Formative Test 1 Flashcards
1
Q
- The normal straw color of urine is largely due to the presence of
A. urochrome C. uroerythrin
B. bilirubin D. biliverdin
A
urochrome
2
Q
- Which term is not associated with renal physiology?
A. deglutition C. micturition
B. diuresis D. renal incontinence
A
deglutition
3
Q
- Which set of parts involved in urine formation is correctly sequenced?
A. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, collecting ducts, loop of Henle, renal pyramid, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
B. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
C. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, renal pelvis, loop of Henle, collecting ducts, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
D. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, collecting ducts, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
A
d. glomerulus, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, collecting ducts, renal pelvis, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra
4
Q
- Amino acid disorders are characterized by the passage of urine with
A. distinct colors C. characteristic odors
B. turbid appearance D. presence of amino acids
A
C. characteristic odors
5
Q
- The presence of smoky urine is most likely indicative of
A. hemoglobinuria C. hemosiderinuria
B. hematuria D. hemophilia
A
B. hematuria
6
Q
- One of the following is characterized by a turbid urine due to leakage of lymph:
A. pyuria C. bacteruria
B. chyluria D. cylindruria
A
B. chyluria
7
Q
- Brick dust refers to amorphous urates exhibiting a characteristic color of
A. yellow-orange C. red to red-brown
B. pink D. brown-black
A
B. pink
8
Q
- Gross examination of urine samples involve all of the following except
A. assessment of odor
B. reporting of urine color
C. specific gravity testing with a urinometer D. measurement of urine electrolytes
A
D. measurement of urine electrolytes
9
Q
10. The turbidity which cannot be removed due to the addition of a dilute acid confirms the presence of all of the following except A. amorphous urates B. amorphous phosphates C. bacteria D. leukocytes and pus cells
A
B. amorphous phosphates
10
Q
- The presence of casts in the urine is called
A. chyluria C. cylindruria
B. casturia D. crystalluria
A
C. cylindruria
11
Q
- The purpose of collecting twelve-hour urine samples is for obtaining
A. more yield, thus, increased sample volume
B. higher concentration of a particular substance tested
C. more urinary sediments such as cells, crystals and casts
D. ensure high degree of accuracy and precision of chemical tests
A
B. higher concentration of a particular substance tested
12
Q
- Any transient increase in urinary volume is termed
A. diuresis C. polyuria
B. hypersthenuria D. urolithiasis
A
A. diuresis
13
Q
- The most commonly encountered normal color of urine is
A. yellow C. colorless
B. red-brown D. brown
A
C. colorless
13
Q
- The most commonly encountered normal color of urine is
A. yellow C. colorless
B. red-brown D. brown
A
C. colorless
14
Q
- The TS (Total Solids) meter or refractometer is used to measure
A. specific gravity C. clarity (appearance)
B. urinary volume D. urine osmolality
A
A. specific gravity
15
Q
16. The presence of many mucus threads in the urine indicates A. renal inflammatory process B. slightly dysfunctional bladder C. normal kidney function D. urine processing artifact
A
A. renal inflammatory process
16
Q
17. PKU or phenylketonuria is a disease characterized by the voiding of a A. red-brown colored urine B. highly concentrated urine C. mousy-smelling urine D. milky cloudy urine
A
C. mousy-smelling urine
17
Q
- A reagent strip is sometimes referred to as the
A. test strip C. chemstrip
B. dipstick D. multistix
A
B. dipstick
18
Q
19. Regarded as the routine or basic urinalysis is the A. wet urinalysis B. special cytologic urinalysis C. reagent strip urinalysis D. chemical urinalysis
A
A. wet urinalysis
19
Q
20. Microscopic examination of urine includes A. urine appearance assessment B. specific gravity determination C. chemical testing using multistix D. sediment examination
A
C. chemical testing using multistix
20
Q
- In the event that only one urine specimen is obtained, which correct sequence should be followed in wet urinalysis?
- bacteriologic examination
- check for contamination
- examination for ketone bodies
- glucose testing
A. 1-2-3-4 C. 1-2-4-3
B. 2-1-4-3 D. 2-1-3-4
A
B. 2-1-4-3
21
Q
- The patient’s degree of hydration and urine concentration can be estimated by examining
A. urine clarity C. urine color
B. urine odor D. urine crystals
A
C. urine color
22
Q
- Small cloudy patches in normal urine due to the presence of mucus is called
A. nebula C. nubecula
B. smokiness D. flocculence
A
C. nubecula
23
Q
- Which pigment causes the production of yellow foam ?
