exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

which of the ff amino acids have sulfur in their side chains?

a. methionine
b. alanine
c. threonine
d. aspargine

A

A

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2
Q

___________ is the enzyme that forms peptide bonds between two amino acids during translation

A

peptidyl transferanse

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3
Q

which of the ff amino acid has the smallest side chains?

a. tryptophan
b. alanine
c. glycine
d. methionine

A

C

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4
Q

which of the ff amino acid has a methyl group side chain?

a. tryptophan
b. alanine
c. glycine
d. methionine

A

B

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5
Q

which of the ff amino acid has an indole ring side chain?

a. tryptophan
b. tyrosine
c. histidine
d. methionine

A

A

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6
Q

which of the ff amino acid has a phenol in its side chain?

a. tryptophan
b. tyrosine
c. histidine
d. methionine

A

B

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7
Q

which of the ff amino acid has an imine, aliphatic structure?

a. tryptophan
b. proline
c. glycine
d. methionine

A

B

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8
Q

which of the ff is not an acidic amino acid?

a. arginine
b. glutamate
c. lysine
d. aspartate

A

A and C

are both basic

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9
Q

which of the ff is not an aromatic amino acid?

a. tyrosine
b. phenylalanine
c. tryptophan
d. proline

A

D

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10
Q

which of the ff does not apply to conformational/ protein folding diseases?

a. proteins do not do not function or assemble properly
b. may exhibit defects in cellular trafficking
c. may be from an aa sequence change
d. defects in chaperones

A

none of the above! :)

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11
Q

(T/F) Proteins constitute most of a cell’s dry mass

A

true

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12
Q

which of the ff is not a basic amino acid?

a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
d. aspartate

A

D

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13
Q

which of the ff is not a polar amino acid?

a. threonine
b. tyrosine
c. aspartic acid?
d. tyrosine

A

C

  • a charged aa
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14
Q

________ is an effect in which the shape of a molecule influences its
reactions

A

steric / spatial effect

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15
Q

(T/F) the peptide bond allows for free rotation of amino acids in a protein backbone

A

false!

it is planar an does not permit free rotation

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16
Q

(T/F) in the protein backbone, rotation occurs freely around the Cα-C
(psi angle of rotation)
and N-Cα bonds

A

true

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17
Q

which of the ff amino acid has an aromatic benzene-like ring side chain?

a. tryptophan
b. phenylalanine
c. glycine
d. alanine

A

B

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18
Q

the _________ between the carbonyl carbon atom and nitrogen atom of
the peptide bond contributes to its rigidity

A

partial double-bond character

due to resonance

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19
Q

which of the ff amino acids have sulfur in their side chains?

a. glutamine
b. histidine
c. alanine
d. cysteine

A

D

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20
Q

_____ this end of the protein sequence corresponds to the 5’ end of the mRNA

A

N-terminal

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21
Q

which of the ff amino acid has a methyl group side chain?

a. tryptophan
b. alanine
c. glycine
d. methionine

A

C

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22
Q

(T/F) the α-carboxyl / t-terminal ? end is considered the beginning of the polypeptide chain

