finals - bacterial infection Flashcards
(207 cards)
1
Q
meaning it is naturally occurring wherein
it has a standardize response to all
antigens
A
innate immunity
2
Q
This type of immunity lacks memory.
A
innate or natural immunity
3
Q
One of the examples of
innate immunity is the ___ and ___ materials that we have in
our body
A
exogenous and
endogenous
4
Q
an example of endogenous innate immunity
A
hydrochloric acid
5
Q
it serves as a prevention when
it comes to the growth of the bacteria
during the digestion process
A
hydrochloric acid
6
Q
It is an enzymes that we can found in
many secretions such as tears and
saliva
A
lysozomes
7
Q
example of soluble innate components that protect us from the pathogenic bacteria and these are the ___
A
interleukins (IL), prostaglandins, and leukotrienes which causes fever
8
Q
examples of acute phase reactants
A
C-reactive protein, haptoglobin, and
ceruloplasmin
9
Q
it works by either coating the bacteria or
removing the substances that might promote bacterial growth
A
acute phase reactants (APR)
10
Q
are mainly involved in inflammation - INCREASES
A
acute phase reactants
11
Q
which polypeptide substance works and influences acute phase reactant
A
cytokines
12
Q
The phagocytic process is
enhanced by the activation of the ___
A
alternative
complement cascade
13
Q
how do complement cascade activates and helps to enhance phagocytosis?
A
triggered by the microbial cell walls or
other products of the microbial
metabolism.
14
Q
adaptive or acquired
immunity it is also known as the
“_____”
A
specific immunity
15
Q
it is not present at
birth but they have a diverse response
for each antigen.
A
adaptive or acquired immunity
16
Q
Secondary response is better
than primary response because it has a
____
A
memory b cells.
17
Q
antibody production is specifically against ____
A
exotoxins and other secreted bacterial products
18
Q
after neutralizing the exotoxins and forming of antibodies, it will activate the ____
A
complement pathway
19
Q
____ bind to a particular bacteria and
they will eliminate those immune complexes. It is also
associated with extracellular bacteria
A
Anti-exotoxin antibodies
20
Q
Eliminate immune complexes kapag nag meet ang anti exotoxin antibody and the bacterial infections through
___.
A
Neutralization
21
Q
once the classical pathway is activated, the new branch of immune response will incur ____
A
cell-mediated immunity
22
Q
Cell-mediated Immunity: mainly responsible to those intracellular bacteria such as _____
.
A
Mycobacterium tuberculosis,
Listeria monocytogenes,
Rickettsial species, and
Legionella pneumophilia
23
Q
3 MAIN MECHANISMS FOR WAS OF IN BACTERIA IN INHIBITING OR
OPPOSING IMMUNE RESPONSE
A
- Avoiding Antibody
- Blocking Phagocytosis
- Inactivating the Complement Cascade
24
Q
ways to avoid antibody by bacteria
A
genetic mutation
down-regulation of MHC
25
Some bacteria can alter their bacterial antigen as a result of genetic
mutation in effect wherein antibody is unable to bind to epitope.
genetic mutation
26
Nakakapabigay ng new bacterial antigen
genetic mutation
27
genus that can perform genetic mutation
S. agalactiae, S. pyogenes
28
MHC mechanism:
they are able to accept and reject.
29
MHC main feature:
they are able for antigen recognition (Class I and
Class II but not Class III kasi it cannot express on the cell surface)
30
___ are
all examples of bacteria that can release IgA (IgA2)
N. gonorrhoeae, H. influenzae, and Streptococcus sanguinis
31
factors that can inhibit phagocytosis
Chemotactic factor, adhesion,
digestion
32
by blocking phagocytosis, the bacteria are blocking ___
adhesion and digestion
33
in blocking phagocytosis of bacteria, it inhibits the formation of ___
phagocytosis
34
Inhibit the formation of phagolysosome.
blocking phagocytosis
35
this genus specie inhibit the release of chemotactic factors
that would bring phagocytic cells to the area.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae:
36
cell walls of S. pyogenes produce and ___that interferes with adhesion to the phagocytic cell.
M protein
37
what is the virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes
M protein
38
the _____ type of bacteria tend to block phagocytosis
encapsulated bacteria
39
what are the example of encapsulated bacteria
▪ Neisseria meningitidis
▪ Streptococcus pneumoniae
▪ Yersinia pestis
▪ Haemophilus influenzae
▪ Klebsiella pneumoniae
40
these microorganisms block phagocytosis by
blocking fusion of lysosomal
granules with phagosomes after being engulfed by the phagocyte
(phagolysosome).
Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Mycobacterium. leprae, and Salmonella spp:
41
blocking phagocytosis
Resisting digestion involves the___ products after the
bacteria are phagocytized
production of extracellular
42
Resisting digestion involves the production of extracellular products after the bacteria are phagocytized. The primary effect is the release of ___ into the cytoplasm of the phagocytic cells, subsequently killing the WBC.
lysosomal contents
43
extracellular products of S. aureus
Leukocidin
44
extracellular products of L. monocytogenes
Listeriolysin
45
extracellular products of S. pyogenes
Streptolysin
46
Leukocidinis produced by
staphylococcus aureus
47
Listeriolysin is produced by
listeria monocytogenes
48
streptolysin is produced by
streptococcus pyogenes
49
in inactivating complement cascade
____ bacteria: do not bind the complement component C3b
(important in enhancing phagocytosis)
Encapsulated
50
acts as opsonin and takes place in alternative and lectin pathway.
C3b
51
process in which helps to facilitate the eating in the
process of phagocytosis.
opsonins
52
____ are gram-positive spherical, ovoid, or lance-shaped organisms
that are catalase negative and are often seen in pairs or chains in gram stain.
Streptococci
53
the group which streptococci is associated into is the ___ group
lancefield group
54
Streptococci are divided into groups or ____ on the
basis of certain cell wall components.
serotypes/serogroups
55
what are the group A streptococci
streptococcus pyogenes
56
what are the group B i n streps
streptococcus agalactiae
57
group c streptococcus
Streptococcus equisimilis,
Streptococcus equi,
Streptococcus zooepidimicus, and Streptococcus dysagalatiae
58
group d streptococcus
Streptococcus bovis,
Enterococcus faecalis,
Enterococcus faecium
59
streptococcus
Outermost cell wall components contains two major protein known as the__n
M and T protein
60
these determine the serotype/serogroup of the streptococcus
spp.
M and T protein
61
Virulence factor of streptococcus
M and T protein
62
Interior to the protein layer is the_____ that divides streptococci into 20 defined groups, designated A through H and K through V.
group-specific carbohydrates
63
is one of the most common and ubiquitous
pathogenic bacteria and causes a variety of infection.
which group of strep is it?
group A Streptococcus pyogenes
64
is the major virulence factor of the group A strep
M protein
65
in streptococcus pyogenes,
Additional virulence factors include ____, proteins
excreted by bacterial cells as they metabolize during the course of
streptococcal infections.
exoantigens or exotoxins
66
→ responsible for the rash seen
in scarlet fever and also appear to contribute to pathogenicity.
Pyrogenic exotoxins A, B, and C
67
Production of __ also add to its virulence
exoenzymes
68
Production of exoenzymes also add to its virulence factor.
These include:
Streptolysin O, deoxyribonuclease B (DNase B), hyaluronidase,
nicotinamide adenine dinucleotidase (NADase), and streptokinase.
69
Detection of Streptococcal Antibodies
The most important antibodies are __
▪ Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)
▪ Anti-DNase B
▪ Anti-NADase
▪ Anti-hyaluronidase
70
Presence of these antibodies is an indication of Group A streptococcus
infection and is seen in many conditions/disease like:
▪ Scarlet fever
▪ Acute glomerulonephritis
▪ Acute Rheumatic Fever
▪ Necrotizing fasciitis
▪ Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
71
Sequelae of streptococcus:
Rheumatic Fever
Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
72
Anti-Streptolysin O Agglutination Test / ASO Agglutination Test
Employs the principle of ___ Agglutination
Passive or Indirect
73
what is the significant titer in ASO or anti streptolysin O agglutination test
240 todd unit or 240 IU/mL (Adults);
320 Todd units or 320 IU/mL (Child)
74
ASO was been Replaced by __
Nephelometry
75
Automated procedure that provides rapid, quantitative measurement
of ASO titers
Nephelometry
76
give what is happening in the nephelometry of streptococcus testing
Reacts with patients Anti-Streptolysin →
forms immune
complex (precipitation) →
resulting in an increased light scatter that the instrument converts to peak rate signal.
