Final Quiz - ALL CHAPTERS Flashcards
(120 cards)
1
Q
Q1: Which of the following statements are true? (choose two)
A. The system engineering is in charge of the technical part of the system. He/she interacts with the project manager when it comes to budget and business case.
B. The system engineer is in charge of the technical part of the system. He/she is as well responsible of the project processes (e.g., planning).
C. The project manager will work closely with the system engineer to define the technical tasks and risks.
D. The system engineer define with the project manager the resource allocation and the financial contacts.
A
A/C
2
Q
Q2: Which two of the following challenges influence the engineering of System of Systems? (Choose two)
A. Technical SoS management.
B. System elements have different life cycles.
C. SoS business case.
D. Autonomy, interdependencies and emergence.
A
B/D
3
Q
Q3: Which three of the following are products produced by the Stakeholder Needs and Requirements Definition Process? (Choose three)
A. Traceability Matrix.
B. Preliminary MOE needs.
C. Life cycle concepts.
D. System specification.
E. Validation criteria.
A
A/C/E
4
Q
Q4: Which three of the following are attributes of good requirements? (Choose three)
A. Consistent - one requirement shall not conflict with another.
B. Verifiable - it shall be possible to verify that the solution meets the requirement.
C. Implementation specific - includes “how to” aspects of design.
A
A/B/D
5
Q
Q5: Which with standards is the SE handbook compliant? (Choose two)
A. SEBoK.
B. ISO 9000: 2005.
C. ISO/IEC TR 19760: 2003.
D. ISO/IEC 15288:2015.
A
A/D
6
Q
Q6: What are the main acceptance criteria for the lead contractor negotiator? (Choose three)
A. Cost.
B. Percent of the SRD.
C. Delay.
D. Requirements stability.
A
B/D/E
7
Q
Q7: What are technical processes? (Choose three)
A. Life cycle management, Stakeholder Needs & Requirements Definition, Verification, Validation.
B. Stakeholder Need & Requirement Definition, System Requirements Definition, Architecture Definition.
C. Implementation, Integration, Verification, Transition.
D. Validation, Operation, Maintenance, Disposal.
A
B/C/D
8
Q
Q8: Which of the following items are activities of the supply process? (Choose three)
A. Monitor the Agreement
B. Respond to the tender.
C. Deliver the product or service.
D. Identify opportunities.
A
B/C/D
9
Q
Q9: Which of the following are model types (taxonomy of models)? (Choose three)
A. Abstract.
B. Informal.
C. Deterministic.
D. Formal.
E. FMECA.
A
A/B/D
10
Q
Q10: What is Systems Engineering? (Choose three)
A. An interdisciplinary approach.
B. Business activities.
C. A set of lessons learned on marketing.
D. Socio-technical discipline.
E. Perspective based on Systems Thinking.
A
A/D/E
11
Q
Q11: Which two of the following attributes describe the hierarchy within a system? (Choose two)
A. A system element could be viewed as a system itself.
B. An element should have no more than 7 ± 2 subordinate entities.
C. A level of design with few subordinate entities has a lot of distinct design activities.
D. Simple system should have at least as many levels in the hierarchy than complex systems.
A
A/B
12
Q
Q12: Which of the following five are outputs of the Acquisition Process? (Choose two)
A. Acquisition Strategy.
B. Acquisition Proposal.
C. Accepted System.
D. Organization Policies.
E. Project Infrastructure.
A
A/C
13
Q
Q13: What are the inputs for Tailoring processes? (Choose two)
A. SRD.
B. Organization Strategic Plan.
C. Life cycle models.
D. Organization Tailoring Strategy.
A
B/C
14
Q
Q14: Which three of the following attributes describes the value of Systems Engineering? (Choose three)
A. SE effort increases project costs.
B. SE effort can be a positive factor in controlling cost and schedule overruns.
C. Optimal SE effort is about 14%.
D. SE effort reduces risk on the project execution.
A
B/C/D
15
Q
Q15: Which two of the following attributes describe the role of the System Engineer along the system life-cycle? (Choose two)
A. The System Engineer focuses only on the requirement determination.
B. The System Engineer role encompasses activities from requirement determination to retirement.
C. The System Engineer works closely with the project manager in tailoring the generic life cycle, through decision gates.