A

false

N-terminal (amino group) is the beginning

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23
Q

_______ is composed of repeating atoms along the core of the polypeptide chain

A

polypeptide backbone

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24
Q

_____ are examples of proteins that have coiled-coil apha helices

A

skin keratin, myosin

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25
which of the ff bonds does not contribute to protein folding? a. covalent b. hydrogen c. ionic d. van der waals
A
26
(T/F) the alpha-carboxyl group of one amino acid is joined to the alpha amino group of another amino acid by an amide bond
true amide bond = peptide bond
27
_____ is the bond in which an H+ atom is shared between two | electronegative atoms
hydrogen bonds
28
_____ is the complete 3dimensional structure of multisubunit protein complexes/ proteins composed of more than one polypeptide chain
quaternary
29
______ is the bond in which oppositely charged atoms interact with one another
ionic bonds
29
_______ is the bond where short distance interactions between the fluctuating electrical charges of the electron clouds around two atoms, very weak interaction
van der Waals attractions
30
______ another weak force aside from the 3 bonds that determine protein folding
Hydrophobic interactions
31
(T/F) minimal disruption of hydrogen bonding between water molecules is due to the forcing of the Hydrophobic nonpolar sidechains together (of an amino acid) in aqueous environment
true
34
____ forms stronger bonds that causes proteins to unravel / denature
chaotropic agents
35
(T/F) polar side chains of amino acids tend to gather on the outside of the protein where they can interact with water while Nonpolar aa side chains are buried on the inside to form a tightly packed hydrophobic core hidden from water
true
36
_____ are the covalent links between the sulfur atoms in the side chains of cysteines
disulfide bonds
36
____ are disulfide bonds that join two parts of the same polypeptide
IntrAchain disulfide bonds
39
(T/F) high concentrations of reducing agents in the endoplasmic reticulum convert the SS bond back to SH groups therefore disrupting the formation of disulfide bonds
false high conc in the cytosol
40
(T/F) disulfide bond formation catalyzed in the endoplasmic reticulum
true
41
____ is an example of a reducing agent that disrupts disulfide bonds in the cytosol
glutathione
42
(T/F) hydrogen bonds offer major stabilizing effect on protein structure
false disulfide bonds stabilizes
43
____ and ____ are examples of secondary protein structure
α-helix and β-pleated | sheets
44
_____ first to sequence the protein sequence of bovine insulin
Frederick Sanger
45
______ are first to describe the α-helix and β-pleated sheet structures in early 1950’s
L. Pauling and R.B. Corey
46
_______ consist of regular, repeating conformations that result from H bonding of amino and carbonyl groups in the polypeptide backbone?
α-helix and β-pleated sheet
47
(T/F) α-helix and β-pleated sheet do not involve bonding between the side chains of the aa’s
true
48
(T/F) the hydrophilic polypeptide backbone of Cell membrane proteins is ydrogen bonded to itself and shielded from the hydrophobic lipids by the nonpolar side chains
true
49
_____ is a very stable structure that results from αhelices | may wrapping around each other
coiled-coil
50
(T/F) coiled-coils Forms when two or three αhelices have most of their nonpolar side chains on one side so they can wrap around each other with these side chains facing inward
true
51
which of the ff factors does not contribute to the destabilization of alpha helices? a. Electrostatic repulsion between similarly charged R groups b. Steric hindrance due to bulky substitutions on the βcarbons of R groups c. presence of reducing agents in the cell d. presence of proline in the protein structure
C this disrupts disulfide bonds
52
(T/F) CO block binding of O 2 to myoglobin and more importantly to hemoglobin
true
53
(T/F) Rotation around the bond between the nitrogen of proline and the αcarbon is severely restricted however, Proline’s α−amino group is still able to participate in H bonding
first statement is true, second one if false!
54
(T/F) β sheet and α helix Both involve Hbonding between the carbonyl and amino groups of peptide bonds to form a regular repeating protein conformation
true
55
(T/F) aggregates from protein misfolding are not resistant to proteolysis
false aggregates are resistant to proteolysis!
56
which of the ff is not a non polar amino acid? a. phenylalanine b. aspartic acid c. tryptophan d. valine e. leucine
C ``` a - hydrophobic, aromatic b - acidic, charged c - polar, aromatic d - phobic, imine e - phobic ```
58
(T/F) in beta sheets, H bonds are parallel to the direction of the protein chains like in alpha helix
false beta sheets = H bonds are perpendicular to protein chain, alpha chains = H bonds are parallel to protein chain
59
____ a type of beta sheet where H-bonded peptide chains run in opposite directions
antiparallel pleated sheets | Nterminal and Cterminal ends of the chains are in opposite orientation
60
which two aa are typically found in "reverse turns" regions? a. glycine and leucine b. proline and leucine c. glycine and proline d. glycine and alanine
C glycine = small R group, no crowding proline = cyclic structure facilitates turn
61
(T/F) the formation of a peptide bond includes gaining an oxygen molecule
false - loss of a water molecule
61
______ protein structure level where amino acids are covalently linked to form a sequence
primary level
62
(T/F) the heme group is held in place by hydrophobic interactions between the heme and nonpolar R groups of the protein
true
63
____ a specific region of a protein that can fold | independently of the rest of the protein into a discrete stable structure and which has its own function
Domain (or module)
64
_____ creation of new gene proteinsbelieved to have originated when the DNA sequences encoding each domain accidentally became joined
domain shuffling
65
which of the ff is not true regarding a Domain? a. Larger proteins may contain several dozen domains usually connected by relatively short unstructured lengths of polypeptide chain b. Are the modular units from which many larger proteins are constructed c. Usually between 40-350 aa’s long d. Small proteins may contain a single domain
none of the above :)
68
____ and ___ are some examples of fibrous tertiary structure
collagen, α-keratin
69
_______ are example of proteins that contain domain shuffling
EFG (epidermal growth factor) chymotrypsin
70
which of the ff is not a charged aa? a. arginine b. lysine c. aspartic acid d. glutamic acid
