Exam 1 Book Questions

Question 1

the smallest independently functioning unit of an organism is a(n) ___________.

Answer 1

cell

Question 2

a collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an _________.

Answer 2

organ

Question 3

the body system responsible for structural support and movement is the _____________.

Answer 3

skeletal system

Question 4

metabolism can be defined as the ___________________.

Answer 4

sum of all chemical reactions in an organism

Question 5

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an important molecule because it ______________.

Answer 5

stores energy for use by body cells

Question 6

cancer cells can be characterized as “generic” cells that perform no specialized body function. thus cancer cells lack __________.

Answer 6

differentiation

Question 7

humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of _______.

Answer 7

oxygen

Question 8

which of the following statements about nutrients is true?
a) all classes of nutrients are essential to human survival
b) because the body cannot store any micronutrients, they need to be consumed nearly every day
c) CHO, lipids, and proteins are micronutrients
d) macronutrients are vitamins and minerals

Answer 8

b) because the body cannot store any micronutrients, they need to be consumed nearly every day

Question 9

C.J. is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. her body responds to the cold by _________________.
a) increasing the blood to her hands and feet
b) becoming lethargic to conserve heat
c) breaking down stored energy
d) significantly increasing blood oxygen levels

Answer 9

c) breaking down stored energy

Question 10

after you eat lunch, nerve cells in your stomach respond to the distention (stimulus) resulting from the food. they relay this information to _____________.

Answer 10

a control center

Question 11

stimulation of the heat-loss center causes ___________.
a) blood vessels in the skin to constrict
b) breathing to become slow and shallow
c) sweat glands to increase their input
d) all of the above

Answer 11

c) sweat glands to increase their output

Question 12

which of the following is an example of a normal physiologic process that uses a positive feedback loop?
a) blood pressure regulation
b) childbirth
c) regulation of fluid balance
d) temperature regulation

Answer 12

b) childbirth

Question 13

what is the position of the body when it is in the “normal anatomical position”?

Answer 13

standing upright, facing forward, with arms at the sides, palms facing forward, legs parallel, and feet flat on the floor, with toes pointing straight ahead

Question 14

to make a banana split, you halve a banana into two, long, thin, right and left sides along the ____________.

Answer 14

longitudinal plane

Question 15

the lumbar region is ____________.
a) inferior to the gluteal region
b) inferior to the umbilical region
c) superior to the cervical region
d) superior to the popliteal region

Answer 15

d) superior to the popliteal region

Question 16

the heart it within the _________.

Answer 16

mediastinum

Question 17

in 1901, Wilhelm Rontgen was the first person to win the Nobel Prize for physics. For what discovery did he win?

Answer 17

x-ray

Question 18

which of the following imaging techniques would be best to use to study the uptake of nutrients by rapidly multiplying cancer cells?
a) CT
b) MRI
c) PET
d) ultrasonography

Answer 18

c) PET

Question 19

Which of the following imaging studies can be used most safely during pregnancy?
a) CT scans
b) PET scans
c) ultrasounds
d) X-rays

Answer 19

c) ultrasounds

Question 20

what are the two major disadvantages of MRI scans?

Answer 20

• high cost
• the need for shielding magnetic signals

Question 21

Together, just four elements make up more than 95 percent of the body’s mass. These include _________.

Answer 21

oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

Question 22

The smallest unit of an element that still retains the distinctive behavior of that element is an __________.

Answer 22

atom

Question 23

The characteristic that gives an element its distinctive properties is its number of __________.

Answer 23

protons

Question 24

a molecule of ammonia contains one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen. These are linked with ___________.

Answer 24

polar covalent bonds

Question 25

when an atom donates an electron to another atom, it becomes ____________.

Answer 25

an ion

Question 26

a substance formed of crystals of equal numbers of cations and anions held together by ionic bonds is called a _______.

Answer 26

salt

Question 27

which of the following statements about chemical bonds is true? a) covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds b) hydrogen bonds occur between two atoms of hydrogen c) bonding readily occurs between non polar and polar molecules d) a molecule of water is unlikely to bond with an ion

Answer 27

a) covalent bonds are stronger than ionic bonds

Question 28

the energy stored in a foot of snow on a steep roof is ________ energy.

Answer 28

potential

Question 29

the bonding of calcium, phosphorus, and other elements produces mineral crystals that are bond in bone. This is an example of a ___________ reaction.

Answer 29

synthesis

Question 30

AB ---> A+B is a general notation for an _________ reaction.