D. The Systems Engineer manages the system life-cycle from requirement determination to retirement.
A
B/C
16
Q
Q16: What are the addressed questions of a decision gate of the lifecycle? (Choose three)
A. Does the project deliverables still satisfy the business case?
B. Can the project be delivered when needed?
C. What will be the next stage?
D. Is it affordable?
E. Is it feasible?
A
A/B/D
17
Q
Q17: What are the outputs of the information management process? (Choose two)
A. The information items.
B. The information management strategy.
C. The information repository.
D. The information CIs.
A
B/C
18
Q
Q18: Which of the following are examples of infrastructures systems? (Choose three)
A. Bridges.
B. Helicopters.
C. Operation system software.
D. Physical structures used for commodity transfers.
E. Roads.
A
A/D/E
19
Q
Q19: What are the generic life-cycle stages? (Choose two)
A. Concept.
B. Specification.
C. Deployment.
D. Operations.
E. Disposal.
F. Support.
A
A/F
20
Q
Q20: What are the activities of the stakeholder needs and requirements definition process? (Choose three)
A. To define interactions of the system or solution with the users.
B. To refine the system requirements.
C. To analyze stakeholder requirements.
D. To develop operational concept.
A
A/C/D
21
Q
Q21: What are the purposes of the development stage? (Choose three)
A. To define/refine the system requirements.
B. To explore feasible concepts.
C. To create solution description - architecture and design.
D. To produce systems.
E. To integrate, verify and validate systems.
A
A/C/E
22
Q
Q22: Which of the following three are products produced by the System Requirements Definition process? (Choose three)
A. System requirements.
B. User Needs statement.
C. System Function definition.
D. System Elements.
E. Updated RTVM.
A
A/C/E
23
Q
Q23: Which two of the following attributes are purposes of the retirement stage? (Choose two)
A. To remove the system and its services from operation.
B. To plan for system disposal.
C. To terminate the project.
D. To store and archive.
A
A/D
24
Q
Q24: Which two are components of a project cycle? (Choose two)
A. Staffing.
B. Deliverables.
C. Decision Gates.
D. Systems engineering.
A
B/C
25
Q25: What are the activities for Tailoring Processes? (Choose three)
A. To obtain input from parties affected by tailoring decisions.
B. To reuse a tailored baseline from another system.
C. To take due account of the life cycle structures.
D. To reuse all processes "just to be safe".
E. To identify and record the circumstances that influence tailoring.
A/C/E
26
Q26: Select among the following propositions the life-cycle models? (Choose three)
A. Lean development model.
B. Waterfall.
C. Spiral.
D. Vee.
E. LAI.
B/C/D
27
Q27: In which stage is the initial system implemented? (Choose one)
A. Concept.
B. Development.
C. Production.
D. Utilization.
E. Support.
B
28
Q28: What are the inputs for the Stakeholder Requirements definition process? (Choose three)
A. Concept documents.
B. Validation criteria.
C. Source document.
D. Stakeholder needs.
E. Project constraints.
C/D/E
29
Q29: What (or who) among the following list can be stakeholders? (Choose four)
A. System Engineer.
B. Customers.
C. End-users.
D. Operators.
E. Stakeholders of interoperating systems.
F. System of interest.
B/C/D/E
30
Q30: Which document describes the scenarios of the utilization stage? (Choose one)
A. Concept of production.
B. Concept of deployment.
C. OpsCon.
D. Concept of support.
E. Concept of disposal.
C
31
Q31: What is the role of the information management process with regards to the decision making, risk and configuration management process? (Choose one)