none of the above
71
____ are Regions of polypeptide chains that lack discernable repeating pattern such as the αhelix or βsheet
Random coil
72
which of the ff is false about random coil? a. its structure is determined by the aa sequence b. it represents the most stable conformation of a particular aa sequence c. Regions of polypeptide chains that lack discernable repeating pattern d. an example of a denatured or unfolded protein
D
73
``` which of the ff factors can form hydrogen bonds with the protein that are stronger than those within the protein resulting in denaturation? a. heat b.high or low pH c. detergents d. Urea and guanidine hydrochloride ```
D
74
___ the most abundant protein in mammals, Secreted by connective tissue cells, a major component of skin and bone
collagen
75
_______ is a steric relationship of amino acids that are far apart in the linear sequence
tertiary polypeptide structure
76
(T/F) The hydroxyl groups of hydroxyproline residues form intRAchain H bonds and H bonds with water molecules that stabilize the triple helix of collagens
false residues form intERchain H bonds
77
(T/F) tertiary and secondary structures may be indistinguishable from each other
true
79
______ a type of tertiary polypeptide structure that is elongated, and plays a role in the cell that require the molecules to span long distances in the cell
fibrous tertiary structure
80
___ are deposits of protein aggregates occur in and around cells
amyloid
81
____ a water soluble tertiary structure where polypeptides foldsinto a complex compact shape like a ball (spherical) with an irregular surface
globular tertiary structure
82
which of the ff is a hydrophobic aa? a. isoleucine b. proline c. glycine d. alanine
all of the above!
83
____ and ___ are some examples of globular tertiary structures
most enzymes, hemoglobin
86
_____ is a polypeptide chain in a quaternary structure that may be identical or different, a dimer, trimer, tetramer etc
a subunit
87
______ and _____ are special proteins that assists protein folding in living cells
molecular chaperones and chaperonins (a subset)
88
which of the ff is NOT true about quaternary structures? a. Subunits are held together by noncovalent forces b. Multisubunit proteins may exhibit allosteric properties c. subunits are usually an oligomer d. Subtle structural changes in one part of the protein cause significant changes in the structure/function of another part
C may be dimer, trimer, tetramer, oligomer
89
____ are disulfide bonds that join two different polypeptide
IntErchain disulfide bonds
89
_______ protein structure level where there is a full 3- dimensional organization of a polypeptide chain
tertiary
90
(T/F) Myoglobin structure has no disulfide bonds
true
91
which of the ff does not induce denaturation of proteins? a. heat b. high or low pH c. detergents d. Urea and guanidine hydrochloride
none of the above
92
which of the ff factors causes disruption of tertiary structures causing protein denaturation? a. heat b. high or low pH c. detergents d. Urea and guanidine hydrochloride
a
93
which of the ff factors causes alter charges on aa’s and disrupt electrostatic interactions within the protein resulting in denaturation? a. heat b.high or low pH c. detergents d. Urea and guanidine hydrochloride
B
94
``` which of the ff factors can disrupt electrostatic or hydrophobic interactions resulting in denaturation? a. heat b.high or low pH c. detergents d. Urea and guanidine hydrochloride ```
C
95
(T/F) urea causes formation of weaker H bonds than what exists in the protein causing its denaturation
false urea causes stronger H bonds
96
(T/F) Denaturation is facilitated by the presence of reducing agents that Reduce disulfide bonds
true
97
which of the ff is not true about molecular chaperones? a. Prevent the temporarily exposed hydrophobic regions of newly synthesized proteins from forming aggregates b. binding of molecular chaperones to partially folded proteins require ATP c. chaperones make folding process more reliable d. chaperones lead to exposure of hydrophobic regions in proteins
D
98
``` _____is an example of a major class of molecular chaperones that responds to heat shock or other stresses ```
heatshock | proteins (hsp)
99
which of the ff is not involved in facilitation of protein folding in Cells a. Organic compounds (vitamins, a cofactor) b. metal ions (Mg2+) c. ionic environment d. guanidine hydrochloride e. Protein disulfide isomerase
D this is a denaturant!
100
____ are regions | of secondary structure (of protein) where the chains change direction or fold back
reverse turns
101
___ and ___ are examples of reducing agents that causes denaturation
β-mercaptoethanol, DTT (Dithiothreitol)
101
(T/F) protein denaturants accessibility of reducing agents to internal disulfide bonds
true
101
____ an example of an ampotheric protein denaturant
SDS - sodium diodyl sulfate
101
(T/F) The iron atom (in the heme group) is in the ferrous (+1) oxidation state
FALSE! +2 ox state
102
which of the ff is not a potential consequences of protein denaturation? a. Decreased protein solubility b. refolding of the protein c. susceptibility to hydrolysis by proteolytic enzymes d. loss of biological activity e. aggregation and precipitation
B
103
(T/F) polar amino acids or polar aa + polypeptide backbone are joined by hydrogen bonding
true
106
____ is an enzyme that catalyzes the correct formation of disulfide linkages in protein folding in cells
Protein disulfide isomerase
107
______ a type of beta sheet where H bonded peptide chains run in the same direction
parallel pleated sheets | H bonded peptide chains run in the same direction
108
which of the ff is NOT true about crystallins in the lens (eye)? a. thought to function both as structural proteins and chaperone proteins b. gene mutation for αcrystallin prevents formation of cataracts c. Alterations in α−crystallin oligomeric structure : Leads to coaggregation of αcrystallin and its substrates d. mutations in αcrystallin reduces chaperone function
B mutations can lead to cataract formation
109
________ is a disease that results from vitamin C deficiency leading to an inability to produce hydroxyproline , a modified aa required for conformational stability of collagen
scurvy
110
which of the ff is NOT true about the alpha helix? a. Consists of a double polypeptide chain that twists around on itself to form a rigid cylinder b. H bonds occur between every fourth peptide bond c. Link carbonyl group (C=O) of one peptide bond to NH of another d. Results in a regular helix with a complete turn every 3.6 amino acids e. H bonds run parallel to orientation of α−helix
A Consists of a SINGLE polypeptide chain