A. uroerythrin C. bile pigments
B. hemoglobin D. indican
A
C. bile pigments
24
Presence of disrupted red blood cells would cause
A. hematuria C. hemosiderinuria
B. hemoglobinuria D. hematinuria
hematuria
25
26. Homogentisic acid forms brown-black urine upon long standing -- a condition known as
A. porphyria C. melaninuria
B. alkaptonuria D. urobilinuria
B. alkaptonuria
26
27. Which of these urinary constituents can be cleared through acidification?
A. amorphous urates C. pus cells
B. amorphous phosphates D. bacteria
B. amorphous phosphates
27
28. The dye Coomassie Brilliant blue is used to demonstrate the presence of
A. proteinuria C. lipiduria
B. chyluria D. pyuria
A. proteinuria
28
29. Excretion by an adult of more than 500 mL. of urine with a specific gravity of 1.018 at night is known as
A. polyuria C. polydipsia
B. nocturia D. nocturnal oliguria
B. nocturia
29
30. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. High volumes of urine result in a low specific gravity.
B. The aromatic odor of freshly voided urine is of undetermined source.
C. Cloudy urine is not common and not necessarily pathologic.
D. Aside from urochrome, there are other pigments that give normal urine a yellow color.
D. Aside from urochrome, there are other pigments that give normal urine a yellow color.
30
31. A urine sample with a specific gravity of 1.001 is described as
A. hyposthenuric C. hypersthenuric
B. normosthenuric D. isosthenuric
A. hyposthenuric
31
32. Which parameter cannot be measured using Multistix 10 SG?
A. specific gravity C. glucose
B. urinary pH D. ascorbate
D. ascorbate
32
33. Sound wave frequency and falling drop method are performed to assess the urine
A. osmolality C. specific gravity
B. acidity or alkalinity D. water content
C. specific gravity
33
34. The state of hydration of the patient can be assessed by all of the following except
A. urine osmolality C. urine specific gravity
B. urine volume and color D. urine pH
D. urine pH
34
35. The presence of high amounts of indican will give a urine sample a
A. red-violet color C. brown-black color
B. yellow-orange color D. blue-green color
D. blue-green color
35
36. The average adult on a normal diet produces a 24-hour urine with a pH of about
A. 5.0 C. 7.0
B. 6.0 D. 7.4
B. 6.0
36
37. At night, during the mild respiratory acidosis of sleep, a more acidic urine is formed. The
acidity is largely due to the buildup of
A. casts and crystals C. organic acids
B. carbon dioxide D. ketone bodies
B. carbon dioxideB. carbon dioxide
37
38. A diet high in meat and cranberries will
A. lower urinary pH C. increase urinary pH
B. produce neutral pH D. not affect urine pH
A. lower urinary pH
38
39. The ill effects of salicylic acid poisoning would be aggravated by which of the following:
A. diet rich in meat
B. intake of sodium bicarbonate
C. diet high in citrus fruits
D. prohibition of acid phosphate ingestion
A. diet rich in meat
39
40. In the tubular cells, the passing filtrate acquire hydrogen ions in exchange for
A. ammonium ions C. sodium ions
B. bicarbonate ions D. chloride ions
C. sodium ions
40
41. Which pair of dipstick and its number of chemical parameters is incorrect?