A. It is the mechanism to ensure coherency between these different processes.
B. It is the mechanism to maintain the historical knowledge of these processes.
C. It is the mechanism that provides access to the SEP, Q and Risk Management Plan.
D. It is the mechanism that ensures that all these processes are properly and dynamically connected.
B
32
Q32: What are the factors that influence the Tailoring Processes? (Choose three)
A. Risk tolerance.
B. Complexity of the system.
C. Human Factors Engineering.
D. Stakeholders.
E. Verification and Validation processes.
A/B/D
33
Q33: Why are the System Requirements fundamental? (Choose three)
A. For system definition.
B. For design definition process.
C. For system integration.
D. For system configuration management.
E. For system verification.
F. For system disposal.
B/C/E
34
Q34: What are the main characteristics of the system requirement definition process? (Choose three)
A. It is an iterative activity.
B. It focuses on solution.
C. It is a top-down and bottom-up process.
D. It consists in allocation and flow-down.
A/C/D
35
Q35: What are the questions a Project manager shall ask during the decision gate? (Choose three)
A. Business Case: Does the project deliverable still satisfy the business case?
B. Business Case: Does the product still match my customer's needs?
C. Budget: Is it affordable?
D. Technical: Can it be delivered when needed?
E. Technical: Are the Technical Performance Measures (TPMs) achieved?
A/C/D
36
Q36: When shall the SyRS (System Requirement Specification) be written?
A. At the very beginning, in the stakeholder needs & requirements definition process.
B. Once the stakeholder requirements are known, in the development of the system requirements (i.e., the requirements analysis process).
C. Depending on the granularity of the System requirements, this SRD can be drafted all along the Vee cycle.
D. Once the non-functional requirements are known, in the Functional Requirements Elicitation process.
B
37
Q37: Which three statements are true about the N2 diagram? (Choose three)
A. Applicable to functions or physical entities.
B. Useful in defining and understanding interfaces.
C. Places interfaces on the diagonal for ease of understanding.
D. Shows inputs between each function or entity.
E. Can be used instead of the interface specifications.
A/B/D
38
Q38: Challenges related to maintaining databases or sharing data across multiple platforms and organizations are tackled by which of the following process? (Choose one)
A. The configuration management process.
B. The information management process.
C. The agreement process.
D. The tailoring process.
B
39
Q39: Which of the following statement is true about validation? (Choose one)
A. Validation is only performed at the very top right of the Vee, when it is time to demonstrate conformance of the system to the stakeholder requirements.
B. Validation is performed all throughout the Vee.
C. Validation is only performed at the right side of the Vee, when it is time to demonstrate conformance of the integrated system to the system requirements.
D. Validation is performed all throughout the Vee (in-process validation) and when it is time to demonstrate conformance of the integrated system to the system requirements.
B
40
Q40: What are the characteristic of a good requirement? (Choose three)
A. Singular.
B. Solution specific.
C. Complete.
D. Cost independent.
E. Verifiable.
A/C/E
41
Q41: Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose two)
A. Schedule overrun lessens with increasing SE effort.
B. Variance in the schedule overrun lessens with increasing SE effort.
C. Variance in the cost estimates lessens with increasing SE effort.
D. Variance in the cost overrun increases with increasing project management effort.
B/C
42
Q42: Which of the following statement is correct? (Choose one)
A. The key participants in carrying out the requirements and design feedback loops are SE with support from design, manufacturing, specialty engineering, and material and processes engineering.
B. The key participants in carrying out the requirements and design feedback loops are SE with support from design, manufacturing, specialty engineering, and material engineering.
C. The key participants in carrying out the requirements and design feedback loops can be design, manufacturing, specialty engineering, and material and processes engineering.
D. The key participants in carrying out the requirements and design feedback loops can be design, manufacturing, specialty engineering, and material engineering.