110
(T/F) immunoglobulin domain developed more recently in evolution than the others
True
111
(T/F) Protein aggregates often consist of polypeptides rich in βsheet that typically results from transformation of βsheet structure to αhelicalstructure in misfolded protein
false αhelical changes to βsheet
112
_____ is the accumulation of amyloid deposits (various types of fibrillar proteins) in amounts sufficient to impair normal function
amyloidosis
113
_____ is a small glycoprotein normally found on the outer surface of the plasma membrane are the causative agents of a number of neurodegenerative diseases
Prion proteins (PrP)
114
_____ give an example of a neurodegenerative diseases caused by PrP
``` - Scrapie in sheep – CreutzfeldtJakob disease (CJD) in humans – Bovine spongiform encephalopathy in cattle (mad cow disease) – Fatal familial insomnia ```
115
_____ the misfolded, aggregated form of PrP that causes diseases
PrP Sc (scrapie isoform)
116
____ the person who first determined tertiary structure of myoglobin from a sperm whale Xray crystallography
John Kendrew (late 1950’s), first to be determined
117
which of the ff is true about prions diseases? a. Normal PrP C is rich in αhelix b. PrP Sc appears to induce the transformation of PrP C that it contacts into more PrP Sc (propagation) c. Normal PrP C is rich in βsheet d. PrP Sc is protease resistant
c Abnormal PrP Sc is rich in βsheet, forms aggregates, and is protease resistant
118
______ won the 1997 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his discovery of "prions
Stanley Prusiner
119
(T/F) the α chain of collagen molecules are similar in structure from an α helix
false α chain - 3.3 aa/ turn α helix - 3.6 aa/turn
120
which of the ff is not true for prions? a. misfolding occurs with accumulation of PrP Sc b. Can be transmitted by eating the tissues of animals that contain PrP Sc c. amyloid like deposits can form from Accumulation of PrP Sc d. PrP sc is rich in βsheet
A
121
(T/F) Proline stabilizes the helical conformation of individual α chains through steric repulsion of its pyrrolidone rings on the outside of the chains (collagen)
true
122
(T/F) cataract formation resulting from mutations in αcrystallin gene maybe due to reduction in chaperone function or Alterations in αcrystallin oligomeric structure
true
123
____ and ___ are the | enzymes that hydroxylate proline and lysine , respectively
Peptidyl proline hydroxylase and peptidyl lysine hydroxylase | by adding OH groups
124
which of the ff does not apply to the composition of collagen molecules? a. a third of aa is glycine b. rich in valine c. contains hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine d. rich in proline
B
125
____ is a requirement for Formation of Hydroxyproline and Hydroxylysine
vitamin c
126
(T/F) In absence of myoglobin protein , Fe of heme group can be oxidized to Fe (III)
true - so protein + heme is impt in O2 storage
127
(T/F) Glycine allows the three helical α chains to pack tightly together (collagen)
true
128
_____ is a protein misfolding disease caused by mutation in gene that encodes fibrillin protein and is associated with disruption and weakening of connective tissues throughout the body
Marfan syndrome
129
_____ a PrP Sc disease caused by several different mutations in prion protein gene and affects the cortex
Creutzfeldt-Jakob | disease
129
______ a disease are caused in large part, by the aggregation of partially unfolded lens proteins; a common cause of blindness
cataracts
129
_____ is made up of 3 3 polypeptide chains hat wrap around one another to form a ropelike superhelix or triple helix that makes up collagen molecules
α chains
129
(T/F) Ascorbic acid is a reducing agent that maintains the enzymes in an active form , presumably by keeping their iron atoms in the reduced ferrous state
true
130
___ and ___ are two evolved two major mechanisms by vertebrates for delivering oxygen to their cells
1- development of circulatory sytem 2 - Acquisition of oxygencarrying proteins (myoglobin and hemoglobin)
131
_____ an oxygen carrying protein found in muscle that Serves as a reserve supply of oxygen and facilitates the movement of oxygen within muscle
myoglobin
132
___ and oxygen carrying protein that transport of CO 2 and hydrogen ions in blood
hemoglobin
133
(T/F) In scurvy, the α chains are hydroxylated, fail to form triple helix and are degraded immediately
false α chains are NOT hydroxylated,
134
______ the process which is the major source of ATP in aerobic organisms
oxidative phosphorylation
137
____ the person who first determined the tertiary structure of hemoglobin from horse
Max Perutz (late 1950’s)
138
_____ nonprotein components that are tightly bound to many proteins and contribute to their biological activities
Prosthetic groups
139
_____ is a protein without its prosthetic group
apoprotein
140
(T/F) Ability of myoglobin and hemoglobin to bind oxygen depends on presence of heme apoproteins
false! binding depends on presence of a heme prosthetic group
141
(T/F) Heme consists ofa porphyrin ring and an iron atom
true
142
which of the ff is false regarding the structure of a heme group? a. The porphyrin isomer is called protoporphyrin lX b. Iron atom in heme can form 4 bonds c. Addition of iron to protoporphyrin lX produces the heme group d. the pyrrole ring are linked by bridging groups by forming a tetrapyrole ring
B can form 6 bonds
143
*(T/F) Ferric iron (+3 oxidation state) cannot bind oxygen
true
144
which of the ff is false about the structure of myoglobin? a. 75% of the protein consists of eight α helical segments referred to as regions A-H b. its internal portion is made up of nonpolar aa's c. The polar histidines interact with the heme group and oxygen d. The exterior of myoglobin contains only polar aa’s
D The exterior of myoglobin contains both polar AND nonpolar aa’s
145
(T/F) the absence of heme group in myoglobin does not affect the protein conformation
false In the absence of the heme group (apoprotein) the protein is not as tightly folded
146
_____ this functions as a gate that regulates entry of O2 into the hydrophobic pocket to bind heme in myoglobin
His E7
147
____ are repeated combinations of supersecondary structure within a protein with usually short repetitive units
motifs
148
*(T/F) Presence of His E7 forces binding of CO and O 2 at an angle which prevents traces of CO produced through metabolism from occupying all of the O 2 binding sites on the hemes
true
149
(T/F) which of the ff is false about CO / O2 binding of heme? a. 1% of sites in myoglobin and hemoglobin are blocked by CO produced by body b. Bent bond weakens interactions of CO with heme and favors O 2 binding c. Levels of CO bound to heme would be toxic if not for hemeassociated proteins that sterically impose a bend in the CO bond d. all is true