77
what is the serological reaction that occurs in nephelometry of streptococcus testing
precipitation
78
what is the antigen reagent in streptococcus nephelometry
streptolysin
79
is conducted More of sequelae in streptococcus
Anti-DNase B Testing
80
indicative of Streptococcal glomerulonephritis and rheumatic
fever
Anti-DNase
81
Anti-DNase can also be detected in __
acute rheumatoid fever
82
what is the normal titer in Anti-DNase B testing
for children between the ages of 2 and 12 years
range from 240 to 640 units
83
the range for anti dnase b testing in strep is always based on children becoz?
they are the target host of streptococcis
84
in strep what is the example of Slide Agglutination Test
Streptozyme Testing
85
what is the principle of streptozyme testing?
Passive in Agglutination
86
In strep
Can detect multi-enzyme therefore it is non-specific.
Streptozyme Testing
87
Streptozyme Testing uses _____ which is attached to the exoenzyme of streptococcus
formalin, aldehyde fix, sheep RBC
88
Detects antibody to streptolysin, streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase, and
NADase
Streptozyme Testing
89
This gram-negative, microaerophilic spiral bacterium is the major cause of
both gastric and duodenal ulcers
H. PYLORI (HELICOBACTER PYLORI)
90
H. PYLORI (HELICOBACTER PYLORI) can survive the acid in the stomach because ___
it converts urea to ammonia which will surround the bacteria and protects it from acid.
remember that ammonia is alkaline
91
Produces Urease enzyme
H. PYLORI (HELICOBACTER PYLORI)
92
If untreated, H.pylori infection will last for the patient’s life and may
lead to ___
gastric carcinoma
93
Detection of helicobacter pylori
Cultivation,
histologically examining gastric biopsy tissue,
performing a urease biopsy test,
urea breath testing,
enzyme immunoassays for bacterial antigens in the feces,
molecular tests for H. pylori DNA, and antibody tests.
94
method of choice for the Detection of antibodies in Helicobacter pylori
ELISA - enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
(more accurate and
specific).
95
what immunoglobulin is related to the chronic stage of ulcer in H pylori
IgG
96
what immunoglobulin is related to the acute ir early stage of ulcer in H pylori
IgM
97
___remains the most commonly acquired spirochete disease in the
United States.
Syphilis
98
United States.
The causative agent of syphilis is __
Treponema pallidum subspecie pallidum
99
Organism involved in syphilis are the Spirochetes (not specific to Treponema. It is also associated with __ and ___)
Leptospira and; borella
100
a sexually transmitted infection that is a Member of the family Spirochaetaceae
syphilis
101
a family member of spirochaetaceae
___, the agent of yaws
T. pallidum subspecies pertenue
102
a family member of spirochaetaceae
___, the cause of nonvenereal
endemic syphilis
T. pallidum subspecies endemicum
103
a family member of spirochaetaceae
___, the agent of pinta
T. carateum
104
mode of transmission of syphilis
▪ Direct contact
They can be easily destroyed by heat and cold.
▪ Principal MOT: Sexual contact
▪ Congenital infections can also occur during pregnancy. Since merong maternal IgG na pwedeng magcross sa placenta.
105
what is the principal mode of transmission of syphilis
sex
106
Primary Stage of Syphilis
1st stage
107
a lesion formed at the 1st or primary stage of syphilis
chancre
108
chancre are lesions that can be observed after how many days of infection?
10-90 days
109
1st stage (Primary Stage of Syphilis)
aka __
primary syphilis
110
1st stage (Primary Stage of Syphilis)
May give positive result on ___
Direct detection (microscopic, IFA)
111
__microscopy is used to observe spirochetes.
Darkfield
112
stages of syphilis
primary or 1st
secondary or 2nd
latent
tertiary or third
113
Symptoms of the secondary stage include
generalized lymphadenopathy,
or enlargement of the lymph nodes;
malaise, fever, pharyngitis,
and a rash on the skin and mucous membranes.
114
this stage still has chancre and dessimination of microorganism
secondar or 2nd stage
115
what stage of syphilis wherein
Patients are noninfectious at this time, with the exception of pregnant
women, who can pass the disease on to the fetus even if they exhibit
no symptoms.
latent stage/period
116
Vertical transmission of the disease (syphilis)
latent stage
117
a stage of syphilis wherein there's Disappearance of the clinical signs and symptoms
latent stage
118
This range appears anywhere from months to years after secondary
infection of syphilis
third stage
119
Typically, this occurs most often between 10 and 30 years following
the secondary stage.
third stage
120
Super payat na ng patients, sugat sugat na ang katawan within the
bones and subcutaneous tissues. Dito na lumalabas ang clinical
manifestations of syphilis
third stage
121
Tertiary syphilis has three major manifestions:
Gummas syphilis or gummatous syphilis
Cardiovascular disease
Neurosyphilis
122
granulomatous within the tissue. Can be found in the bones
and subcutaneous tissues. May scales na sa balat.
gummas syphilis or gummatous syphilis
123
Traditional laboratory tests for syphilis can be classified into three main types:
Direct detection of Spirochetes:
nontreponemal serological test:
Treponemal serological test:
124
what is under the Direct detection of Spirochetes:
o Darkfield microscope
o Direct immunofluorescence assay
125
Nontreponemal serological test: which detect antibody to ____
cardiolipin
126
which detect antibody to
cardiolipin, have traditionally been used to screen for syphilis
because of their high sensitivity and ease of performance.
Nontreponemal serological test:
127
Specific type of precipitation that
occurs over a narrow range of antigen concentrations.
flocculation
128
non treponemal serological test is based on what type of precipitation reactio
flocculation
129
Examples of Non-Treponemal Test:
VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory), RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin),
TRUST (Toluidine Red Unheated Serum Test),
USR (Unheated Serum Reagin Test),
RST (Reagin Screen Test).
130
Nontreponemal serological test:
prone for ___ reaction
false positive reaction
131
most used non treponemal test
VDRL and RPR
132
is an antibody substances which are primarily
produced by the spirochetes within the serum or plasma of
the individual.
Reagin
133
Treponemal Serological Test
FTA-ABS (Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test
134
Manner of reporting of non treponemal test
reactive and non-reactive.
135
Is both a qualitative and quantitative slide flocculation test for serum and spinal
fluid
VDRL - Venereal
Disease Research Laboratory
136
for vdrl
The reagent (antigen) is consists of:
___
0.03% cardiolipin,
0.9% cholesterol, and
0.21% lecithin
137
how to process vdrl
VDRL antigen via a dropper to a buffered saline solution while continuously
rotating on a flat surface
138
vdrl
it is sensitive so __ and ___of the mechanical rotator should be considered
timing and speed
139
For serum vdrl
speed
time
speed - 180 rpm
time - 4 mns
read microscopically (LPO) for flocculation
140
For csf vdrl
speed
time
For csf vdrl
speed - 180 rpm
time - 8 mns
then read microscopically (LPO) for flocculation
141
vdrl - Venereal
Disease Research Laboratory
Tests must be performed at a room temperature within the range of ___
23°C at 29°C.
142
Recommended volume of serum:___ for VDRL
0.05 mL or 50 uL
143
Diameter if positive in VDRL: ___ in diameter
14 mm
144
In vdrl - Venereal
Disease Research Laboratory
Serum must be inactivated, the serum heating is about ____ * C for ___ minutes.
56°C for 30
145
All sera with reactive or weakly reactive results must be tested using the
quantitative slide test, in which two-fold dilutions of serum ranging from ___
1-2 to 1:32 are initially used.
146
Highest dilution should be reported in VDRL (Venereal disease research laboratory)
true or false
true
147
a syringe which has a polymer tip that creates a leak-free seal for both liquids and gases
hamilton syringe
148
Qualitative Serum VDRL: uses ___ gauge needle without bevel.
18
149
Qualitative Serum VDRL: uses 18 gauge needle without bevel.
It can deliver ___ drops per mL of the antigen suspension.
1 out of 60
150
Quantitative Serum VDRL: uses ___ gauge needle without bevel
19
151
Quantitative Serum VDRL: uses 19 gauge needle without bevel.
___ drops per mL
7
152
CSF VDRL: uses ____ gauge needle
21 or 22
153
CSF VDRL: uses 21 or 22 gauge needle.
___ drops per mL would be delivered.
100
154
grading of flocculation
reactive
weakly reactive
non reactive
155
describe the flocculation for REACTIVE VDRL
medium to large clumps
156
describe the flocculation for WEAKLY REACTIVE VDRL
small clumps
157
describe the flocculation for NON REACTIVE VDRL
No clumps or slight roughness
158
Modification of VDRL which involves macroscopic agglutination.
RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin
159
The cardiolipin-containing antigen suspension is bound to charcoal particles,
which make the test easier to read.
RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin
160
describe the flocculation of RPR
RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin
Visible black floccules.
161
Do we still need to heat or activate serum in - RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin
Nope
162
RPR - Rapid Plasma Reagin
We have to take note the
inactivation of the complement by ___
adding EDTA, thimerosal, and choline
chloride.
163
amount of sample for RPR - rapid plasma reagin
0.05 ml or 50ul
164
syringe used for RPR - rapid plasma reagin
20 gauge needle without the bevel is used.
60 drops per mL
165
time and speed for RPR - rapid plasma reagin
speed - 100 rpm
time - 8 mns
166
an indirect fluorescent antibody test.
FTA-ABS
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test
167
type of serum used for treponemal serologic test
Inactivated serum is used
168
a dilution of heat inactivated patient serum in incubated with a sorbent consisting of an extract of nonpathogenic treponemes
(Reiter strain)
FTA-ABS
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test
169
a non pathogenic treponemes is used for
FTA-ABS
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test
Reiter strain
170
Reiter strain is used to ____
to prevent cross reaction with treponema pallidum subspecie pallidum
171
slides used for FTA- ABS have ____
Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption
Test
Nichols strain of T. pallidum
172
FTA - ABS
do we need to perform washing for the mixture?
yes
173
in fta - abs
___ is added to each well.
Antibody conjugate (antihuman immunoglobulin conjugated with
fluorescein)
174
in fta abs
___ is applied, and coverslips are placed on the slides
Mounting medium
175
fta abs is Read on ___ microscope.
fluorescence
176
agglutination test for FTA ABS is based on what principle
passive hemagglutination test
177
short rode, or coccobacilli, that are obligate,
intracellular, gram-negative bacteria.
Rickettsiae and Coxiella
178
Rickettsiae and Coxiella
Considered as vector borne disease
except for ____
Coxiella burnetii
179
Coxiella burnetii MOT
inhalation and ingestion of contaminated
milk)
180
Rickettsiae has two distinct groups
spotted fever group (SFG)
and
Typhus group (TG) live
181
RICKETTSIAL INFECTIONS
Vector Borne Disease - transmitted through a ___.
fleas/lice/mites/tick bite
182
members of spotted fever group
Rickettsia rickettsii
Rickettsia japonica
Rickettsia felis
Rickettsia akari
183
members of Typhus group
Rickettsia typhi
Rickettsia prowazekii
184
the typhus group's geographical distribution
worldwide
185
disease association of Rickettsia rickettsii
rocky mountain spotted fever
186
rocky mountain spootted fever is transmitted tru
tick bite
187
Rickettsia japonica's disease association
japanese spotted fever
188
MOT of japanese spotted fever
tick bite
189
Rickettsia felis disease
flea borne spotted fever
190
Rickettsia felis MOT
unknown
191
Rickettsia akari disease
Rickettsial pox
192
Rickettsia akari MOT
mite bite
193
193
Rickettsia typhi disease
endemic typhus
194
Rickettsia typhi MOT
flea
195
Rickettsia prowazekii disease
epidemic typhus
196
Rickettsia prowazekii MOT
louse feces
197
Rickettsia prowazekii another disease
recrudescent typhus
198
MOT of recrudescent typhus
years after epidemic typhus
199
R. prowazekii – Louse borne typhus. There is a reactivation from the original infection
this would be ___
Brill-Zinsser disease
200
Serological Diagnosis for ricketssia
Weil-Felix Agglutination test
201
a non-specific test. An agglutination test
based on cross-reactivity of Rickettsial antibodies
Weil-Felix Agglutination test
202
“O”
antigens of the OX-19 and OX-2 strains of Proteus ___
vulgaris
203
o “O”
antigens of the OX-K strain of Proteus ___
mirabilis
204
Proteus ang antigen suspension because of the cross-reactive
mechanism and the same ___
antigen determinants
205
More sensitive and specific test for rickettsia
IFA,
micro immunofluorescent assay (micro-IFA),
immunoperoxidase assays (IPA),
ELISA and Immunoblot assays (IBA).
206
Weil-Felix Agglutination test
1 is to ___ is the titer.
160
