First Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

WFor necropsy, you should take samples from what first?

A

live animals first. Healthy then sick

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2
Q

For necropsy, what do you do before euthanizing?

A

collect blood

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3
Q

For necropsy what samples should you take first?

A

sterile

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4
Q

What is the major consumer concern in beef production?

A

animal welfare

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5
Q

How do we avoid residues in food animal?

A

ID all animals treated
record all treatments
no more than 10 cc per injection site
follow label directions
seperate injection sites by 4 inches
dont mix drugs in the same syringe
check all records before marketing

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6
Q

What are the 3 subphases of inflammation

A

-hemostasis, early inflammation and late inflammation

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7
Q

what are the main cells during ealry inflammation?
what about late inflammation

A

neutrophils
macrophages

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8
Q

what are the key cells during the proliferation phase

A

fibroblasts

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9
Q

what are the 3 best solutions for lavage?

A

tap water
0.9% saline
any iv fluid

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10
Q

What are the types of closure?

A

primary -> close the day you see the wound
delayed primary -> days after but before granulation tissue
secondary -> closing over granulation tissue
second intention healing ->allowing wound to heal through contracture and epithelialization

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11
Q

What types of wounds do you usually not do primary closures on

A

gun shots, burns, snake bits, and bites

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12
Q

what are the goals of the primary layer in the inflammatory phase vs the proliferative phase

A

debridement and antibacterial vs hold cytokines and cells and keep the fragile skin

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13
Q

Paroxysmal Disorders

A

Constellation of conditions
whose common clinical denominator is the association with episodic,
transient, and generally self-limiting abnormalities in behavior, movement, or
consciousness in an animal that appears normal in between episodes

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14
Q

Paroxysm

A

A fit, spasm, or seizure

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15
Q

What is the most important step in classifying a paroxysmal disorder?

A

obtaining a thorough history from someone that has witnessed the event

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16
Q

Paroxysmal disorders can result from

A

epileptogenetic or non epileptogenetic etiologies. Non-epileptogenic causes can result
from neurological or cardiovascular diseases

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17
Q

Neurologic, non-epileptogenic etiologies

A

narcolepsy/cataplexy, movement disorders, neuromuscular
weakness, behavioral stereotypies

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18
Q

Cardiovascular, non-epileptogenic etiologies include

A

syncope

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19
Q

Epileptogenic causes include \

A

idiopathic/genetic,
structural, or unknown epilepsies

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20
Q

Narcolepsy/Cataplexy

A

Rare disease affecting the neuronal circuitry in brain that regulates
sleep/wake cycle; specifically involves abnormalities of the hypocretin/orexin
neurotransmitter
i. May be inherited/genetic- caused by mutation in HCRTR2 gene
resulting in abnormality hypocretin/orexin receptors in brain
* Autosomal recessive in Dobermans, Labrador retrievers,
Dachshunds
ii. Acquired form results from hypocretin/orexin deficiency in brain,
affects older animals
b. Clinical Signs- Cataplectic attacks are primary clinical manifestation of
disease, characterized by sudden and complete atonia causing collapse
lasting several seconds to minutes
i. Cataplectic triggers include- feeding, excitement/stress, concurrent
disease
ii. Remain conscious during attack, particularly at the beginning, and
episode can usually be interrupted by interacting with or petting
animal
iii. Affected animals recover extremely rapidly after an episode, and
may experience dozens of episodes/day
iv. Disturbances in sleep/wake cycle predispose narcoleptic animals to
chronic fatigue, but they rarely appear somnolent all the time
c. Diagnosis
i. Usually based on compatible clinical signs. +/- genetic test where
applicable
ii. Cataplectic episodes can be induced using food-induced cataplexy
test or pharmacologically induced with physostigmine
iii. EEG during episode will show low-amplitude, fast-waves consistent
Treatment and Prognosis
i. Treatment of cataplectic episodes- Imipramine, clomipramine,
yohimbine
ii. Treatment of excessive sleepiness not usually needed but can be
done with stimulants- amphetamine, yohimbine, modafinil
iii. Some cases of acquired narcolepsy/cataplexy will have spontaneous
resolution of disease, esp. if stressor or concurrent disease can be
identified and resolved

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21
Q

Some behavioral disorders such as aggression and compulsive disorder are characterized by episodic stereotypies. What do many manifest as?
How are the animals in between episodes?
What makes these unique?