D - all is true!
150
which of the ff is false re oxygen binding in myoglobin? a. O 2 binding angle is critical for myoglobin function b. His E7 sterically hinders O2 from binding perpendicularly to the plane of the heme c. O2 has greater affinity for free heme than CO d. when free heme is present CO forms a perpendicular bond with Fe of heme
C CO = 25k times greater
151
(T/F) the internal structure of myoglobin molecule is completely made up of nonpolar aa's
false it also contains 2 polar histidine residues
152
(T/F) Fe (III) binds O 2
false Fe (III) does not bind O 2
153
(T/F ) Oxidative phosphorylation is the major source of ATP in anaerobic organisms
false! this is impt w/ AEROBIC organisms
154
(T/F) myoglobin consists of four polypeptide chains
false Mb - one polypeptide chain Hb - four polypeptide chains
155
(T/F) Hb's α and β chains are similar in length, aa sequence and tertiary structure to Mb but not all aa between them are the same
true
156
which of the ff is false regarding Hb vs Mb? a. Mb and Hb are homologs and myoglobin b. Hb and Mb have the same heme group c. their α chain and β chain are derived from a common ancestor d. both consists of four polypeptide chains
D Mb - one polypeptide chain Hb - four polypeptide chains
157
_____ are genes derived from a common ancestor gene,
homologs
158
(T/F) orthologs are same proteins in different species
true
159
(T/F) paralogs are genes that are derived from a single gene that have diverged over time in the same species
paralogs
160
______ the compounds that regulate binding of O 2 by Hb
2, 3 - bisphosphoglycerate | (BPG), H + and CO
161
which of the ff is false regarding functions of Hb vs Mb? a. both exhibit positive cooperativity (enhances binding if O2) b. is an allosteric protein whereas Mb is not c. Hb - binds 4 O2 molevules d. Mb binds 1 O2 molecule
A Mb does not exhibit cooperativity
162
____ is a protein that changes from one conformation to another when it binds another molecule or is covalently modified..
Allosteric Protein
163
(T/F) Binding of O 2 to Hb enhances binding/unloading of additional O 2 to all Hb molecule (positive cooperativity)
false binding/unloading in the SAME Hb (tetramer) molecule only
164
(T/F) Affinity of Hb for O 2 depends on pH and its binding of CO2 while binding of O 2 to Mb is independent of pH and CO2
true
165
(T/F) O 2 affinity for Hb is further regulated by BPG so because of this property, Hb has higher affinity for O 2 than does Mb
false BPG regulation results in LOWER Hb affinity to O2
166
(T/F) the S shaped curve of O2 dissiociation for Hb reflects the fact that it exhibits positive cooperativity
true
167
(T/F) the hyperbolic shaped curve of O2 dissociation curve of Mb exhibits a steady increase in O 2 sat.
true
168
(T/F) at 26 torrs, Mb is saturated at 50%
false Mb is saturated 50% at 1 torr (high affinity at very low pO2)
169
(T/F) Hb is fully saturated with O 2 in the lungs (100 torrs) but releases more than half of its bound O 2 in the capillaries of active muscles and tissues where the pO 2 is20 torrs and the O 2 is really needed
true
170
(T/F) in the quaternary structures of Oxy Hb, two β chains are closer together Fe atom moves into the plane of the porphoryin ring while in deoxy Hb, Fe atom is out of the plane of the heme due to steric repulsion
true
171
``` which of the ff is not a factor that affects Hb Quaternary Structure and O2 Affinity a. pH (H + concentration) b. O2 concentration c. CO2 concentration d. Binding of 2,3Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) to Hb ```
B
172
(T/F) Mb exhibits no change in O 2 binding or conformation over a large range of pH or CO 2 concentration and does not bind BPG
true
173
(T/F) a "shift to the right" in the Hb dissociation curve occurs when pH is low indicating a decrease in O2 affinity
true
174
_______ the interplay between H + , CO 2 , and O2 for meeting the metabolic needs of tissue
Bohr effect -discovered by Christian Bohr, 1904
175
_____ the form of Hb where the salt bridges in the globin chain creates a tauter (more constrained molecule)
T (tense) form, a deoxy Hb R form = oxy Hb
176
______ noncovalent electrostatic interactions between oppositely charged aa side chains in Hb that is affected by pH and are disrupted by oxygenation
salt bridges
177
(T/F) The number of salt links that need to be broken for binding of an O 2 molecule depends on whether it is the first, second, third, or fourth to be bound
true
178
(T/F) More salt links must be broken to permit binding of last O 2 (requires more energy) than previous O 2 molecules
false the binding of FIRST O2 costs more energy
179
(T/F) at low pH (metabolically active sites) the conformation of deoxy Hb is favored, releasing O2
true
180
(T/F) in Hb, the protonation of His 146 of the β chain forms a salt bridge with Asp94 of the same chain
true
181
(T/F) in Hb, the formation of carbamate stabilizes the T form of the molecule and releases O2
true
182
which of the ff does not promote the release of O2 into metabolically active sites? a. protonation of His 146 b. formation of carbamate c. high pH d. high CO2 concentration
C low pH dapat! (acidic)
183
(T/F) The O 2 affinity of Hb within RBC’s is lower than that of Hb in free solution
true
184
______ observed the difference in O2 affinity of Hb within RBC and in free soln
Joseph Barcroft
185
________ are the researchers that discovered 2,3bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) as the substance that affects O2 affinity
Reinhold Benesch and Ruth Benesch
186
(T/F) BPG is an allosteric modulator of Hb and decreases its affinity for O2 and is present in more amounts than Hb in cells
False BPG and Hb are equimolar/ same molar conc, everything else is true
187
*(T/F) in the absence of BPG, Hb would unload little O2 in passing through tissue capillaries where the pO 2 is 26 torrs or less
true
188
*(T/F) BPG binds to oxyHb more that deoxyHB which reduces O2 affinity
false! binds only to deoxyHb
189
which of the ff is false about fetal Hb? a. has higher affinity for O2 at any given pO2 b. binds BPG less strongly c. has alpha and βchains d. forms fewer salt bridges
C HbF has two γchains as opposed to two βchains that form fewer salt bridges
190
which of the ff is NOT a basis of protein separation? a. size b. charge c. solubility d. use of antibodies/ immunological properties
none of these, all are basis for separation
191
(T/F) in protein separation Repeated centrifugation at progressively higher speeds will fractionate cell homogenates into their components
