Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Mental Health II > Final Revision > Flashcards

Final Revision Flashcards

1
Q

PTSD: What is the comorbidity rate mentioned?

A

80% comorbidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the socio-interpersonal model of PTSD (Maercker & Horn, 2013) emphasize?

A

It emphasizes how social relationships and cultural contexts influence trauma recovery, beyond just individual psychological responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What three aspects does the socio-interpersonal model of PTSD highlight?

A
  1. Social factors (trauma-related emotions like guilt, shame, anger); 2. Close relationships (support systems as protection); 3. Cultural influences (societal impact on PTSD expression).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What phases are described in ‘traumatized societies’ regarding collective reactions to trauma?

A

They include a ‘honeymoon’ phase and a ‘pressure cooker’ phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is FORNET?

A

FORNET is an adaptation of Narrative Exposure Therapy for offenders, helping them process trauma through timeline creation to reduce trauma symptoms and recidivism by improving emotional regulation and self-understanding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

According to Lancaster, how many sessions are typically required for PE and CPT in PTSD treatment?

A

Prolonged Exposure (PE) requires 8-15 sessions, while Cognitive Processing Therapy (CPT) requires 12 sessions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Stress Inoculation Training (SIT) for PTSD?

A

SIT teaches anxiety-management techniques (e.g., breathing exercises, cognitive restructuring). Though it’s more effective than supportive counseling, Prolonged Exposure (PE) therapy achieves better outcomes than SIT alone or SIT with exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What medications (SRSS) are mentioned for PTSD?

A

Sertraline and paroxetine are listed as SRSS medications. Trazodone and prazosin are also mentioned, with prazosin specifically for nightmares.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the DSM-5 specifiers for PTSD?

A
  1. With dissociative symptoms (depersonalization or derealization). 2. With delayed expression (full criteria not met until 6+ months after the event).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In OCD, what is the comorbidity rate?

A

0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the heritability range for OCD?

A

40-50% heritability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What do Stein et al. (2019) highlight about OCD’s biological/brain processes?

A

They emphasize the role of Cortico-Striato-Thalamo-Cortical circuits, particularly the orbitofrontal cortex and basal ganglia, along with serotonin and dopamine systems, in OCD development and symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the five symptom dimensions of OCD mentioned?

A
  1. Contamination OCD; 2. Harm OCD; 3. Unacceptability OCD; 4. Symmetry OCD; 5. Hoarding OCD.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What genetic findings are noted regarding Copy Number Variations in OCD?

A

Large deletions in region 16p13.11 are more common in OCD patients, and about 1.4% of OCD cases involve new genetic mutations (de novo) not inherited from parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does Arco (2015) say about Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT) for OCD?

A

It is an effective first-line treatment but has high dropout rates due to exposure tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Arco (2015) note about Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SRIs) for OCD?

A

They are an effective medication option, though additional therapies may be required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does Arco (2015) mention about Behavioral Activation (BA) in OCD treatment?

A

BA is a promising alternative that addresses both OCD and depression but needs more research.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What do Hezel and McNally (2016) examine regarding OCD?

A

They examine cognitive processes influencing OCD, particularly how dysfunctional beliefs and cognitive biases (like inflated responsibility and overestimation of threat) perpetuate symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the Salkovskis–Rachman cognitive model of OCD propose?

A

OCD arises from catastrophic misinterpretations of intrusive thoughts, which are perceived as threatening and meaningful, leading to compulsive behaviors aimed at preventing perceived harm. It also involves inflated responsibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What four pathways did Salkovskis propose for inflated responsibility in OCD?

A
  1. Strict upbringing (rigid moral/behavioral rules); 2. Parental overprotection (limiting opportunities for accountability); 3. Learned responsibility for harm prevention; 4. Personal experiences of harm or belief of having caused harm.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What three main domains of pathological beliefs in OCD did the Cognitions Working Group (OCCWG) identify?

A
  1. Overestimation of threat and inflated responsibility; 2. Importance of and need to control thoughts; 3. Perfectionism and intolerance of uncertainty.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the key elements of the Metacognitive model of OCD?

A

Thought-event fusion (thinking about an event makes it more likely), thought-action fusion (thinking about an action means increased likelihood of doing it), and thought-object fusion (thoughts can contaminate objects).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the DSM-5 specifiers for OCD?

A
  1. Insight: Good/fair, Poor, or Absent/delusional; 2. Tic-related: Specify if there is a current or past tic disorder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the genetic contribution to Schizophrenia mentioned?