Answer 30

decomposition

Question 31

___________ reactions release energy

Answer 31

catabolic

Question 32

Which of the following combination of atoms is most likely to result in a chemical reaction? a) hydrogen and hydrogen b) hydrogen and helium c) helium and helium d) neon and helium

Answer 32

a) hydrogen and hydrogen

Question 33

chewing a bite of bread mixes it with saliva and facilitates its chemical breakdown. This is most likely due to the fact that __________. a) the inside of the mouth maintains a very high temperature b) chewing stores potential energy c) chewing facilitates synthesis reactions d) saliva contains enzymes

Answer 33

d) saliva contains enzymes

Question 34

CH4 is methane. This compound is __________. a) inorganic b) organic c) reactive d) a crystal

Answer 34

b) organic

Question 35

Which of the following is most likely to be found evenly distributed in water in a homogenous solution? a) sodium ions and chloride ions b) NaCl molecules c) salt crystals d) red blood cells

Answer 35

a) sodium ions and chloride ions

Question 36

Jenny mixes up a batch of pancake batter, then stirs in some chocolate chips. As she is waiting for the first few pancakes to cook, she notices the chocolate chips sinking to the bottom of the of the clear glass mixing bowl. The chocolate chip batter is an example of a ____________. a) solvent b) solute c) solution d) suspension

Answer 36

d) suspension

Question 37

A substance dissociates into K+ and Cl- in solution. the substance is a _________. a) acid b) base c) salt d) buffer

Answer 37

c) salt

Question 38

Ty is three years old and as a result of a "stomach bug" has been vomiting for about 24 hours. His blood pH is 7.48. What does this mean?

Answer 38

Ty's blood is slightly alkaline

Question 39

C6H12O6 is the chemical formula for a ________. a) polymer of carbohydrate b) pentose monosaccharide c) hexose monosaccharide d) all of the above

Answer 39

c) hexose monosaccharide

Question 40

What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel? a) glucose b) glycogen c) galactose d) glycerol

Answer 40

a) glucose

Question 41

which of the following is a functional group that is part of a building block of proteins? a) phosphate b) adenine c) amino d) ribose

Answer 41

c) amino

Question 42

a pentose sugar is part of the monomer used to build which type of macromolecule? a) polysaccharides b) nucleic acids c) phosphorylated glucose d) glycogen

Answer 42

b) nucleic acids

Question 43

a phospholipid ___________. a) has both polar and non polar regions b) is made up of a triglyceride bonded to a phosphate group c) is a building block of ATP d) can donate both cations and anions in solution

Answer 43

a) has both polar and non polar regions

Question 44

in DNA, nucleotide bonding forms a compound with a characteristic shape known as a ___________.

Answer 44

double helix

Question 45

Uracil _______. a) contains nitrogen b) is a pyrimidine c) is found in RNA d) all of the above

Answer 45

d) all of the above

Question 46

The ability of an enzyme's active sites to bind only substrates of compatible shape and charge is known as ___________.

Answer 46

specificity

Question 47

because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of __________. a) receptor proteins b) integral proteins c) peripheral proteins d) glycoproteins

Answer 47

b) integral proteins

Question 48

the diffusion of substances within a solution tends to move those substances _______ their __________ gradient.

Answer 48

down; concentration

Question 49

ion pumps and phagocytosis are both example of __________. a) endocytosis b) passive transport c) active transport d) facilitated diffusion

Answer 49

c) active transport

Question 50

choose the answer that best completes the following analogy: diffusion is to _______ as endocytosis is to _________.

Answer 50

osmosis; pinocytosis

Question 51

choose the answer that best completes the following analogy: cytoplasm is to cytosol as a swimming pool containing chlorine and flotation toys is to _______________.

Answer 51

the water

Question 52

the rough ER has its name due to what associated structures?

Answer 52

ribosomes

Question 53

which of the following is a function of the rough ER? a) production of proteins b) detoxification of certain substances c) synthesis of steroid hormones d) regulation of intracellular calcium concentration

Answer 53

a) production of proteins

Question 54

which of the following is a feature common to all three components of the cytoskeleton? a) they all serve to scaffold the organelles within the cell b) they are all characterized by roughly the same diameter c) they are all polymers of protein subunits d) they all help the cell resist compression and tension

Answer 54

c) they are all polymers of protein subunits

Question 55

Which organelle produces large quantities of ATP when both glucose and oxygen are available to the cell?

Answer 55

mitochondria

Question 56

the nucleus and mitochondria share which of the the following features? a) protein-lined membrane pores b) a double cell membrane c) the synthesis of ribosomes d) the production of cellular energy

Answer 56

a) protein-lined membrane pores

Question 57

which of the following structures could be found within a nucleolus? a) chromatin b) histones c) ribosomes d) nucleosomes

Answer 57

c) ribosomes

Question 58

place the following structures in order from least to most complex organization: chromatin, nucleosome, DNA, chromosome

Answer 58

DNA, nucleosome, chromatin, chromosome

Question 59

which of the following is part of the elongation step of DNA synthesis? a) pulling apart the two DNA strands b) attaching complementary nucleotides to the template strand c) untwisting the DNA helix d) none of the above

Answer 59

b) attaching complementary nucleotides to the template strand

Question 60

which of the following is not a difference between DNA and RNA? a) DNA contains thymine whereas RNA contains uracil b) DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA contains ribose c) DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars d) RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded

Answer 60

c) DNA contains alternating sugar-phosphate molecules whereas RNA does not contain sugars

Question 61

transcription and translation take place in the _________ and _________, respectively.