true
192
(T/F) the size of cellular components can be separated using the same amount of centrifugal force
false In general, the smaller the subcellular component, the greater is the centrifugal force required to sediment it
193
which of the ff centrifugation speeds is a mismatch? a. low - pellets mixed organelles b. medium - pellets mixed organelles c. high - microsomes d. very high - micromolecules
a and d low - pellets larger particles - nuclei, whole cells, supernatant has organelles very high - pellets macromolecules
194
which of the ff is false? a. homogenization is the first step in protein isolation b. cetrifuhation separates based on size c. gradient can separate large sediments in homogenates d. sedimentation is based on size and shape
C sedimenting thru gradient results in finer separation of components
195
____ involves layering a homogenate as a thin band according to their size and shape
Velocity Sedimentation
196
_____ a sensitive technique that separates cellular components on the basis of their buoyant density , independently of their size and shape
Equilibrium Sedimentation
197
_____ fractioning proteins thru passing a mixture of proteins through a column containing a porous solid matrix
Column Chromatography of Proteins
198
which of the ff is a mismatch? a. Charge - ion exchange chromatography b. Hydrophobicity - hydrophobic chromatography c. Size - gelfiltration or exclusion chromatography d Ability to bind other molecules - affinity chromatography
none of the above
199
_____ protein separation technique that separates by size by passing them thru pores in the beads in the column
Gel Filtration | Chromatography
200
____ protein separation technique an insoluble matrix covalently linked to a specific ligand such as an antibody or enzyme substrate that will bind a specific protein
Affinity Chromatography
201
___ protein separation technique that uses multiple chromatographic techniques are used in series to purify a protein
Protein Purification by Chromatography
202
____ protein separation technique used to determine size and subunit composition of proteins that uses a highly crosslinked gel of polyacrylamide
SDS Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis
203
______ is a negatively charged (anionic) detergent used in combination of a reducing agent used to electrophorize protein in protein separation
sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS)
204
(T/F) in an SDS gel, SDS binds to hydrophobic regions causing unfolding of proteins while Reducing agent, βmercaptoethanol, breaks disulfide bonds
true
205
(T/F) in an SDS gel, larger proteins migrate faster and thus permit approximate molecular weights to be determined in the presence of known protein standards
false Smaller proteins migrate faster
206
____ a protein separation technique that uses an antibody to identify a specific protein fractionated on an SDS gel
Immunoblotting (Western Blotting)
207
_____ is a protein separation technique used to determine whether two or more proteins are capable of forming molecular associations
CoImmunoprecipitation | Studies
208
_____ is the antibody that is tagged with a marker used in immunoblotting to bind to the primary antibody (high affinity to fc regin of IGs)
secondary ab or Protein A
209
_____ is a protein separation method that Separates proteins by their intrinsic charges, uses the idea that each protein has a characteristic isoelectric point
Isoelectric Focusing
210
______ the pH at which the protein has no net charge and therefore does not move in an electric field
isoelectric point
211
______ the protein technique Used to identify proteins by determining their precise masses and the masses of peptides derived from them
Mass Spectrometry
212
(T/F) trypsin that is used to digest in mass spec targets random proteins
False the protease trypsin is very specific
213
____ is the most common type of mass spectrometry
matrix-assisted laser | desorption ionization-time-off-light (MALDI-TOF)
214
(T/F) in MALDI-TOF protein technique, peptides that are larger reaches the detector slower than smaller ones
true
215
_____ is one of the fastest enzymes and catalyzes the formation of carbonic acid
Carbonic anhydrase
216
Which of the ff is not true about enzymes? a. they increase reactivity while maintaining control at normal temp b. w/o enzymes, reactions occur at much higher or lower temp c. w/o enzymes, reactions take place slower d. none of the above
D all are true
217
____ is the pathway where enzymes catalyze the breaking down foodstuffs into smaller molecules
catabolic pathways
218
___ the pathway that harness the energy from catabolism to synthesize components that cells need/ builds larger molecules from smaller ones
Anabolic or biosynthetic pathways
219
(T/F) Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by increasing the energy barriers that normally block chemical reactions
false it LOWERS energy barriers
220
(T/F) the Second law of thermodynamics says disorder increases over time, but is reversible (requires energy)
true
221
_____ is the quantity we use to measure disorder
entropy
222
(T/F) To maintain order cells constantly perform chemical reactions that either build up or break down organic molecules
true
223
(T/F) cells violate the 2nd law of therm by converting energy they use to heat
false conversion of energy to heat generates order
224
(T/F) generated heat in which cells release into the environment where it disorders it so that the total entropy (that of the cell and its surroundings) increases
true
225
(T/F) the First Law of Thermodynamics states that energy can be converted from one form to another but it cannot be created or destroyed
true
226
which of the ff applies the first law of therm in cells? a. the form of energy is the same and will not change; total energy stays same b. amount of energy in different forms will change; total energy stays same c. amt of different forms of energy will change; total energy changes d. both amt of different forms of energy and total energy will not change
B amount of energy in different forms will change but total amount of energy will stay the same
227
(T/F) In the thermodynamic sense, the loss of (free) energy during a reaction reflects a loss of orderliness
true
228
(T/F) Chemical reactions proceed away from the direction that leads to a loss of free energy and are energetically favorable
False always towards the loss of energy/ towards disorder = energetically favorable
229
____ is the energy that can be harnessed to do work or drive chemical reactions
free energy
230
_____ is the energy input required to reach a lower state of energy to start a chemical reaction that leaves it in a stable state/ bring the reactants to the transition state
Activation Energy (ΔG o≠)