A

60-80% of schizophrenia can be explained by genetics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How does the DSM-5 describe Schizophrenia?
It focuses on psychotic symptoms and diagnostic criteria rather than exploring underlying biological mechanisms or genetic-environmental interactions.
26
What do Crawford and Go's findings indicate about Schizophrenia's dopamine dysregulation?
Excess dopamine in the mesolimbic pathway causes positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions), while reduced dopamine in the mesocortical pathway causes negative symptoms (avolition, anhedonia).
27
What is Cognitive Remediation Therapy in Schizophrenia?
It is a treatment designed to improve cognitive deficits and enhance quality of life for patients with negative symptoms (Crawford & Go, 2022).
28
What points does Tandon et al. (2024) make about Schizophrenia?
1. Genetic: Highly heritable (60-80%) with multiple shared variants across disorders; 2. Neurobiological: Dopamine/glutamate changes and structural abnormalities; 3. Environmental: Prenatal complications, urban upbringing, cannabis use, childhood trauma. They suggest schizophrenia is more complex than just a dopamine disorder.
29
What are the DSM-5 specifiers for Schizophrenia?
1. Course: First or multiple episodes (acute, partial/full remission, continuous, unspecified). 2. With catatonia (if catatonic symptoms are present).
30
What are the three main criteria for Personality Disorders according to the DSM-5?
A. Persistent pattern of behavior/experience differing from cultural norms, affecting at least two areas (cognition, emotions, relationships, impulse control). B. Pervasive and inflexible. C. Causes significant problems in daily life, work, and relationships.
31
What three coping responses did Young's model describe for schema activation?
1. Overcompensation (fight): Acting opposite to the schema. 2. Avoidance (flight): Avoiding schema triggers. 3. Surrender (freeze): Accepting the schema as truth.
32
What are some schema modes linked to specific personality disorders?
- BPD: 'Detached protector,' 'abandoned child,' 'punitive parent.' - AVPD: 'Avoidant protector.' - PPD: 'Suspicious over-controller.'
33
What is Schema Therapy as described by Jeffrey Young?
A therapy extending CBT to target deep-rooted childhood schemas contributing to personality disorders, particularly effective for BPD and AVPD.
34
What does the bioecological theory (Bronfenbrenner & Ceci) propose?
It suggests that environmental factors like parenting determine whether biological vulnerabilities lead to psychiatric disorders.
35
What do Arntz and Lobbestael emphasize in cognitive models of personality disorders?
They highlight the role of distorted thought patterns and maladaptive schemas in the development and maintenance of personality disorders.
36
What has been observed about referral rates for gender dysphoria in some clinics?
They have increased by 30–50% over the past decade.
37
What is noted about natal males vs. natal females regarding onset of gender dysphoria?
Natal males can have early or late onset (late often with transvestic behavior); natal females typically show early onset, lack transvestic behavior, and may be gynephilic. Late-onset natal females are less common and sometimes identify as gay men post-transition.
38
What does DSD (Disorder of Sex Development) refer to?
It is a group of congenital conditions where chromosomal, gonadal, or anatomical sex is atypical.
39
What does Claahsen Van der Griten highlight about gender incongruence?
1. Brain structure: Some brain regions resemble the identified gender more than natal sex. 2. Brain connectivity: Differences in body image networks. 3. Genetics: Twin studies support a genetic component. 4. Prenatal hormones: Androgen exposure may affect identity. 5. Early psychological theories: Mother-child interactions or absent father. 6. Multiple factor models: Interplay of child vulnerabilities, parenting, environment. 7. Parental influence: Lax limit-setting possibly contributing, though inconsistent evidence.
40
At what Tanner Stage does puberty suppression often begin for gender dysphoria?
Tanner Stage 2 (around 11 years old).
41
What are the DSM-5 specifiers for Gender Dysphoria?
1. With a disorder of sex development (DSD). 2. Posttransition (individual has undergone or is preparing for medical/surgical transition).
42
What research finding about hypersexuality is mentioned in Paraphilia?
Research indicates that childhood adversity is a strong predictor of hypersexuality only in women.
43
What does the ICD-11 do regarding paraphilic disorders?
It removes some diagnoses and introduces new categories like coercive sexual sadism disorder.
44
How are paraphilic disorders divided in the DSM-5?
They are grouped into (1) Anomalous activity preferences (courtship disorders, algolagnic disorders) and (2) Anomalous target preferences (pedophilic disorder, fetishistic disorder, transvestic disorder).
45
