"old age diseases"
heart conditions, type 2 diabetes, cancer
410
nervous system + endocrine system
signaling systems
411
nervous system uses ________ and ___________ signals
uses electrical and chemical signals
412
endocrine system uses only ___________ signals
chemical
413
endocrine _________ produce hormones, transported in ________ (mostly), binds to receptors on _________ cells
organs (glands); blood; target
414
why do hormones need receptors on target cells?
since hormones are transported by blood a lot of the body is exposed to the hormones, so only the ones with a receptor for the hormone will have a response
415
be able to identify all endocrine glands and identify anatomical structures!!!!!!
416
4 main classes of hormones
- amine hormones
- peptide hormone
- protein hormone
- steroid hormone
417
components of amine hormones
amino acids with modified groups
418
components of peptide hormones
short chains linked amino acids
419
components of protein hormones
long chains of linked amino acids
420
components of steroid hormones
derived from the lipid cholesterol
421
examples of amine hormone
norepinephrine and epinephrine
422
example of peptide hormone
oxytocin
423
example of a protein hormone
human growth hormone
424
examples of steroid hormones
testosterone, progesterone
425
list the 4 main classes of hormones from biggest to smallest
protein hormone, peptide hormone, steroid hormone, amine hormone
426
which hormones have receptors on the membrane?
protein and peptide hormones
427
which hormones have receptors inside the cell / in the cytoplasm?
steroid and amino hormones
428
what does the synthesis of norepinephrine and epinephrine look like?
tyrosine ----> norepinephrine ---(add a methyl)--> epinephrine
429
epinephrine
increases heat rate, blood pressure, and blood sugar levels (also dilates airways)
430
norepinephrine
increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels (also enhances alertness and focus)
431
binding of lipid-soluble hormones
1. hormone diffuses through membrane
2. binds to receptor in cytoplasm
3. enters nucleus and triggers gene transcription
4. transcribed mRNA is translated into proteins that alter cell activity
432
which is faster: steroid hormones to protein hormones?
protein hormones are faster
433
Unlike endocrine glands, exocrine glands have ______ to secrete outside the cell
Ducts
434
Zonula occludens vs zonula adherens
Zonula Occludens is a type of tight junction while Zonula adherens is an anchoring junction
435