A
43
Q43: Which three of the items below are appropriate uses of models for validation purposes? (Choose three)
A. To demonstrate physical fit.
B. To support stakeholder requirements elicitation.
C. To simulate operational scenarios.
D. To satisfy test measurement requirements.
A/B/C
44
Q44: What are from the list below the most appropriate statements related to a prototype? (Choose two)
A. The original use of a prototype is the first-of-a-kind product from which all others are replicated.
B. Rapid prototypes and traditional prototypes both aim to be the first draft of production.
C. Rapid prototypes are widely used since they avoid developing costly traditional prototypes.
D. Rapid prototype is not a true prototype.
A/D
45
Q45: What are the activities to Maintain the Infrastructure? (Choose three)
A. Manage the Infrastructure availability.
B. Establish resource management information system.
C. Plan the utilization of the infrastructure in the early phases.
D. Allocate the infrastructure resources to all the projects.
E. Identify potential future conflict in infrastructure management.
A/D/E
46
Q46: Which of the following are key outputs generated from FBSE? (Choose two)
A. IPO (Input Process Output).
B. FDD (Functional Derived Description).
C. FFBD (Functional Flow Block Diagram).
D. FFA (Functional Flow Activity).
E. FAA (Functional Activity Acknowledgement).
A/C
47
Q47: What are requirement technical risks? (Choose three)
A. Can't achieve requirements.
B. Wrong or missed milestones.
C. Can't verify requirements.
D. Wrong or missed stakeholders.
A/C/D
48
Q48: What influence System of Systems? (Choose three)
A. Autonomy, interdependencies, and emergence.
B. Safety and security.
C. Constituent systems' perspectives.
D. Quality of system elements.
E. Capabilities and requirements.
A/C/E
49
Q49: What must the System Engineer do to successfully manage the requirements management process?
A. The team must trust the users.
B. The team must establish a basis to communicate.
C. The team must have access to the project sponsor.
D. Members of the team must use requirements management tools.
B
50
Q50: Which three are products produced by the system requirements definition process? (Choose three)
A. Design-to-specifications.
B. Verification criteria.
C. System (concept dependent) ConOps.
D. System requirement documents.
E. System function definition.
B/D/E
51
Q51: Which of the following terms characterize an Opportunity "treatment"? (Choose three)
A. Exploit.
B. Transfer.
C. Accept.
D. Share.
E. Enhance.
F. Control.
A/D/E
52
Q52: Which two are architectures? (Choose two)
A. Manual-count ballot counting system.
B. Sea-based acoustic detection system.
C. Seven laptops connected via the internet to headquarters.
D. Shoe-shine person, airport location, shoe-shine chair assembly, and shoe-shine supplies.
C/D
53
Q53: When is the RVTM (Requirements Verification and Traceability Matrix) initiated? (Choose one)
A. At the beginning, during the stakeholder needs and requirements definition process.
B. Once the stakeholder requirements are known, i.e., during the system requirement definition process.
C. Only once the system is ready for verification, i.e., during the Verification process.
D. Only once the system is ready for validation, i.e., during the Validation process.
A
54
Q54: A company develops and deploys to its customer the latest upgrades of its operating system. What is this tactic? (Choose one)
A. Incremental development, single delivery.
B. Evolutionary development, single delivery.
C. Incremental development, multiple deliveries.
D. Evolutionary development, multiple deliveries.
D
55
Q55: Which three of the following are user requirements elicitation techniques? (Choose three)
A. Interviews.
B. Integrated project teams.
C. The Delphi method.
D. Focus groups.
A/C/D
56
Q56: Which of the following statements is true? (Choose one)
A. The architecture definition process requires the participation of the System Engineer or architects supported by relevant designers or specialists.
B. The architecture definition process requires the participation of relevant designers or specialists supported by the System Engineer or architects.
C. The architecture definition process requires the participation of relevant designers or specialists depending on make or buy trade analysis performed by the System Engineer.
D. The architecture definition process is performed by the system engineer with low support from relevant designers or specialists.
A
57
Q57: What are outputs of the maintenance process? (Choose two)
A. The maintenance enabling system requirements.
B. The maintenance enabling systems.
C. The maintenance strategy.
D. The maintenance system.
A/C
58
Q58: Which of the following tools can be used in the architecture definition process? (Choose one)
A. FFBD and integrated definition for functional modeling (IDEF).
B. N2 chart.
C. FBSE (Functions-Based Systems Engineering).
B
59
Q59: Which of the following is a systems engineering function? (Choose one)
A. Manage software changes.
B. Manage system functionality.
C. Assign engineering personnel.
D. Establish mission scenarios.
B
60
Q60: Which of the following verification techniques are correct? (Choose three)
A. Inspection.
B. Analysis.
C. Destruction.
D. Demonstration.
E. Acceptance.
A/B/D
61
Q61: What are the primary objectives of a decision gate? (Choose three)
A. Ensure that the elaboration of the business case and technical baselines are on time and schedule and will lead to satisfactory V&V.