What is a key DSM-5 specifier for sexual masochism disorder?
With asphyxiophilia: indicates sexual arousal is associated with breath restriction.
46
What are two DSM-5 specifiers that can apply to any paraphilic disorder?
1. In a controlled environment (e.g., prison); 2. In full remission (no distress or acted-upon urges for at least five years outside a controlled setting).
47
What is Somatic Symptom Disorder (SSD)?
A disorder where one or more distressing physical symptoms lead to excessive thoughts, feelings, or behaviors related to those symptoms, causing impairment.
48
What are key neurobiological factors in SSD?
1. Heightened interoception; 2. Overactive insula, anterior cingulate, amygdala; 3. Autonomic dysregulation; 4. Genetic predispositions (family history of anxiety or chronic pain).
49
What are some major risk factors for SSD?
Negative affectivity (neuroticism), low socioeconomic status, stressful life events, history of abuse, and concurrent medical or psychiatric conditions.
50
What are the DSM-5 specifiers for Somatic Symptom Disorder?
1. With predominant pain; 2. Persistent (6+ months, severe impairment); 3. Severity level (mild, moderate, severe).
51
What are some subtypes of somatic symptom and related disorders?
1. Conversion disorder (functional neurological symptom disorder); 2. Factitious disorder; 3. Illness anxiety disorder; 4. Psychological factors affecting other medical conditions; 5. Other specified SSD; 6. Unspecified SSD.
52
What did the CISSD recommendations propose regarding somatisation disorder?
Broadening its definition, lowering diagnostic thresholds, deleting undifferentiated somatisation disorder, reclassifying pain disorders under Axis III, and allowing dual coding in Axis I if psychological factors are present.
53
How does Somatic Symptom Disorder differ from older somatoform disorders?
SSD focuses on distress and behaviors around symptoms rather than requiring them to be medically unexplained, while older somatoform disorders emphasized an absence of medical explanation.
54
What is the cycle of Somatic Symptom Disorder described in the text?
1. Emotional stress; 2. Increased focus on bodily sensations; 3. Catastrophic thoughts; 4. Distress and arousal; 5. Intensified symptoms; 6. Frequent medical visits; 7. Negative results fuel more fear; 8. Cycle repeats.
55
What historical perspective is given on hypochondriasis?
Sydenham called it the male equivalent of hysteria in the 17th century, later seen as fashionable. Falret recognized it as a mental disorder in 1822, and Gillespie in 1928 defined it as persistent mental preoccupation with an actual or perceived illness.
56
What is mentioned about IBS in relation to Somatic Symptom Disorder?
IBS has real physical symptoms but can be misclassified as SSD if the patient has excessive health anxiety.
57
What key point about Parkinson's disease and Lewy body dementia is noted for NCD?
In Parkinson's disease, motor symptoms must precede cognitive decline, whereas in Lewy body dementia, cognitive and motor features emerge concurrently or close in time.
58
What does 'delirium superimposed on dementia' entail?
It's when acute delirium appears in someone with dementia. The delirium must be treated (e.g., addressing metabolic causes, stopping offending meds), while also managing the chronic dementia.
59
What are the DSM-5 general specifiers for Major and Mild NCD?
1. With or without behavioral disturbance; 2. Severity (for Major NCD): Mild (instrumental ADL issues), Moderate (basic ADL issues), Severe (fully dependent).
60
What are the subtypes and specific specifiers mentioned for NCDs?
- Alzheimer's Disease (probable vs. possible, gradual onset/progressive decline); - Vascular NCD (probable vs. possible, stepwise progression); - Lewy Body NCD (probable vs. possible, core features like visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, fluctuating cognition); - Frontotemporal NCD (behavioral or language variant).
61
What does the text note about type 2 diabetes in relation to NCD?
It contributes to neurocognitive disorders primarily through vascular damage and chronic inflammation, impairing blood flow and increasing neurodegenerative risk.
62
What are the delirium specifiers in the DSM-5?
1. Acute or persistent; 2. Hyperactive, hypoactive, or mixed activity; 3. Due to substance intoxication, withdrawal, medication, medical condition, or multiple etiologies.
63
What does Nordgaard et al. emphasize about comorbid conditions?
They highlight the absence of a comprehensive theory explaining the prevalence, interrelation, and mechanisms of comorbid conditions.
64
What are some proposed solutions to address issues with comorbidity mentioned in the text?
1. Distinguish trait vs. state conditions; 2. Reintroduce a hierarchical diagnostic system; 3. Strengthen exclusionary rules; 4. Address overlapping constructs; 5. Integrate dimensional approaches.

Mental Health II (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions