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IMSE LEC > MIDTERM - HYPERSENSITVITY > Flashcards

MIDTERM - HYPERSENSITVITY Flashcards

1
Q

The immune response has been described as a defense mechanism by which the body rids itself of potentially __.

A

harmful antigens

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1
Q

The immune response has been described as a defense mechanism by which the body rids itself of potentially harmful antigens

In some cases, however, this process can end up causing DAMAGE to the host

this process is called

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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2
Q

When it comes to the mechanism of the
hypersensitivity reaction the individual must first
have become __ by previous exposure to
the antigen

A

sensitized

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3
Q

hypersensitivity it can define as a
___.

A

heightened state of immune responsiveness

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4
Q

it is an exaggerated response to a harmless
antigen that results in injury to the tissue, disease, or even
death.

A

hypersensitivity reaction

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5
Q

why is mortality possible in hypersensitivity reaction?

A

imbalance when it comes
to the homeostasis,

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6
Q

British immunologists __
devised a classification system for such reactions based on
four different categories

type I-IV
hypersensitivity.

A

P. G. H. Gell and R. R. A. Coombs

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7
Q

4 DIFFERENT CLASSIFICATIONS OF HYPERSENSITIVITY

A

TYPE I HYPERSENSITIVITY
TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY
TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY
TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVITY

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8
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein a cell-bound antibody reacts with antigen to release physiologically active substances.

A

TYPE I HYPERSENSITIVITY

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9
Q

What would be the immune mediator of type I
hypersensitivity?

A

IgE

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10
Q

How do hypersensitivity 1 works

A

IgE will bind to mast cells or basophils, once coated of mast or basophil, they will release mediators such as histamine to fight allergens

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11
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction in which free
antibody reacts with antigen associated with cell surfaces.

A

TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY

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12
Q

What would be the immune mediator of type II
hypersensitivity?

A

IgM or IgG

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13
Q

a type of hypersensitivity in which it helps to activate the complement system by allowing the free antibodies to react and fight the allergens

A

TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY

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14
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein an antibody reacts with
soluble antigen to form complexes that precipitate in the
tissues

A

TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY

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15
Q

a type of hypersensitivity reaction wherein a sensitized T cells rather than antibody are
responsible for the symptoms that develop.

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

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16
Q

the immune mediator for type 4 is the

A

t cells

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17
Q

types of hypersensitivity in which is involves in complement system

A

type 2 and 3

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18
Q

TYPE I, TYPE II AND TYPE III
HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION, always remember that it has been previously referred as the ___.

A

immediate
hypersensitivity

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19
Q

why do type 1 2 and 3 are called as immediate hypersensitivity

A

short time lag and the reactions are can be seen in few minutes/hrs

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20
Q

TYPE IV HYPERSENSITIVITY is also called as

A

delayed type of hypersensitivity.

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21
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity is also called as