B. Continue to foster buyer and seller teamwork.
C. Synchronize project activities.
D. Build a trustful project baseline.
A/B/C
62
Q62: Which statements about the Systems Engineering Plan (SEP) are true? (Choose two)
A. The SEP documents the interfaces of the system.
B. The SEP documents the approach to technology development.
C. The SEP documents the technical performance measures for the project.
D. The SEP documents systems engineering budget and the expenditures.
B/C
63
Q63: Which of the following options refer to validation types? (Choose three)
A. Acceptance.
B. Certification.
C. Inspection.
D. Demonstration.
E. Qualification.
A/B/E
64
Q64: Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The verification system configuration is planned and defined while components are being developed.
B. The verification process is defined by the Systems Engineering Plan (SEP).
C. The verification process is controlled by the Systems Engineer and is exempt from Configuration Management.
D. Verification failure analysis should assume that all failures are the results of solution design or execution flaws.
B
65
Q65: Which of the following statements about verification are correct? (Choose two)
A. Design verification confirms that the system, as it will be built, satisfies stakeholders' needs.
B. Elements at the bottom of the system hierarchy are integrated and verified first.
C. Stakeholder needs must be verified against the subsystem designs.
D. Specifications must be verified against higher level requirements.
B/D
66
Q66: Which three of the following activities are part of the project planning process? (Choose three)
A. Activate the project.
B. Terminate the project.
C. Plan project and technical management.
D. Define and estimate project budget.
A/C/D
67
Q67: Which of the following are sub-activities in the decision management process? (Choose three)
A. Frame, tailor, and structure decision.
B. Define 2 alternatives.
C. Communicate trade-offs.
D. Communicate new directions from the decision.
E. Evaluate cost of each alternative.
A/C/D
68
Q68: Which of the following statements best reflect complete and correct fundamental concepts in relation to the Vee process? (Choose two)
A. Initial IV&V planning is done on the left side of the Vee at every level of the architectural decomposition.
B. IV&V re-planning is done on the left side of the Vee.
C. IV&V performance occurs throughout the Vee.
D. IV&V anomalies only occur on the right side.
A/C
69
Q69: Which content elements should you include in the SEP for a large, high-risk project? (Choose two)
A. Risk management plan.
B. Acquisition management plan.
C. Earned value management plan.
D. Technical performance measurements plan.
A/D
70
Q70: Which one of the following statements describe best the SCN (Specification Change Notice)?
A. The SCN is used to propose class I changes to the customer.
B. The SCN is used to propose class II changes to the customer.
C. The SCN is used to request and document temporary deviations from configuration identification requirements.
D. The SCN is used to propose, transmit and record changes to baselined specifications.
D
71
Q71: The System Engineering Master Schedule (SEMS) is an essential part of (Choose one):
A. The SEP.
B. The project directives.
C. The project controls.
D. The project constraints.
A
72
Q72: For which of the following system granularity levels, the PIT is the most appropriate to lead and audit? (Choose two)
A. Element.
B. Sub-system.
C. External.
D. System.
E. Part.
A/B
73
Q73: To which of the following technical processes are models mostly applicable? (Choose two)
A. The transition process.
B. The system analysis process.
C. The architecture & design definition process.
B/C
74
Q74: The WBS and the SEMP are the output of which process? (Choose one)
A. The project assessment and control process.
B. The information management process.
C. The project planning process.
D. The configuration management process.
E. The project definition process.
C
75
Q75: Which of the following statements are correct and should affect your risk philosophy? (Choose three)
A. Risk always is present in the life-cycle of systems.
B. With adequate resources, it is possible to verify everything completely.
C. There are never enough resources to be absolutely sure that the solution won't fail.
D. You should test (verify) everything.
E. You should balance verification resources with the risk involved.
A/C/E
76
Q76: Which of the following statements is more appropriate to the configuration identification approach, as part of the configuration management process? (Choose one)
A. The configuration identification identifies all changes to baselined documents.
B. The configuration identification identifies the elements within a baseline configuration. The system is decomposed into CIs.
