Study questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The type of nephron responsible for renal
    concentration is the:
    A. Cortical
    B. Juxtaglomerular
A

B. Juxtaglomerular

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2
Q
2. The function of the peritubular capillaries is:
A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration
C. Secretion
D. Both A and C
A

D. Both A and C

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3
Q
  1. Blood flows through the nephron in the following
    order:
    A. Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa
    recta, afferent arteriole
    B. Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa
    recta,
    efferent arteriole
    C. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa
    recta, efferent arteriole
    D. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular
    capillaries, afferent arteriole
A

C. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa

recta, efferent arteriole

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4
Q
Which physical examination parameter can be described as anuric or oliguric? 
A. Urine color determination
B. Urine volume
C. Urine clarity
D. Urine specific gravity
A

B. Urine volume

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5
Q
. A positive result for Rothera's test for urine ketone bodies is 
A. Cherry-red
B. Brown
C. Green
D. Purple
A

D. Purple

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6
Q
. Substances responsible for the normal odor of urine are 
A. Urochrome
B. Volatile acids
C. Urinod
D. Only b & c
A

D. Only b & c

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7
Q
Which urine parameter can be described as isosthenuric, hyposthenuric or hypersthenuric? 
A. Urine color determination
B. Urine volume
C. Urine clarity
D. Urine specific gravity
A

D. Urine specific gravity

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8
Q
The diazonium salt methods are popular tests for the detection of urinary 
A. Myoglobin
B. Sugars
C. Ketones
D. Bilirubin
A

D. Bilirubin

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9
Q
A positive result for the presence of acetone in urine is 
A. Purple ring
B. Green fluorescence
C. Turbidity
D. Brown precipitates
A

A. Purple ring

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10
Q
7. Which of the following is not a heme compound? 
A. Bilirubin
B. Myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Porphyrinuria
A

D. Porphyrinuria

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11
Q
A method used for measuring Specific gravity based on the speed of light travelled by light is 
A. Refractometer
B. Urinometer
C. Reagent strip
D. Precipitation
A

Refractometer

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12
Q
A specific chemical test designed for urine porphobilinogen detection is 
A. Erlich's aldehyde test
B. Schwartz-Watson test
C. Sulkowitch test
D. Fantus test
A

B. Schwartz-Watson test

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13
Q
The only sugar that cannot give (+) result with copper reduction test is 
A. Sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
D. Pentoses
A

A. Sucrose

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14
Q

The presence of hemoglobin in urine is termed
A. Hematuria B. Hemoglobinura
C. Uremia D. Myoglobinura

A

Hemoglobinura

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15
Q
Fantus test is for the determination of urinary 
A. Calcium
B. Hemoglobin
C. Chloride
D. Indican
A

Chloride

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16
Q
. Which test is used to screen ketone bodies? 
A. Erlich's test
B. Rubner's test
C. Hoesch's test
D. Gerhardt's test
A

D. Gerhardt’s test

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17
Q
. The orthotoluidine and benzidine test are chemical test for the presence of
A. Blood
B. Bilirubin
C. Ketone Bodies
D. Protein
A

Blood

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18
Q
The physical test that can be examined using hydrometer and a reagent strip is 
A. Urine volume
B. Urine color determination
C. Specific gravity
D. Urine odor determination
A

Specific gravity

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19
Q
Inverse Erlich's reaction is also known as 
A. Hecht's rection
B. Nitrite test
C. Hoesch's test
D. Leukocyte esterase test
A

C. Hoesch’s test

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20
Q
The substance found in Multistix that indicates bacteriuria is 
A. Urobilin
B. Indican
C. Nitrite
D. Leukocyte esterase
A

Nitrite

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21
Q
Which of the following tests is the most specific for urinary glucose testing? 
A. Clinitest
B. Clinistix
C. Benedict's test
D. Copper reduction test
A

Clinistix

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22
Q
Which substance is tested via protein error of indicators? 
A. Albumin
B. pH
C. Bilirubin
D. Blood
A

Albumin

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23
Q
The strip impregnated with methyl red and bromthymol blue is used to measure urine 
A. Albumin
B. pH
C. Bilirubin
D. Blood
A

pH

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24
Q
The chemical test for urine calcium determination is 
A. Sulkowitch test
B. Obermeyer's test
C. Fantus test
D. Hay's test
A