231
___ is the difference between the energies of the reactants (initial state) and the energies of the products (final state)/
Standard (Gibbs) free energy change (ΔG)
232
_____ Represents the point where the reaction has the necessary amount of energy and the arrangement of the atoms of the reactants are properly positioned to generate the product
transition state
233
which of the ff is false about enzymes? a. lowers activation energy to reach transition state b. creates a new reaction pathway whose transition state energy is lower c. concentration of reactants in the transition state does not increase in the presence of enzyme d. with enzymes ate of the catalyzed reaction is much faster than the uncatalyzed reaction
C concentration of reactants in the transition state increases in the presence of enzyme
234
*(T/F) Enzymes increase the rate of reactions but do not alter the energy levels of the reactants or products
true :)
235
which of the ff is false about enzymes? a. higher temp increases the rate or rxn b. high temps can denature enzymes = less active c. some enzymes can function at high temps d. there is a difference in energy levels of reactants & products of both catalyzed and uncatalyzed rxns
D there are no differences between the energy levels of the reactants and products of the two reactions - only activation energy changes
236
(T/F) the binding of enzyme-substrate is through covalent interactions
false through noncovalent interactions
237
(T/F) the active site of enzymes contain amino acids that have specific interactions with substrate
true
238
____ is the model that shows enzyme undergoes a conformational change - active site becomes complementary to the shape of the substrate only after substrate binds
induced fit model
239
____ the model suggested by Emil Fischer, in which the substrate and active site of the enzyme have complementary 3D structures
lock-and-key model
240
which of the ff does not affect the rate of enzyme catalytic activity? a. enzymes b. substrates c. inhibitors d. activators
none of the above!
241
(T/F) in a reaction rate can be expressed in terms of either the rate of appearance of the product or the rate of the disappearance of either of the reactants
true
242
_____ developed the models of enzyme kinetics
Leonor Michaelis and Maud Menten | michaelis-menten
243
which of the ff is not true about the MichaelisMenten Model of Enzyme Kinetics? a. enzyme-subs is unchanged during a rxn b. initial rate depends on breakdown of ES complex to E and P c. the enzyme is regenerated at the end d. the products can revert to the initial substrate
D | none of the product reverts to the initial substrate since this describes initial stages
244
_____ the SUBSTRATE CONCENTRATION at which the reaction proceeds at one half its maximal velocity
Km = Michaelis constant (a concentration)
245
(T/F) the initial rate (Vin) of enzyme kinetics depends of the formation of E-s and products
false depends on the breakdown of ES to E and P
246
(T/F) the first order (K1) of kinetics says that at low [S], Vo is linearly proportional to [S]
true remember the hyperbolic graph
247
(T/F) the zero order of enzyme kinetics says At high [S], Vo is independent of [S]
true remember the hyperbolic graph
248
which of the ff is false about Km? a. a measure of substrate affinity b. a measure of substrate concentration c. k-1 is usually greater than k2 for most enzymes d. at Vmax, Km is not equal to substrate
D when the velocity of a reaction is half maximal, the substrateconcentration is equal to the Km
249
(T/F) low Km means E-S affinity is low
false affinity is high, low S conc
250
(T/F) high E-S affinity indicates a lower substrate concentration (Km)
true
251
(T/F) high Km means, high substrate conc, and low E-S affinity
true
252
(T/F) low E-S affinity = low Km
false low Km = high affinity = low subs conc
253
which of the ff is a match? a. Km = 10^-6 = low affinity b. Km = 10^-1 = high affinity c. Km =10^-6 = high affinity d. Km = 10^-1 = low affinity
C and D
254
______ states: V= Vmax[S] / (Km+[S]) = Vmax/2
michaelis-menten equation
255
*(T/F) the michaelis-menten equation says that when the velocity of a reaction is half maximal, the substrate concentration is equal to the Km
true
256
(T/F) if the substrate concentration is well below the Km, the enzyme may not be very active
true
257
(T/F) if the substrate concentration is close to its K M , it may be functioning at half its maximal velocity
true
258
___ is the turnover number , where the enzymes are fully saturated with substrate
Kcat in moles/substrate = (product/mole of enzyme)/second
259
______ states: 1/V = (Km/Vmax) x (1/[S]) + Vmax
Linearizing the Michaelis Menten Equation aka y=mx + b
260
_____ is an example of a protein with four domains
Src protein kinase
261
____ and ____ are amino acids typically found in reverse turns of a secondary protein structure
glycine (small, can fit) and proline (cyclic structure facilitate turns)
262
______ is an example of a chaotropic reagent for protein denaturation
urea, guanidine hydrochloride
263
_________ are examples of chaperonins
heat shock proteins, GroEL and GroES (bacterial)
264
*(T/F) at low pH, a salt bridge forms between His 146 and Asp 94 of the same beta chain in Hb resulting in the release of O2 to cells
true
265
*(T/F) at low pH, CO2 and alpha amino groups of Hb form carbamate that release O2 to active tissues
true
266
____ is a type of inhibitor that is covalently linked to the enzyme, has a slow dissociation and cannot be separated by physical methods
Irreversible inhibition
267
________ the type of inhibitor that has a rapid binding equilibrium; enzyme activity is restored when removed
Reversible inhibition
268
(T/F )Enzymes with seryl hydroxyl groups at their active sites cannot be inactivated by irreversible inhibitors
false can be inactivated!
269
____ and ____ are examples of irreversible inhibition
aspirin and nerve gas poisons
270
_____ irreversibly acetylates the hydroxyl group of serine in the active sites of cyclooxygenases
aspirin
271
___ regulate synthesis of prostaglandins involved in gastric protection and inflammation
Cyclooxygenases
272
________ an irreversible inhibitor that bind irreversibly to the active site serine residues of acetylcholinesterase
nerve gas poison ex. diisoprophylphosphofluoridate (DPF)
273
_____ and enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of acetylcholine, thus terminating the excitation of a muscle after a nerve impulse
Acetylcholinesterase
274