A. Multistix 10 SG - 10 C. Diastix – 2
B. Uristix -2 D. Chemstrip G – 1
C. Diastix – 2
41
```
42. The Uristix reagent strip can detect
A. glucose only
B. glucose and protein only
C. protein only
D. glucose and protein among others
```
B. glucose and protein only
42
43. The titratable acidity of a 24-hour urine collected in ice utilizes as titrant the
A. 0.1N NaHCO3 C. 0.01N NaOH
B. 0.1N NaOH D. 0.1N NaNO3
B. 0.1N NaOH
43
44. Bacterial growth in urine specimen is characterized by all of the following except
i. clouding that cannot be cleared by acidification
ii. clouding that can be removed by paper filtration
iii. marked alkaline shift to a pH > 8.0
iv. marked unsuitability as sample for bacterial culture
ii. clouding that can be removed by paper filtration
44
45. The most accurate means of determining the pH of urine samples is the
A. blue and red litmus paper method
B. pH meter with a glass electrode
C. titratable acidity testing using a 24-hour urine sample (in ice)
D. reagent strip using bromthymol blue and methyl red
B. pH meter with a glass electrode
45
```
46. The protein uromucoid is secreted by the cells in the distal tubular cells and ascending loop of Henle. It is highly associated with cast formation. It is also referred to as the
A. Bence Jones protein
B. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
C. Retinol-binding protein
D. Immunoglobulin light chains
```
B. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
46
47. The presence of Bence Jones protein the urine is suggestive of
A. Overflow proteinuria C. Multiple myeloma
B. Cylindruria D. Functional proteinuria
C. Multiple myeloma
47
```
48. A hazy urine with high protein content collected after a heavy exercise is an example of
A. Intermittent proteinuria
B. Persistent proteinuria
C. Postural proteinuria
D. Functional proteinuria
```
D. Functional proteinuria
48
49. To detect the kinds of protein in the urine, what is needed is
A. Multistix 10 SG C. Electrophoresis
B. Salting-out process D. Dye-binding tests
C. Electrophoresis
49
50. The catabolic products derived from lipids which can become potentially toxic are the
A. sugar monomers C. ketone bodies
B. benzene derivatives D. fatty acids
C. ketone bodies
50
51. When lipid is lost in the urine, many granular casts, fatty casts and oval fat bodies are found in the urine sediment. Oval fat bodies are actually
A. hyaline casts with lipid deposits
B. fat-laden renal tubular epithelial cells
C. droplets of cholesterol esters
D. lipoproteins forming oval crystals
B. fat-laden renal tubular epithelial cells
51
52. Tubular pattern proteinuria is seen in all of the following conditions except
A. Fanconi’s syndrome C. Wilson’s disease
B. Pyelonephritis D. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Nephrotic syndrome
52
53. The tubular pattern proteinuria cannot be easily detected using reagent strip methods due to the type of protein involved – the low molecular weight proteins such as alpha-1-microglobulin, light-chain immunoglobulins and lysozymes. On the other hand, glomerular pattern proteinuria is detected because the protein involved is mainly