Answer 61

nucleus; cytoplasm

Question 62

how many "letters" of an RNA molecule, in sequence does it take to provide the code for a single amino acid?

Answer 62

3

Question 63

which of the following is not made out of RNA? a) the carriers that shuffle AA to a growing polypeptide strand b) the ribosome c) the messenger molecule that provides the code for protein synthesis d) the intron

Answer 63

d) the intron

Question 64

Which of the phases in the cell cycle is characterized by preparation for DNA synthesis?

Answer 64

G1

Question 65

a mutation in the gene for a cyclin protein might result in which of the following? a) a cell with additional genetic material b) cancer c) a cell with less genetic material than normal d) any of the above

Answer 65

b) cancer

Question 66

what is the primary function of tumor suppressor genes?

Answer 66

stop certain cells from dividing

Question 67

arrange the following terms in order of increasing specialization: oligopotency, pleuripotency, unipotency, multipotency

Answer 67

pleuripotency, multi potency, oligopotency, unipotency

Question 68

which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells?

Answer 68

hematopoietic

Question 69

what multipoint stem cells from children sometimes banked by parents?

Answer 69

fetal stem cells

Question 70

which of the following is not a type of tissue? a) muscle b) nervous c) embryonic d) epithelial

Answer 70

c) embryonic

Question 71

the process by which a less specialized cell mates into a more specialized cell is called ____________.

Answer 71

differentiation

Question 72

differentiated cells in developing embryo derive from ____________.

Answer 72

ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

Question 73

which of the following lines the body cavities exposed to the external environment? a) mesothelium b) lamina propria c) mesenteries d) mucosa

Answer 73

d) mucosa

Question 74

in observing epithelial cells under a microscope, the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow, and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell. the specimen is what type of epithelial tissue?

Answer 74

a) columnar

Question 75

which epithelial tissue lines the interior of blood vessels?

Answer 75

simple squamous

Question 76

which type of epithelial tissue specializes in moving particles across its surface and found in airways and lining the oviduct?

Answer 76

stratified columnar

Question 77

the ____________ exocrine gland stores its secretion until the glandular cell ruptures, whereas the _________ gland releases its apical region and reforms.

Answer 77

holocrine; apocrine

Question 78

connective tissue is made of which of three essential components?

Answer 78

cells, ground substance (gels), and protein fibers

Question 79

under a microscope, a tissue specimen shows cells located in spaces scattered in a transparent background. This is probably a ___________. a) loose connective tissue b) a tendon c) bone d) hyaline cartilage

Answer 79

d) hyaline cartilage

Question 80

which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat?

Answer 80

adipose tissue

Question 81

ligaments connect bones together and withstand a lot of stress. what type of connective tissue should you expect ligaments to contain? a) areolar tissue b) adipose tissue c) dense regular connective tissue d) dense irregular connective tissue

Answer 81

c) dense regular connective tissue

Question 82

in adults, new connective tissue cells originate from the ____________.

Answer 82

mesenchyme

Question 83

in bone, the main cells are __________.

Answer 83

osteocytes

Question 84

striations, cylindrical cells, and multiple nuclei are observed in ___________. a) skeletal muscle only b) cardiac muscle only c) smooth muscle only d) skeletal and cardiac muscle

Answer 84

a) skeletal muscle only

Question 85

the cells of muscles, myocytes, develop from ____________.

Answer 85

myoblasts

Question 86

skeletal muscle is composed of very hard working cells. which organelle do you expect to find in abundance in skeletal muscle cell?

Answer 86

mitochondria

Question 87

the cells responsible for transmission of the nerve impulse are _________.

Answer 87

neurons

Question 88

the nerve impulse teasels down an ______, away from the cell body.

Answer 88

axon

Question 89

which of the following central nervous system cells regulate ions, regulate the uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier? a) microglia b) neuroglia c) oligodendrocytes d) astocytes

Answer 89

a) microglia

Question 90

which of the following processes is not a cardinal sign of inflammation? a) redness b) heat c) fever d) swelling

Answer 90

c) fever

Question 91

when a mast cell reacts to irritation, what chemical does it release?

Answer 91

histamine

Question 92

atrophy refers to ________.

Answer 92

loss of mass

Question 93

individuals can slow the rate of aging by modifying all of these lifestyle aspects except for ________. a) diet b) exercise c) genetic factors d) stress

Answer 93

c) genetic factors