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Flashcards in finals - translation Deck (66):
1

(T/F) the protein levels in the cell is determined from the rate of initiation of translation phase

true

2

____ the result when an incorrect reading frame is selected or the wrong amino acids are incorporated into growing polypeptide chain

nonfunctional protein or premature termination

3

____ the first codon translated in mRNAs

AUG codon

4

____ the aa encoded by the AUG codon

methionine

5

(T/F) in both eukaryotes and bacteria, the initiator tRNA is associated with methionine

false

applies to eukaryotes only

6

____ the modified methionine associated with initiator tRNA in bacteria

N- formylmethionine (fmet)

7

_____ A special tRNA used at initiation and contains anticodon 3’-UAC-5’ to pair with 5’-AUG-3’

initiator tRNA

8

(T/F) Initiator tRNAs differ in nucleotide sequence from normal methionine tRNAs

true

9

(T/F) all proteins are synthesized with methionine (or fmet in bacteria) at the C- terminus

false

at the N-terminus

10

which of the ff is not true about initiator tRNAs in E. coli?
a. can be tRNA(met) or tRNA(fmet)
b. both tRNAs pair with initiator AUG codon
c. only tRNA(fmet) is formylated
d. tRNA(met) is an unmodified methionine

B

fmet = initiator AUG codon
met = internal AUG codon

11

which of the ff is false?
a. the first step in translation initiation in E.coli is the formation of the 70S initiation complex
b. IF-2 binds GTP and helps to specifically select tRNA(fmet)
c. IF-3 facilitates binding mRNA to 30S subunit and prevents association of 50S subunit
d. the 30S initiation complex includes mRNA, 30S ribosomal subunit, fmet-tRNA(fmet) , GTP, and threeinitiation factors

A

formation of 30S initiation complex

12

_____ a consensus sequence that functions as a ribosome binding site located about 10 nucleotides upstream from
AUG start codon

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

13

(T/F) the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is pyrimidine rich

false

purine rich

14

_____ the Shine-Dalgarno sequence

5’-GGAGGU-3’

15

(T/F) the S-D sequence is bound by a complementary pyrimidine-rich sequence on the 16S rRNA in the 30S subunit, which functions to align ribosome with initiation AUG codon

true

16

(T/F) bacterial mRNAs have ribosome binding sites at multiple areas in the mRNA that orients the ribosomes for initiation of translation

true

17

_____ and ____ are elongation factors that are required for the addition of a new aminoacyl-tRNA to A site of the ribosome

temperature-unstable (EF-TU) and temperature-stable (EF-T) elongation factors

18

which of the ff is not true?
a. EF-TUguides incoming aminoacyl-tRNAs into P site and facilitates pairing between anticodon and codon
b. EF-TU is the most abundant protein in E. coli
c. EF-Ts functions in regeneration of EF-TU-GTP
d. EF-TU ensures translational fidelity

A

guides tRNAs into the A site

19

___ the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bond formation between amino acid

peptidyl transferase

20

______ a process that occurs when uncharged tRNA moves from P site to E site, peptidyltRNA in A site shifts to empty P site, and mRNA moves such that a new codon is accessible at A site

translocation

21

(T/F) translocation of tRNA in the ribosome requires Elongation factor, EF-G and ATP

false

requires GTP

22

(T/F) conformational change of EF-G upon GTP hydrolysis that helps to move the tRNA in A site to P site and advance mRNA by one triplet

true

23

which of the ff is false about peptidyl transferase?
a. it is a component of 50S ribosomal subunit
b. its activity is mediated by catalytic mRNA
c. peptide bond forms between aa in A site and P site
d. its enzyme activity makes ribosomes large ribozymes

B

by catalytic rRNA

24

(T/F) the structural core of ribosomes is composed of protein that functions to stabilize the structure

false

is composed of rRNA at its core!

25

(T/F) Protein synthesis is terminated when a stop signal codon reaches the A site

true

26

which of the ff is NOT a stop codon?
a. UAA
b. UAG
c. UGA
d. UGG

D

27

(T/F) stop codons are recognized and bound by tRNAs

false


28

_____ are factors that recognizes a stop codon and functions in the termination of translation

release factors

RF-1, RF-2 and RF-3 in bacteria

29

which of the ff does not apply to release factors?
a. blocks access by any other aminoacyl tRNAs
b. recognizes stop codons
c. causes peptidyl transferase to catalyze addition of a methyl cap at the end of polypeptide chain
d. its structure resembles tRNA

C

addition of WATER

30

(T/F) the addition of water to the polypeptide chain leads to its release including the tRNA, mRNA and separation of ribosomal subunits

true

31

(T/F) translation in eukaryotes are more complex but their initiation phase is similar to that of prokaryotes

false

this is the most significant difference!