A

continuous, rhythmic pacing, orofacial automatisms
(licking/smacking), tail chasing
normal
-There is no alteration in consciousness or muscular tone during these episodes and there is usually an identifiable trigger

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22
Q

What is the mean age of a cat with feline hyperthesthia?

A

1 year

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23
Q

What is something different we would expect to see in a dog vs a cat with idiopathic seizures that are being treated on phenobarb or keprra?

A

wouldnt seen alk phos elevated in cats

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24
Q

What drugs should never be used in cats to treat seizures?

A

potassium bromide and diazepam

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25
What is the treatment of choice for audiogenic seizurews
keppra
26
What are the most common causes for cervical ventroflexion in cats?lym
-hypocalcemia, myathesthenia gravis and thiamine deficiency
27
What is the most common neoplasm affecting the spinal cord?
lymphoma
28
What is the best diagnostic for canine brucellosis when breeding dogs?
Cornell multiplex test
29
When breeding, when should you sample progesterone? How do you know when the LH surge is? When do you know are ovulating?
M-W-F -2 5
30
look at slide 18 of small animal therio
31
When does progesterone testing start?
day 5-7 of the cycle
32
How long does chilled semen last How long does frozen semen last and when can you use it
5-7 DAYS 12-24 hours. d 3-4 post ovulation or 5-7 post-LH
33
What is the most effective way to prevent dental disease at home?
Brushing teeth
34
How quickly can plaque and calculus form after a dental?
plaque can form 6-8 hours after and dental claculus can form 3-5 days after
35
When do serology, what do you do in most cases that are positive?
Do two tests that are 2-3 weeks apart with a 4 fold increase in antibodies. CS should match the scenario
36
What do direct fluoescent antibody tests measure vs indirect?
direct -> antigen in the tissues indirect -> antibodies in serum or antigen in tissues
37
Immunoenzyme assays can measure what?
-antibody or antigen
38
Agglutination tests can measure what?
testing for prescence of antibodies by measuring agglutination
39
What do virus neutralization assays measure?
antibodies that specifically neutralize a virus
40
When do we worry about maternal anbitodies?
when animals are 6 months of age or less
41
With total hip replacements, what should we be cautious of not doing during rehab?
only move with teh saggital plane
42
When do we start rehab with a FHO?
immediately to prevent fibrosis
43
When is peak fertility?
2-4 years in a dog
44
What does pre sperm, sperm rich and post sperm look like?
-slightly cloud, grayish white, crystal clear
45
Always evaluate semen morphology under what?
oil immersion
46
What are the 4 things that make up BRDC
Manheimia hemolytica -Mycoplasma -Pasteurella multocida -Histophilus Somni
47
How do cows get infected with Manheimmia
-The leukotoxins produced by manheimmia implode, attacking the white blood cells and causing damage to the cow lungs
48
What are the drug classses used for metaphylaxis?-
Nuflor, excede, noromycin, baytril, and macrolides
49
What is the best treatmnet for Histophilus somni in bovine?
CTC
50
When do we vaccinate category 2 vs 3 calves?
Category 2 is 24 hours and category 3 is right when they get there
51
What teeth do we commonly see tooth resorption in cats?
Mandibular third premolars and 1st molars and the maxillary 3rd and 4th premolars are common
52
Describe the difference between a fucation and a resoprtive lesion enamel edge
resorptive has a sharp enamel edge
53
Describe the resorptive staging lesions for location
Stage 1 ->focal or multifocal radiolucency is present in the tooth with a normal periodontal ligament Stage 2-> There is a narrowing or disapperance of the periodontal ligament space and a decreased radiopacity in some of the tooth Stage 3-> mix
54
What teeth with resorptive lesions need extraction?
near or through level of gum attachment
55
When can we do a crown amputation
If there is no evidence of periodontal ligament
56
What are the most common causes for mentation changes?
Neoplasia, MUE, trauma, toxins
57
What is needed to perfuse the brain?
Increased MAP or decreased CCP
58
What kind of seizure is considered a true emergency
status epilepticus
59
How do you treat status epilepticus?
start with a benzodiazpem move to propofol if needed add in a long acting seizure medication start CRI of benzo or propofol if seizures continue treat systemic signs
60
How do you treat a truamatic brain injury?
If there are seizures present administer ASD then do abcs