C. The configuration identification manages the collection of the items to be baselined and maintains the integrity of the identified CIs.
B
77
Q77: Which of the following roles of the systems engineer are considered primary in executing a project? (Choose two)
A. Developing build-to artifacts.
B. Developing test plans and procedures.
C. Flowing down the system-level perspective.
D. Managing requirements through the solution development process.
C/D
78
Q78: Which are three justifications for Configuration Management? (Choose three)
A. Facilitates communication.
B. Encourages changes.
C. Prevent changes.
D. Forces comprehensive change evaluation.
E. Maintains control over requirements.
A/D/B
79
Q79: Which of the following options are in the scope of the SEIT (System Engineering & Integration Team)? (Choose two)
A. Integration & Audits of Teams.
B. Integrated H/W and S/W.
C. Product issues & integrity.
D. System issues & integrity.
A/D
80
Q80: Which of the following are appropriate to treat a risk? (Choose three)
A. Exploit.
B. Transfer.
C. Accept.
D. Share.
E. Enhance.
F. Control.
B/C/F
81
Q81: Which of the following are outputs of the project planning process? (Choose three)
A. SEMP.
B. Acquisition need.
C. The project directives.
D. The project controls.
E. The project constraints.
A/B/C/E
82
Q82: What is a best practice for concurrent engineering? (Choose one)
A. Ensure monthly meetings of technical staff.
B. Ensure continuous integration of the entire product team.
C. Ensure that the team fully understands all the user requirements.
D. Ensure the availability of state-of-the-art systems engineering tools.
B
83
Q83: Which of the following items must be included in the Systems Engineering Plan (SEP)? (Choose three)
A. The systems engineering plan and schedules.
B. The risk management approach.
C. The approved requirements list.
D. The systems engineering process to be used.
E. The solution design documentation.
A/B/D
84
Q84: Which of the following statements are true about technical performance measures (TPMs)? (Choose three)
A. TPMs identify key technical targets throughout the process.
B. TPMs represent technical earned value.
C. TPMs are used to develop performance evaluations of technical employees.
D. TPMs force focus on difficult-to-achieve technical requirements.
E. TPMs are an inexpensive way to manage technical risk on the project.
A/C/D/E
85
Q85: Which of the following best describe the goals of an IPDT (Integrated Product Development Team)? (Choose two)
A. Ensure that the system engineers are continuously involved throughout the product development.
B. Distribute the workload so that system engineers can do the up-front work and then pass the requirements along to development engineers who can pass their designs on to manufacturing, etc.
C. Ensure that the system engineer can achieve the allocated TPMs.
D. Break down communications and knowledge stovepipes within organizations.
A/D
86
Q86: Which of the following best describe TPMs? (Choose two)
A. TPMs are tools used to control the technical aspects of a project.
B. TPMs facilitate the identifications of MoPs and MoEs.
C. TPMs used in the project should be mentioned in the project's SEP.
D. TPMs provide visibility on project management risks.
A/C
87
Q87: Which three of the following items must be included in the Systems Engineering Plan? (Choose three)
A. The scope of the project.
B. The risk management plan.
C. The approved requirements list.
D. The technical review schedule.
E. The systems operations manual.
A/B/D
88
Q88: Which of the following are responsibility of the SEIT (System Engineering & Integration Team)? (Choose two)
A. External & Program Issues.
B. System Issues & Integrity.
C. Deliverable Item Issues & Integrity.
D. Product Issues & Integrity.
A/B
89
Q89: Which of the following are part of the Organizational Project-Enabling Processes? (Choose four)