32

(T/F) in eukaryotes, a special met initiator tRNA binds to the 40S subunit through its association with eIF2 and GTP

true

33

(T/F) in eukaryotes, the Shine-Dalgarno sequence orients the ribosomal binding to the initiator AUG codon

false

no S-D sequence, 5' cap orients initiation complex instead

34

_____ the structure that recognizes the complex of cap-associated proteins at 5’ end of mRNA and scans for initiator AUG

43S initiation complex

35

____ the sequence that distinguishes the initiator AUG from other AUG codons

Kozak consensus sequence (-3ACCAUGG+4)

36

(T/F) in eukaryotes, a complex of initiation factors associated with 5’ cap orients 43S initiation complex to initiator AUG

true

37

which of the ff is false?
a. polypeptide elongation in eukaryotes is very similar to that in prokaryotes
b. peptidyl transferase activity is also similar between eukaryotes and prokaryotes
c. eukaryotes and prokaryotes utilize the same three stop codons
d. Eukaryotes have three termination release factor that recognizes all three
stop codons

D

Eukaryotes have 1 only
prokaryotes have 3

38

_____ a complex in bacteria that forms when one mRNA molecule is associated with multiple ribosomes, speeding up protein synthesis

polyribosome (or polysome)

39

which of the ff is not true about eukaryotic polysomes?
a. Polyribosomes are found in the nucleus
b. are spaced about 80 nucleotides apart on a single mRNA
c. speeds up synthesis
d. ribosome subunits can be recycled for another round of synthesis

A

found in cytosol

40

which of the ff is not true?
a. polysomes can be bound to the endoplasmic reticulum to form rough ER
b. both free and ER bound polyribosomes use same pool of ribosomal subunits
c. proteins produced by free polyribosomes can be transported to other parts of the cell
d. Proteins produced in ER are destined for secretion from cell or incorporated into other organelles or plasma membrane

C

they remain in the cytosol

41

which of the ff about the use of energy by the cell is false?
a. transcription is the most energy demanding process in the cell
b. multiple high energy phosphate bonds from ATP or GTP are utilized
c. extra energy is spent when "proofreading"
d. extra energy is spent when wrong tRNA enters A site of a ribosome and triggers GTP hydrolysis

A

its translation not transcription

42

____ a special RNA in bacteria that adds an 11 amino acid tag to C-terminus of incomplete protein that targets entire hybrid protein for degradation by proteases

transfer-messenger RNA (tmRNA)

43

which of the ff about post-translational events is not true?
a. mature proteins undergo some type of post translational modification
b. mature protein production ends at translation
c. mature proteins need to associate with other protein subunits or small cofactors
d. misfolded mature proteins must be degraded

B

must be folded, modified etc

44

(T/F) Nascent proteins begin to fold while still attached to ribosome and is completed by the time it is released

true

45

_____ a class of proteins that assists the folding of many proteins while they are being synthesized

molecular chaperones

46

(T/F) molecular chaperones undergo conformational changes using hydrolysis of GTP to help
shape their target protein

false

uses ATP. the rest is true

47

_____ is a type of molecular chaperone that provides conducive environment for folding and prevents aggregation of proteins through interactions between misfolded regions that have exposed hydrophobic residues; are barrel-shaped

chaperonin

48

(T/F) about 30% of of all newly synthesized proteins are rapidly degraded due to errors during transcription, translation, posttranslational modifications, misfolding or other defects

true

49

(T/F) Proteins destined for degradation are generally targeted to lysosomes or macromolecular structures called proteasomes

true

50

(T/F) in constructing a genomic DNA library, the otal human DNA is cut into millions of fragments with restriction exonucleases

false

uses ENDOnucleases

51

____ the entire set of plasmids with all pieces of human DNA

genomic library

52

_____ are colonies of bacteria containing the same plasmid bearing one human DNA fragment

genomic clones

53

(T/F) construction of a human genomic library involves, restriction endonucleases, recombinant DNA and transformation

true

54

____ the chaotrope used to denature cell proteins by disrupting hydrogen bonds and hydrophobic interactions for isolation of RNA from cultured cells

guanidinium thiocyanate

55

____ used to remove/ extract proteins from the aqueous phase for isolation of total RNA in cultured cells

phenol/chloroform (organic phase)

56

____ used to precipitate out RNA in aqueous phase in the isolation of total RNA in cultured cells

isopropanol

57

_____ used to isolate denaturated RNA (in high salt solution)

oligo dT cellulose affinity chromatography column

58

which of the ff does not apply to isolation of polyadenylated RNA?
a. column is washed to remove unbound RNA
b. poly A+ RNA is eluted with high salt buffer
c. heating RNA removes intramolecular base
pairing
d. uses oligo dT which consists of single stranded molecules of T residues bound to a matrix

B

eluted in LOW salt concentration

59

______ a complementary DNA that is formed from an mRNA template through the action of the enzyme reverse transcriptase

cDNA

60

____ an enzyme of retroviruses that can use RNA as a template to synthesize DNA

Reverse transcriptase

61

which of the ff does not apply to the preparation of cDNA?
a. Reverse transcriptase reaction is primed with an oligo dT primer
b. RNAse H degrades RNA in RNA/DNA duplexes
c. DNA polymerase forms complementary DNA strand to produce a single-stranded cDNA
d. cDNA consist of only exon regions and 5’and 3’
untranslated regions of the mRNA

C

produces DOUBLE stranded cDNA

62

_____ a special type of plasmid that contains a promoter upstream from inserted cDNA that drives transcription of cDNA once it is introduced into a cell

an expression vector

63

____ method that uses DNA or gene chips that help indicate gene expression using cDNA probes

microarray

64

(T/F) multiple ribosome binding sites in the mRNA allows for synthesis of one type of protein in large numbers from one mRNA

false

multiple sites allow synthesis of more than one type of protein from a single mRNA

65

_____ primer used for construction of cDNA

oligo dT primer

primed w/ reverse transcriptase

66

_____ degrades in RNA/DNA duplexes

RNAse H