A. albumin
B. Bence Jones protein
C. medium-chain immunoglobulins
D. Tamm Horsfall protein
A. albumin
53
54. Type of proteinuria characterized by the excretion of 4 g. of protein /day is described as
A. heavy C. minimal
B. moderate D. overflow
A. heavy
54
```
55. Also referred to as orthostatic proteinuria is
A. postural proteinuria
B. intermittent proteinuria
C. Bence Jones proteinuria
D. functional proteinuria
```
A. postural proteinuria
55
56. Which substance may affect urinary pH testing?
A. protein C. glucose
B. ketone bodies D. bilirubin
A. protein
56
57. Which statement regarding protein testing is not true?
A. Reagent strips are not sensitive in measuring globulins but sensitive to albumin.
B. Both albumin and globulins can be precipitated using SSA and TCA.
C. Reagent strips can be used in assessing the degree of proteinuria.
D. Both reagent strips and SSA and TCA methods are for urine protein screening.
C. Reagent strips can be used in assessing the degree of proteinuria.
57
58. What substance in the urine is tested using the Kjeldahl method and Biuret reaction?
A. glucose C. ketone bodies
B. protein D. bilirubin
B. protein
58
```
59. Bence Jones protein is best detected in urine via
A. Heat and precipitation technic
B. TCA-Biuret method
C. Protein electrophoresis
D. Coomassie blue dye-binding test
```
C. Protein electrophoresis
59
60. Which blood glucose level exceeds the renal threshold for glucose leading to glucosuria?
A. 100 mg/dL C. 130 mg/dL
B. 157 mg/dL D. 220 mg/dL
D. 220 mg/dL
60
61. Urine glucose testing serves to check endocrine function to diagnose the disease
A. Diabetes insipidus C. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperglycemia D. Glucosuria
C. Diabetes mellitus
61
```
62. The common thing about using reagent strips for glucose testing such as Clinistix, Multistix and Chemstrip is the
A. double sequential enzyme reaction
B. reaction time
C. type of chromogen used
D. procedural steps
```
A. double sequential enzyme reaction
62
63. The copper reduction tablet test for glucose is the
A. Clinistix C. Clinitest
B. Bilitest D. Chemstrip G
C. Clinitest
63
64. What enzyme will oxidize glucose into gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide?
A. hexokinase C. glucokinase
B. glucose oxidase D. glucose peroxidase
B. glucose oxidase
64
65. The range of drops required of the urine sample in the glucose testing using Clinitest is
A. 2 to 5 C. 5 to 8
B. 5 to10 D. 10 to 15
A. 2 to 5
65
66. O-toluidine is the chromogen used in which reagent strip for glucose?
A. Clinistix C. Multistix
B. Chemstrip-G D. Clinitest
A. Clinistix
66
67. All of the following are reducing sugars except
A. glucose C. galactose
B. fructose D. sucrose
D. sucrose
67
68. If a pass through phenomenon happens in the glucose test using Clinitest, one should do
i. retesting using lesser amount of urine sample
ii. recollection of urine sample and retesting glucose
iii. confirm the result using Benedict’s method
iv. no additional testing and results obtained can be reported
i. retesting using lesser amount of urine sample
68
69. In galactokinase deficiency, galactose cannot be converted to glucose. From what sugar was the galactose that appears in the urine derived?
A. sucrose C. lactose
B. maltose D. starch
C. lactose
69
70. Which of the following tests is the most specific for urinary glucose testing?
A. Clinitest C. Benedict’s test
B. Clinistix D. Copper reduction test
B. Clinistix
70
71. What compound of copper is colored yellow?
A. CuOH C. CuSO4
B. Cu2O D. CuO
B. Cu2O
71
```
72. What method is best to measure the individual reducing sugars in urine?
A. Copper reduction method
B. Clinitest
C. Thin layer chromatography
D. Clinistix
```
C. Thin layer chromatography
72
73. What organic substances are products of incomplete lipid metabolism?
A. free fatty acids C. bile pigments
B. ketone bodies D. porphyrins
B. ketone bodies
73
74. The most abundant among these organic substances in the urine is
A. beta-hydroxybutyric acid C. diacetic acid
B. acetone D. urea
D. urea
74
75. The most abundant among these inorganic urine constituents is
A. sodium C. bicarbonate
B. chloride D. potassium
B. chloride
75
```
76. Ketonuria may be seen in all of the following conditions except
A. fasting
B. type I diabetes mellitus
C. excessive exercise
D. carbohydrate-rich diet
```
D. carbohydrate-rich diet
75
```
76. Ketonuria may be seen in all of the following conditions except
A. fasting
B. type I diabetes mellitus
C. excessive exercise
D. carbohydrate-rich diet
```
D. carbohydrate-rich diet
76
77. Sodium nitroferricyanide reaction (Acetest) is specific for urinary
A. urobilinogen C. bilirubin
B. diacetate D. sucrose
B. diacetate
77
78. Rothera’s wet method can detect all of the following except
A. acetoacetic acid C. acetone
B. beta-hydroxybutyrate D. ketone bodies
B. beta-hydroxybutyrate
78
```
79. The main ingredient of the Gerhardt’s test for the detection of urine diacetic acid is
A. nitroprusside
B. nitroferricyanide
C. ferric chloride
D. sulfobromophthalein
```
C. ferric chloride
79
80. Which of the following substances is an oxidizing agent?
A. ascorbic acid C. hydrogen peroxide
B. glutathione D. uric acid
C. hydrogen peroxide
80
81. If delay in testing for ketone bodies cannot be prevented, the urine sample should be
A. kept capped at 2-10oC
B. added with preservative
C. discarded and replaced by a new one
D. refrigerated at -2 to -10 degrees Celsius
D. refrigerated at -2 to -10 degrees Celsius
81
82. The Multistix reagent pad for blood uses of the chromogen tetramethylbenzidine which, in the presence of blood, causes a color change from