A. Quality Management Process.
B. Information Management Process.
C. Human Resources Management Process.
D. Infrastructure Management Process.
E. Life-Cycle Model Management Process.
A/C/D/E
90
Q90: Which three of the following are standards used in the Quality Management Process? (Choose 3)
A. TQM
B. ISO 27000 series
C. Six-Sigma
D. ISO 9000 series
E. EBIOS RM
A/B/D
91
Q91: Which of the following options are inputs for the acquisition process? (Choose three)
A. Organization strategic plan.
B. Acquisition need.
C. Validated system.
D. Enabling system requirements.
A/B/D
92
Q92: Which are common methods/techniques for conducting LCC (Life Cycle Cost) analysis? (Choose four)
A. Expert judgment.
B. Parkinson technique.
C. Price to win.
D. Value method.
E. DTC.
A/B/C/E
93
Q93: According to ISO/IEC 15288:2015, what are the two processes of the Agreement Processes? (Choose two)
A. Quality Management Process.
B. Requirement Analysis Process.
C. Acquisition Process.
D. Supply Process.
E. Contract Process.
C/D
94
Q94: What are the steps to establish the Life Cycle Model Management Process? (Choose three)
A. Identify sources of information.
B. Define, Integrate and communicate life-cycle model roles.
C. Identify opportunities to improve the life cycle models.
D. Conduct periodic review.
E. Disseminate policies, procedures and directives.
A/B/E
95
Q95: What does CMMI mean? (Choose one)
A. Capability Maturity Model Interface.
B. Command Maintenance Management Inspection.
C. Council of Mining and Metallurgical Institutions.
D. Capability Maturity Model Integration.
E. Center for Molecular Medicine and Immunology.
D
96
Q96: Which of the following options are means to improve the application of SE standards? (Choose four)
A. Reviews.
B. Audits.
C. Regulations.
D. Lessons Learned.
E. Analysis of change.
A/B/D/E
97
Q97: What are the HSI Domains? (Choose three)
A. Manpower.
B. Disposability.
C. Safety.
D. Human Resource Management.
E. Human Factors Engineering.
A/C/E
98
Q98: What are the purposes of the Project Portfolio Management Process? (Choose two)
A. Initiate projects in order to meet the strategic objectives of the organization.
B. Provide services that support the organization.
C. Create products and services that generate income for the organization.
A/C
99
Q99: What is a FAST diagram? (Choose two)
A. It represents the dependencies and relationships between the functions.
B. It is the first level of an eFFBD.
C. It means Function Analysis System Technique.
D. It represents the system architecture.
A/C
100
Q100: What are outputs of the Human Resource Management Process? (Choose two)
A. Project Portfolio.
B. Qualified personnel.
C. Human resource management plan.
D. Organization Strategic Plan.
B/C
101
Q101: Which of the following are outputs of the Decision Management Process? (Choose two)
A. Decision and risk strategy.
B. Decision record.
C. Decision report.
D. Opportunity management strategy.
E. Opportunity trace.
B/C
102
Q102: Which of the following are true? (Choose two)
A. Class I changes are major or significant changes that affect cost, schedule or technical performance.
B. Class I changes are minor changes (often affect documentation errors or internal design details).
C. Class II changes require customer approval (normally).
D. ECP are used to propose Class I changes to the customer.
A/D
103
Q103: What are purposes of Information Management? (Choose three)
A. Maintain a system data dictionary.
B. Define information storage requirements.
C. Define formats to capture information.
D. Archive information.
E. Retire unverifiable information.
A/B/C
104
Q104: Which of the following options are outputs of the Measurement Process? (Choose three)
A. Measurement Strategy.
B. Measurement Repository.
C. Measurement Report.
D. Measurement Plan.
A/B/C
105
Q105: Which of the following options are people that can interact with the system? (Choose four)
A. Designer.
B. System owners.
C. Maintainers.
D. Operators.
E. Trainers.
B/C/D/E
106
Q106: Which of the following purposes characterize the HFE? (Choose three)
A. To conduct trade-off studies to reduce development costs.
B. To conduct task analyses to optimize human activities creating workflow.
C. To provide primary, secondary, backup, and emergency tasks and functions.
D. To conduct analyses to minimize safety risks that lead to task errors.
E. To display function in a user-friendly diagram.
B/C/D
107
Q107: Which one of the following three is correct? (Choose one)
A. Effort to apply formal use of SE must be greater than the effort to manage cost and schedule.
B. Effort to manage cost and schedule must be greater than the effort to apply formal use of SE.
C. There is an equilibrium point between formal use of SE and cost and schedule management, depending on the organization or on the system of interest.