which of the ff is not a consequence of an irreversible enzyme inhibitor? a. lower enzyme activity b. respiratory failure c. muscle paralysis d. gastric lining damage
A
275
which of the ff is not true for a competitive inhibitor? a. binds at the active site b. resembles a substrate c. lowers the catalytic rate of an enzyme d. eliminates the catalytic activity of the enzyme
D
276
which of the ff is not true for non competitive inhibitors? a. alters the structure of active site b. binds on site other than the active site c. increases the rate of enzyme activity d. diminishes rate of catalysis by enzyme
C
277
(T/F) in a competitive inhibition, the Vmax of an enzyme remains the same while Km decreases
false Km increases
278
(T/F) in a non competitive inhibition, the Km decreases and the Vmax remains the same
false ``` Km = same Vmax = decreases ```
279
(T/F) in a noncompetitive inhibition, the Km is unchanged while Vmax decreases
True
280
__ is the measure of enzyme inhibitor affinity
Ki
281
(T/F) high Ki indicates higher inhibitor affinity
false high Ki = less affinity
282
(T/F) low Ki indicates high Ki affinity
true
283
which of the ff is true for a competitive inhibition? a. cannot cannot be overcome by increasing substrate concentration b. inhibitor does not interfere with binding of the substrate to the active site c. Vmax can be reached by increasing [S] d. Km does not change
C
284
______ examples of treatment using competitve inhibition
methanol and ethylene glycol intoxication
285
(T/F) in using competitive inhibition as a treatment, methanol is prevented from binding to alcohol dehydrogenase using ethelyne glycol
true
286
(T/F) heavy metal ions competitively inhibit enzymes with sulfhydryl groups (SH) that contribute to maintaining the tertiary structure of the protein
true
287
which of the ff is not an example of noncompetitive inhibition? a. EDTA b. methanol c. lead d. chelating agents
B
288
_____ general term for enzymes that catalyze a hydrolytic cleavage reaction
hydrolases
289
(T/F) the action of hydrolases involve the removal of water to a substrate
false they add water (hydrolyse)
290
______ are enzymes that degrade proteins by hydrolyzing bonds between amino acids
proteases
291
____ enzymes that synthesize molecules in anabolic reactions by joining two smaller molecules
synthase
292
____ are enzymes that degrade nucleic acids by hydrolyzing bonds between nucleotides
nucleases
293
____ enzymes that catalyze the rearrangement of bonds within a single molecule
isomerase
294
___ are enzymes that catalyze the polymerization reactions in RNA and DNA synthesis
polymerases
295
__ are enzymes that catalyze oxidation/reduction reactions
oxido-reductase
296
*____ catalyze | addition of phosphate groups to molecules
kinases
297
___ catalyze the hydrolytic removal of phosphate groups from molecules
phosphatases
298
___ catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP
ATPases
299
(T/F) pH can affect E-S binding by protonation of aa in the enzyme
true
300
which of the ff enzymes do not function at neutral pH? a. pepsin b. trypsin c. anhydrases d. synthases
A and B ``` pepsin = acidic trypsin = alkaline ```
301
____ are Inorganic ions or a (nonprotein) or a metalloorganic molecules that are required by some enzymes to function
cofactors / prosthetic groups
302
_____ a cofactor that typically bind with enzyme through noncovalent interactions
coenzymes
303
addition/removal of a phosphate group does not involve which aa in and enzyme? a. serine b. glutamic acid c. tyrosine d. threonine
B
304
(T/F) phosphatases add phosphate groups to the sidechain hydroxyl groups of serine, threonine and tyrosine residues
False it REMOVES
305
(T/F) metal ion cofactors accept electrons and form coordination bonds w/ substrate/enzyme that help to properly position reactive groups during catalysis
true
306
(T/F) phosphorylation alters the conformation (due to its neg chages) of enzyme at one site exhibiting an allosteric effect
true
307
(T/F) phosphorylation does not affect the rate of activity of an enzyme
false activity may either be increased or decreased by phosphorylation
308
___ are inactive precursors of enzymes that become activated upon proteolytic cleavage of specific covalent bonds within the precursor sequence
zymogens
309
___ are examples of zymogens
chymotrypsinogen and trypsinogen (digestive enzymes in stomach and pancrease)
310
(T/F) enterpeptidase cleaves trysinogen which catalyzes the conversion of chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin
true
311
which of the ff is a mismatch? a. Chymotrypsinogen to chymotrypsin b. enteropeptidase- trypsinogen c. trypsinogen to trypsin d. Chymotrypsinogen to trypsinogen
D
312
(T/F) the pancreas produce inactive zymogens that are packed in a lipid membrane to protect itself
true
313
______ a fatal disease caused by premature activation of the proteolytic and lipolytic enzymes of the pancreas that destroys it and its blood supply
acute pancreatitis
314
(T/F) Pancreatic juice also contains a potent trypsin inhibitor which binds very tightly to the active site of trypsin and blocks activity of any small amount of trypsin that may be present in the pancreas
true
315
____ an enzyme that Catalyzes the cutting of polysaccharide chains in the cell walls of bacteria and hydrolysis of adjacent sugar groups
lysozyme
316
_____ is associated with ATP regeneration in contractile or transport systems found in skeletal and heart muscles and brain
creatinine kinase
317
(T/F) elevated CK-MM levels is an indicator of mycardial damage/ infarction
false measures CK-MB
318
_______ protein structure level where polypeptide chains are folded into ordered structures maintained by repetitive hydrogen bonding
secondary
318
_____ is the unfolding of a protein
denaturation
318
(T/F) The Anfinsen experiment demonstrated that all information necessary to determine the tertiary structure of a protein is provided by external forces such as signaling factors
false! tertiary structure of a protein is provided by its aa sequence (primary structure)
318
________ a PrP Sc disease is caused by a genetic mutation that results in substitution of asparagine for aspartic acid at amino acid 178 and affects the thalamus
Fatal Familial Insomnia (FFI)
319
(T/F) both aspirin and nerve gas poisons irreversibly inhibits enzymes by acetylating the hydroxyl group of serine in their active sites
False Aspirin acetylates Dpf phosphorylates
320
_______ discovered the substance 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate
Reinhold and Ruth Benesch
321
(T/F) the affinity of O2 to Hb is higher in cells than in free solution
False lower in cells, higher in soln
322
(T/F) BPG increases O2 affinity by a factor of 26
false decreases it!