Final Exam--SA material Flashcards

1
Q

In most cases, feline hyperthyroidism is due to?

A

adenoma of thyroid gland

*usually bilateral

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2
Q

The most common physical exam finding in cats with hyperthyroid?

A

palpable goiter

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3
Q

T/F: Feline hyperthyroidism can cause marked elevations in liver enzymes

A

False

*MILD increases (up to 400s)

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4
Q

How can you determine if feline thyroid nodules are malignant?

A

histopath is ONLY definitive way

*radionuclide scan can only be suggestive

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5
Q

Which treatment options for feline hyperthyroidism are reversible if hypothyroidism develops?

A

Medical (Methimazole) & dietary

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6
Q

If ectopic thyroid tissue is present, what would be your best treatment choice?

A

radioiodine

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7
Q

Regardless of therapy choice, ~25% of cats will develop what after being treated for hyperthyroidism? why?

A

25% develop azotemia

hyperthyroidism masks renal disease by increasing GFR–so when you stop the disease, GFR decreases and azotemia develops

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8
Q

Methimazole:

1) MOA
2) most common side effect

A

inhibits formations of T4

GI side effects most common (anorexia, vomiting)

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9
Q

What clinical side effects (4), if they develop, would mean permanent d/c of methimazole as a method of treatment?

A

1) severe facial pruritus
2) thrombocytopenia (bleeding)
3) icertus
4) agranulocytosis (low neutrophil #)

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10
Q

When regulating T4 levels in hyperthyroid cat, where do we want the levels to be?

A

in lower half of RR

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11
Q

You must give radioactive iodine ___months to work before assuming cat is still hyperthyroid or has developed hypothyroidism

A

3 months

*transient hypothyroidism is normal

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12
Q

When would surgery or radioactive iodine be contraindicated in treating feline hyperthyroidism?

A

If the cat is azotemic prior to receiving any treatment AND fails trial medical therapy

*failing= azotemia worsens and clinical signs of renal failure develop

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13
Q

The best marker of hypothyroidism in a cat?

A

Elevated TSH

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14
Q

When do clinical signs of DM develop?

A

when glucosuria develops

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15
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose in

1) dogs
2) cats

A

1) 200mg/dL

2) 300mg/dL

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16
Q

How does sex predilection for DM differ btwn dogs and cats?

A

dogs–females are 2x as likely to be affected

cats–neutered males are more likely

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17
Q

3 most common clinical signs assoc. with DM?

A

polyphagia
PU/PD
weight loss

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18
Q

A clinical sign of DM unique to

1) dogs
2) cats

A

1) cataracts

2) diabetic neuropathy

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19
Q

What 3 criteria must be met to make the dx of DM?

A

1) appropriate clinical signs
2) persistent fasting hyperglycemia
3) persistent glucosuria

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20
Q

Why are UTIs so important to r/o before starting therapy for DM? How can we rule out a UTI in a diabetic?

A

only way to rule out is to do a culture

infection can cause insulin resistance!!

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21
Q

As far as dietary recommendations for diabetics go, the most important thing to avoid feeding is?

A

simple carbs–are absorbed too quickly and cause severe post-prandial hyperglycemia

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22
Q

Which types of insulin:

1) are veterinary products
2) are used for emergency situations

A

1) Vetsulin (lente) & PZI

2) Regular & Lispro

23
Q

Considering handling of insulin, most should be ______ to be mixed; the exception is ?

A

rolled;

exception= vetsulin (shake this one)

24
Q

Which insulin, due to higher potency, requires a lower initial dose?

A

Detemir

25
Q

What 4 components do we use to monitor diabetics?

*4 pieces of the puzzle

A

1) clinical signs
2) BG curves
3) glycosylated proteins
4) urine glucose

26
Q

What is the ideal nadir for both dogs and cats?

What do you do if it’s too high? Too low?

A

80-150

If too high–increase dose 10-25%

if too low–decrease dose (50% if clinical signs of hypoglycemia)

27
Q

What are your two options if duration of insulin activity isn’t appropriate?