C
108
Q108: When the director of operations comes to you asking for your professional SE advice regarding the application of OOSEM, you tell him/her that OOSEM stands for?
A. Object-Oriented Systems Engineering Method.
B. Object-Oriented Systems Environment Method.
C. Oblong-Object Systems Engineering Method.
D. One-Object Systems Engineering Method.
A
109
Q109: One goal of the architecture design is to maximize the economic value of the system-elements residue and minimize the generation of waste materials destined for disposal?
A. True.
B. False.
A
110
Q110: Which two of the following are performed by the Tailoring Process?
A. Employee tailoring.
B. Risk tailoring.
C. Organizational tailoring.
D. Project tailoring.
C/D
111
Q111: Which of the following activities are included in the Configuration Management Process? (Choose three)
A. Perform configuration change management.
B. Perform configuration evaluation.
C. Perform configuration status accounting.
D. Perform version change management.
E. Plan version management.
A/B/C
112
Q112: What are DoD best practice analysis techniques for system safety? (Choose three)
A. Event tree analysis (ETA).
B. Functional hazard analysis (FHA).
C. Functional Health Analysis (FHA).
D. ITA.
E. Probabilistic risk assessment.
A/B/E
113
Q113: Which of the following are among the ten reusable, reconfigurable, scalable design principles of agile systems engineering? (Choose three)
A. Reconfigurable: Deferred commitment.
B. Reconfigurable: Peer-peer interaction.
C. Reusable: Facilitated reuse.
D. Reusable: Functional interfacing.
E. Scalable: Redundancy and vitality.
A/B/C
114
Q114: Which three of the following pitfalls are common to the IPDT environment? (Choose three)
A. Inadequate project infrastructure.
B. Insufficient authority - IPDT members must frequently check with management for approval.
C. IPDT members are hyper-sensitive to management issues and under commit or underspend.
D. Spending too little time defining the vision and objectives.
E. Transition to the next stage team of specialists occurs too early or too late in the schedule.
A/B/E
115
Q115: What are some important attributes of resilience engineering? (Choose three)
A. Adaptability.
B. Capacitance.
C. Cohesion.
D. Disruption.
E. Tolerance.
A/C/E
116
Q116: Which of the following are factors that influence tailoring at the project level? (Choose two)
A. Existence of predetermined systems.
B. Risk tolerance.
C. Software programmers.
D. Stakeholders and customers.
E. Tailoring template.
B/D
117
Q117: Which two of the following are activities included in the Measurement Process? (Choose two)
A. Perform measurement.
B. Perform measurement strategy.
C. Perform measuring.
D. Perform metric recording.
E. Prepare for measurement.
A/E
118
Q118: What are the definitions of ConOps and OpsCon? (Choose two)
A. ConOps describe the organization assumptions to an overall operation of the business with using the system to be developed, existing systems, and possible future systems.
B. OpsCon describe the organization assumptions to an overall operation of the business with using the system to be developed, existing systems, and possible future systems.
C. ConOps describe system characteristics from a user's viewpoint.
D. OpsCon describe system characteristics from a user's viewpoint.
A/D
119
Q119: What does SeBOK stand for?
A. Safety Engineering Book of Knowledge.
B. Software Engineering Body of knowledge.
C. Systems Engineering Basis of Kinetics.
D. Systems Engineering Body of Knowledge.
D
120
Q120: How is functionality typically expressed? (Choose one)
A. In terms of the interactions of the system with its operating architecture, especially the users.
B. In terms of the interactions of the system with its operating environment, especially the users.
C. In terms of the interactions of the system with its retirement, especially the users.
D. In terms of the interactions of the system with its sustainment operations, especially the users.
B