A

anaphylactic hypersensitivity

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22
Q

what are the antibody mediated hyprsensitivity

A

1, 2,3

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23
Q

what are the cell mediated hyprsensitivity

A

type 4

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24
a phase of type 1 hypersensitivty in which the reactions appears within minutes after exposure to the antigen.
Early phase of allergic reaction
25
a phase of type 1 hypersensitivity in which the reactions appears several hours after exposure to antigen.
Late phase allergic reactions
26
The key reactant presents in type I, or immediate sensitivity reactions, is __
IgE
27
the "key reactant" is the same with ___
immune mediator
28
Antigens that trigger formation of IgE are called ___.
atopic antigens or allergens
29
any altered reaction to external substances.
Allergy
30
examples of allergy
pollens and dusts
31
an inherited tendency to respond naturally occurring inhaled and ingested allergens with continued production of IgE.
atopy
32
Atopy derived from the Greek word “__” meaning “out of place”
Atopos
33
In severe cases of type 1 hypersensitivty, ____ can occur.
laryngeal edema, vascular collapse and death
34
a general anaphylaxis composed of __
itching, erythema (redness of the localized area), vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea and respiratory distress.
35
a little atopic antigens or allergens can immediately activate type 1 hypersensitivity, this is called as
general anaphylaxis
36
upon injection of antigen into the skin of a sensitized animal, a local anaphylactic reaction will occur within a few minutes.
Local or Cutaneous Anaphylaxis
37
Local or Cutaneous Anaphylaxis is composed of what signs and symptoms
swelling and redness – a wheal and flare reaction
38
Local or Cutaneous Anaphylaxis is known for what reaction
wheal and flare reaction
39
It occurs when serum is transferred from an allergic individual to a non-allergic individual, and then the second individual is challenged with specific antigen
Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis
40
is the reason why scientist were able to find out that the most immediate type of hypersensitivity is the type 1 is because of __
Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis
41
Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis is Done by 2 scientists named ___ and ___
Carl Wilhelm Prausnitz and Heinz Kustner
42
in Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis , which serum or who's the one being allergic to fish and who's the one got the injection
Kustner was allergic to fish and was injected to Prausnitz,
43
Etiologic Agents of type 1 hypersensitivty
o Venom from bees, wasps, hornets o Food allergies o Drugs o Latex
44
Clinical States of type 1 hypersensitivity
o Asthma o Eczema o Anaphylactic shock o Helminthic infection
45
found throughout the body, they are most prominent in connective tissue, the skin, the upper and lower respiratory tract, and the gastrointestinal tract.
mast cells
46
These cells contain numerous cytoplasmic granules that are enclosed by a bilayered membrane.
mast cells
47
_____, in mast cells, which comprises approximately 10% of the total weight of granular constituents, is found in 10 times greater supply per cell than in basophils.
Histamine
48
In the presence of IgE, the number of receptors has been found to increase, indicating a possible mechanism of upregulation during an allergic reaction.
Basophils
49
MEDIATORS RELEASE FROM GRANULES
Preformed Mediators (Primary) Newly Synthesized Mediators (Secondary)
50
Preformed Mediators (Primary)
histamine, heparin, eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF-A), neutrophil chemotactic factor, and proteases.
51
In addition to immediate release of preformed mediators, mast cells and basophils are triggered to synthesize certain other reactants from the breakdown of phospholipids in the cell membrane. These products are responsible for a ___ seen within 6 to 8 hours after exposure to antigen.
late phase allergic reaction
52
Newly formed mediators include
platelet activating factor (PAF); prostaglandin (PG) D2; leukotrienes (LT), B4, C4, D4, and E4); and cytokines
53
The platelet activating factor that we have is the ___
thromboxane A2.
54
__ and ___ are mainly for smooth muscle contraction
Histamine and heparin
55
in inflammaton, the first thing to happen is the __
vasodilation
56
TESTING FOR IMMEDIATE HYPERSENSITIVITY
in vivo and in vitro
57
___ methods involve direct skin testing, which is the least expensive and most specific type of testing.
In vivo
58
In ___, or a prick test, a small drop of material is injected into the skin at a single point
cutaneous testing
59
in in vivo methos, __, and ___ are the two skin tests most often used.
Cutaneous and the intradermal testing
60
in cutaneous testing, After how many minutes minutes, the spot is examined, and the reaction is recorded.
15 mns
61