61
What forces does the vertebral body resist? What about the articular faucetes? Intervertebral disc?
-resists bending and axial load -all forces -lateral bending and torsion
62
Where are traumatic back injuries more common?
Craniocervical junction cervicothoracic junction T-L junction L-S junction
63
What back injuries can you use conservative management with?
Cervical fractures, caudal lumbar or lumbarsacral fractures iwth grade 1-2 deficits, no significant concurrent injuries, intact pain perception, or dictated by client constraints
64
When does embryonic resoprtion occur and what are the two reasons why?
less than 35 days of gestation -physiologic (does not affect normal litter size -> genetic abnormality of embryo or overcrowindg) -pathologic (infection vs non infeciton)
65
What are the downfalls of clin path vs anatomic patho
Clin path -> cant use to grade and not usually definitive Anatomic pathology -> usually takes longer, have to do under general anesthesia
66
Where is the best place to collect a sample to send out?
the interface
67
How does distribution in weight change with a trot?
120% FL and 75% HL
68
How does the spinal column play a role in movement?
C7 ->natural lodortic curve, very muscular, movement in all directions T13-> least amount of movement and flexibility, has very long dorsal spinal processes L7-> majority of movement in the T-L junction Sacroiliac joint ->7 degrees of rotation can be very painful when not aligned
69
What is the toxin in the japanese yew?
Taxine
70
What is the hallmark sign of wild cherry toxicity?
Venous blood is hemorrhagic red
71
What are the preferred locations SCC has in cows?
Cornea, Corneascleral junction, eyelid, nictation membrane, and conjunctiva
72
What are the signs of pinkeye?
scleral injection, corneal edema, central corneal ulcer, excessive lacrimation , neovascularization
73
Difference between a corneal ulcer with a foreign body and pink eye in cattle?
Foreign body -> goes all the way to the sclera
74
What are the CS of milk fever vs grass tetany?
-down, dull, hypothermia -staggering, down, hyperesthesia
75
What are the common things that cause spinal nerve damage in cows?
-lymphosarcoma, disc disease, abscesses
76
If you have a down cow, what are the more common things that cause them to be down if they are -the last 2 months of gestation, immediately post calving, 2-30 days post partum
-starvation, winter tetany, musculoskeletal injury -musculoskeletal injury, mineral deficiency, toxic mastitis -musculoskeletal injry, mineral deficiency, toxicit mastitic, toxic metritis
77
If you are presented with a down cow, who is BAR and eating, why is she down? What if she is not?
-musculoskeletal injry, peripheral spinal nerve damage, starvation -mineral deficiency, toxicity, severe septicemia
78
What test do you use to screen the herd for Johne's disease vs individual?
blood or milk test for herd fecal PCR for individual
79
Spring calving vs fall calving
spring -> hard to have cows in good BCS at calving, easy to have them gaining weight during breeding season fall -> opposite
80
What samples should you take post-mortem since its hard to get blood on a dead cow?
rumen contents, liver, kidney, urine, eyeball and bile
81
What are the more commonly affected systems that we can see sudden death?
-cardiovascular, respiratory and CNS
82
If you see a cow with symmetrical, bilateral swelling over the foot what is it until proven otherwise?
Foot wrot
83
What drug do we reach for with lameness in dairy cows vs beef cattle?
ceftiofur oxytet
84
What luxation is the most common in cattle?
Coxofemoral luxation
85
When castrating pigs, what testicle do you take out first?
The down testicle
86
When do the baby teeth erupt in dogs and cats ?
3-6 weeks
87
When do the permanent teeth erupt
3 months
88
When is empircal therapy indicated?
-high levels of efficacy for proven treatments -when waiting for results of c/s testing -client cant afford c/s testing
89
Specific diagnosis of bacterial infection is needed when?
-Animal is significantly compromised -Suspected infection in difficult to treat site or has consequences -Suspected bacterial pathogens dont have predictable susceptiblity patterns or rapidly develop resistance -poor response to earlier therapy -outbreak of disease -suspected disease is notifiable
90
Dry swabs should only be used for what?
PCR
91
What is evidence of bacterial inflammation?
-Neutrophils, toxic changes, intracellular bacteria, extracellular bacteria
92
What is the preferred technique for sampling?
FNA
93
What preventatives can we get female dogs that are being bred?
Ivermectin, pyrantel, panacure, interceptor and sentinel, revolution, and front line plus
94