A

change insulin

change frequency of administration

28
Q

Which oral hypoglycemic agent can replace insulin in cats? What’s its MOA?

A

Glipizide;

binds sulfonylurea receptor to cause insulin release

29
Q

Which oral hypoglycemic agent can only be used IN COMBINATION with insulin (not alone) in both dogs and cats

A

Acarbose

**prevents breakdown of maltose and sucrose to decrease carb/glucose absorption from GI tract

30
Q

What two situations (if present) should make you SUSPECT insulin resistance

A

1) if patient remains markedly hyperglycemic on dose >1.0 U/kg
2) if patient requires a dose >1.5U/kg to

31
Q

If a dog is on a low dose of insulin but still becoming hypoglycemic, you should suspect?

A

maldigestion/malabsorption (EPI or other dz)

32
Q

The predominant ketone in dogs and cats?

A

beta-hydroxybutyrate

also acetone and acetoacetic acid

33
Q

When treating DKA, what are your top 3 goals?

A

1) achieve and maintain hydration
2) correct electrolyte abnormalities
3) reduce BG

34
Q

A patient presents with DKA–when you spin the blood down, the serum is red. What is your ain concern?

A

Hypophosphatemia

**causes hemolysis

35
Q

In DKA patients, by which route should you NOT administer insulin?

A

SQ–dehydration alters absorption

36
Q

1 presenting clinical sign of dogs with insulinoma?

A

seizures

37
Q

If BG is low (<60) what two insulin level findings would be indicative of insulinoma

A

1) if inuslin is above normal

2) if insulin in upper 50% of RR

38
Q

Why is prednisone indicated for tx of insulinomas?

A

it causes insulin resistance

39
Q

What are the chances of a cure with surgical removal in insulinoma?

A

0%!!

only diagnostic and therapeutic–WILL NOT CURE

40
Q

Compared to feline thyroid tumors, canine thyroid tumors tend to be _____ and _______

A

malignant and non-functional

41
Q

A dog presents for a cervical mass. When you got to aspirate it, the contents appears to be straight blood… you’re suspicious the mass is a?

A

thyroid tumor (most likely carcinoma)

42
Q

What characteristics of mass must be present for sx to potentially be curative?

A

Mass must be small, freely movable

**if invasive, can’t cure with sx

43
Q

Pheochromocytomas are tumors of the _____ and secrete what?

A

adrenal medulla

Epi and norepi

44
Q

Prior to sx on adrenal glands, you can administer which drug? Why?

A

Phenoxybenzamine–blocks effects of any epi that gets released

45
Q

Gastrinomas are tumors of the _____ cells; what do they secrete?

A

pancreatic delta cells

*secrete gastrin

46
Q

2 effects of hypergastrinemia

A

1) increased gastric acid secretion (ulcerations)

2) hypertrophy of stomach rugal folds (can affect motility and cause outflow tract obstruction)

47
Q

The biggest stimulus for secretion of ADH is?

A

plasma osmolality

48
Q

Define polydipsia in:

1) dogs

2) cats

A

1) > 100ml/kg/day

2) >45ml/kg/day

49
Q

3 most common causes of PU/PD in

1) dogs
2) cats

A

1) renal failure, HAC, DM

2) renal failure, DM, hyperthryoid

50
Q

Only do a modified water deprivation test if what 3 things are left on your ddx list?

A

1) central DI
2) psychogenic polydipsia
3) primary nephrogenic DI

51
Q

What are the 3 major endpoints for water deprivation test?

A

1) Azotemia (if present before test, don’t start it)
2) plasma osmolality >320 mOsm/kg

3) USG concentrates
(>1.030 dog, >1.035 cat)

52
Q

Why might some animals with DI show neuro signs?

A

~40% have a tumor in area of pituitary destroying ability to secrete ADH

53
Q

For which cause of PU/PD is water restriction the recommended tx?

A

Psychogenic polydipsia

54
Q

What type of treatment is used for nephrogenic DI?

A

Thiazide diurectics

**dehydrates patient and forces them to save Na and water follows