A positive reaction for cutaneous testing is formation of a wheal that is __- mm greater in diameter than the negative control.
3 mm
62
Most likely ang ginagamit as negative control is the ___ and then the positive control would be the ___.
saline; histamine
63
use a greater amount of antigen and are more sensitive than cutaneous testing.
Intradermal testing
64
They are usually performed only if prick tests are negative and allergy is still suspected.
Intradermal testing
65
in intradermal testing, A 1 mL tuberculin syringe is used to administer ml of test solution between layers of the skin
0.01 to 0.05 mL
66
in intradermal testing, The test allergen is diluted __- times more than the solution used for cutaneous testing.
100 to 1000 times
67
in intradermal testing, After 15 to 20 minutes, the site is inspected for __- formation.
erythema and wheal formation
68
in intradermal testing, A wheal __- mm greater than the negative control is considered a positive test.
3 mm
69
We are dealing with the totality of the IgE and specific antigen that could bind to IgE.
IN VITRO METHODS - TOTAL AND SPECIFIC IgE
70
an invitro method that – measures total IgE
Radio Immunosorbent Test (RIST)
71
Uses radiolabeled IgE to compete with patient IgE for binding sites on a solid phase coated with anti IgE.
Competitive RIST
72
an invitro method that measures antigen specific IgE.
Radioallergosorbent assay (RAST)
73
It measures the antigen specific to the IgE
Radioallergosorbent assay (RAST)
74
Principles of the test for invitro methods remain the same, but newer testing methods involve the use of __- or ___ rather than radioactivity.
enzyme or fluorescent labels
75
RIST has largely been replaced by noncompetitive solid-phase immunoassays due to the expense and difficulty of working with ___.
radioactivity
76
Antihuman IgE is bound to a solid phase such as ___, ___, ___
cellulose, paper disk, or a microtiter well
77
is a noncompetitive solid phase immunoassay in which the solid phase is coated with specific allergen and reacted with patient serum.
Allergen – specific IgE testing
78
The type II hypersensitivity is also known as the ___
cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
79
type 2 hypersensitivity They are triggered by __
antigens found on cell surfaces.
80
in type 2 hypersensitvity Antibody coats cellular surfaces and promotes phagocytosis by both __ and ___
opsonization and activation of the complement cascade
81
type 2 hypersensitivity, Antibodies can induce complement-dependent lysis or engage macrophages and polymorphonuclear cells which have Fc and complement receptors. this process is called
cytolysis
82
this reaction is the (Incompatibility of blood transfusion, HDN - problem with the Rh of the mother and the infant leading to Type II hypersensitivity
transfusion reaction
83
a type of anemia that is the type 2 hypersensitivity is invoolved
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
84
type 2 sensitivity Drug-induced - Medications involved. (___) It is seen within the skin similar to petechiae but larger.
Purpura
85
the difference of type 2 and type 3 are, , the antigen is ___.
soluble
86
When soluble antigen combines with antibody, complexes are formed that precipitate out of the serum whcih hypersensitivity is involved?
type 3 hypersensitiivty
87
Arthus Reaction Demonstrated by __ in 1903.
Maurice Arthus
88
A classic example of localized Type III Hypersensitivity, localized meaning we are dealing with a specific area.
Arthus Reaction
89
The inflammatory response is caused by antigen–antibody combination and subsequent formation of immune complexes that deposit in small dermal blood vessels.
Arthus Reaction
90
Complement is fixed, attracting neutrophils and causing aggregation of platelets
Arthus Reaction
91
Results from passive immunization with animal serum, usually horse or bovine, used to treat such infections as diphtheria, tetanus, and gangrene.
Serum Sickness
92
for serumsickness or passive immunization, Generalized symptoms appear in __ days after injection of the animal serum and include headache, fever, nausea, vomiting, joint pain, rashes, and lymphadenopathy.
7 to 21
93
serum sickness Recovery takes between __ and __ days.
7 and 30
94
High levels of antibody form immune complexes that deposit in the tissues.
serum sickness
95
Usually this is a benign and self-limiting disease.
serum sickness
96
type 4 hypers. There is an initial sensitization phase of ___weeks that takes place after the first contact with antigen.
1 to 2
97
in type 4 hypers Then, upon subsequent exposure to the antigen, symptoms typically take several hours to develop and reach a peak ___ hours after exposure to antigen
48 to 72
98
type 4 hypers, The reaction cannot be transferred from one animal to another by means of serum, but only through transfer of ___
T lymphocytes
99
different clinical states of Type IV hypersensitivity?
Contact dermatitis, Tuberculin skintest Pneumonitis.
100

IMSE LEC (15 decks)

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