A. yellow to red C. yellow to orange
B. yellow to green D. yellow to purple
B. yellow to green
82
83. What red-brown pigment in the urine is produced after rhabdomyolysis?
A. hemoglobin C. intact RBCs
B. myoglobin D. hemosiderin
B. myoglobin
83
84. Which of the following is not a breakdown product of hemoglobin?
A. bilirubin C. hemosiderin
B. amino acids D. haptoglobin
D. haptoglobin
84
85. The Diazo (p-nitrobenzenediazonium p-toluene sulfonate) tablet test is for the detection of urine
A. hemoglobin C. urobilinogen
B. bilirubin D. myoglobin
B. bilirubin
85
86. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reaction is the formation of reddish-brown color due to
A. urobilinogen C. bilirubin
B. nitrite D. leukocyte esterase
A. urobilinogen
86
```
87. Bilirubin can be detected using all of the following methods except
A. Ictotest
B. Yellow foam test
C. Diazo reagent strip
D. Blondheim method
```
D. Blondheim method
87
88. Schwartz-Watson test differentiates between the presence of urobilinogen and
A. hemoglobin C. bilirubin
B. porphyrins D. porphobilinogen
D. porphobilinogen
88
89. Inverse Ehrlich’s reaction is also known as
A. Hecht’s test C. Hoesch’s test
B. Nitrite test D. Leukocyte esterase test
C. Hoesch’s test
89
90-91. A positive nitrite test indicates ___A(90)____ while a positive leukocyte esterase test indicates ____C__(91)____ .
A. bacteriuria C. pyuria
B. cylindruria D. crystalluria
A. bacteriuria , C. pyuria
90
C-Stix reagent strips are impregnated with buffered phosphomolybdates to detect
A. ascorbic acid C. citric acid
B. 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid D. melanin
A. ascorbic acid
90
93. The 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) is a byproduct of metabolism of
A. porphyrins C. serotonin
B. indicant D. ascorbic acid
C. serotonin
91
94. If serotonin is derived from the amino acid tryptophan, melanin is derived from which amino acid?
A. glycine C. cysteine
B. tyrosine D. methionine
B. tyrosine
92
95. Defects in the synthesis of heme moiety of hemoglobin would cause
A. lead poisoning C. porphyrias
B. in vitro hemolysis D. hemorrhagic fever
C. porphyrias
93
96. What apparatus is required to detect the lavender to violet fluorescence of porphyrins after acidification of urine sample and addition of glacial acetic acid:ethyl acetate mixture?
A. Microscope C. Wood’s lamp
B. TS meter D. UV light
C. Wood’s lamp
94
97. Which of the following has a peroxidase-like activity?
A. hexokinase C. heme
B. myoglobin D. hydrogen peroxide
C. heme
95
98. The most abundant among the ketone bodies which accounts 78% of the total in urine is
A. acetone C. acetoacetic acid
B. beta-hydroxybutyric acid D. urea
B. beta-hydroxybutyric acid
96
```
99. Which pathologic condition would cause a positive Acetest?
A. diabetes mellitus
B. nephrotic syndrome
C. diabetes insipidus
D. high fat diet
```
D. high fat diet
97
100. Which chemical parameter is not found in Multistix 10 SG?
A. Urobilinogen C. Nitrite
B. Ascorbic acid D. Leukocyte esterase
B. Ascorbic acid
98
filters blood of cells and proteins; formation of ultrafiltrate
Glomerulus
99
deliver blood to the glomeruli
Afferent arteriole
100
delivers blood ultrafiltrate from glomeruli to peritubular capillaries
Efferent arteriole
101
reabsorption of H2O & Na+ to renal cells (glucose, Cl-& amino acids are
reabsorbed also)
Proximal convoluted tubule
102
renal cell reabsorption of Na+ & Cl- with release of K+(but not H2O)
Ascending loop
103
renal cell reabsorption of H2O (but not salt); increased of tubular
fluid
Descending loop
104
ADH-dependent tubular reabsorption of mostly H2O as well as Na+
(aldosterone dependent)
Distal convoluted tubule
105
collection of 1% of the total filtered plasma referred to as urine
Collecting tubule
106
passageway of urine from kidney to bladder
Ureter
107
temporary storage(reservoir) of urine
Urinary bladder
108
Osmolality of normal urine
285 mOsm/kg H2O for isosthenuric urine