A. Sulkowitch test

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25
``` The decrease in urine volume seen as a result of excessive water loss from vomiting is A. Oliguria B. Anuria C. Polyuria D. Hyponuria ```
Oliguria
26
``` The confirmatory test for the presence of urine myoglobin is A. Paper electrophoresis B. Immunochemical Method C. HPLC D. TLC ```
B. Immunochemical Method
27
``` 25. An instrumental method for measuring urine pH is A. Litmus paper B. Reagent strip C. pH electrode D. Spectrophotemetric method ```
C. pH electrode
28
``` Urobilinogen is formed in the colon by the action of bacteria on what substance? A. Urobilin B. Hemoglobin C. Bilirubin D. Lipid ```
Bilirubin
29
``` The confirmatory test for the identification of any sugar in urine is A. HPLC B. SSA using nephelometer C. TLC D. Wood's lamp fluorescence ```
C. TLC
30
``` Which physical examination parameter can be described as clear, hazy, smoky or cloudy? A. Urine color determination B. Urine volume C. Urine clarity D. Urine specific gravity ```
C. Urine clarity
31
``` Which confirmatory method is best for urine protein detection A. HPLC B. SSA using nephelometer C. TLC D. Wood's lamp fluorescence ```
B. SSA using nephelometer
32
``` The reagent strip test for glucose determination includes the following EXCEPT A. Clinistix B. Chemstrip UGc C. Multistix D. C-stix ```
D. C-stix
33
``` Substances responsible for the normal color of urine include the following EXCEPT A. Urochrome B. Urobilinogen C. Urobilin D. Uroerythrin ```
B. Urobilinogen
34
``` Which macroscopic test is used for screening aminoacidurias like phenylketonuria? A. Urine volume B. Urine color determination C. Specific gravity D. Urine odor determination ```
D. Urine odor determination
35
``` Which urine physical test is greatly associated with hemoglobinuria? A. Clear red urine B. Cloudy red urine C. Amber urine D. Green urine ```
A. Clear red urine
36
``` Which test is used to screen reducing sugar? A. Erlich's test B. Rubner's test C. Hoesch's test D. Gerhardt's test ```
B. Rubner's test
37
``` Ehrilch's aldehyde reaction is the formation of reddish-brown color due to A. Urobilinogen B. Nitrite C. Bilirubin D. Leukocyte esterase ```
A. Urobilinogen
38
``` The copper reduction test for glucose is the principle in which of the following tests A. Benedict's test B. Clinistix C. Clinitest D. Only a & c ```
D. Only a & c
39
``` Which of the following macroscopic test is used for screening hematuria or myoglobinuria? A. Urine volume B. Urine color determination C. Specific gravity D. Urine odor determination ```
B. Urine color determination
40
``` The ability of the kidney to maintain hydrogen ion concentration in the plasma and ECF is tested via A. pH B. Specific gravity C. Protein D. Volume ```
A. pH
41
``` Which substance is tested using polyelectrolytes and an indicator? A. Albumin B. pH C. Bilirubin D. Blood ```
B. pH
42
``` Rothera's test is a test used to detect presence of what substance in urine A. Acetone B. Diacetic acid C. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid D. Hemoglobin ```
A. Acetone
43
``` Urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory promptly and tested ideally within A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 30 minutes D. 5 hours ```
A. 2 hours
44
``` Which compound comprises 20% of the total urinary ketones? A. Acetone B. Acetoacetic acid C. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid D. Lactones ```
B. Acetoacetic acid
45
``` Which blood glucose level exceeds the renal treshold for glucose leading to glucosuria? A. 100mg/dL B. 157 mg/dL C. 130mg/dL D. 220mg/dL ```
D. 220mg/dL
46
``` The urine tablet test for the determination of bilirubinuria is A. Acetest B. Bilistix C. Ictotest D. Clinitest ```
C. Ictotest
47
``` Myoglobinura is basically cause by the rapid destruction of skeletal muscle that is called A. Cachexia B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Ketone bodies D. Protein ```
B. Rhabdomyolysis
48
``` The hormone that first responds to acute blood loss is the A. Eryhtropoietin B. Activated vitamin D3 C. Renin D. Antidiuretic hormone ```
A. Eryhtropoietin
49
``` The reverse Swatzz-Watson test is also called A. Erlich's test B. Rubner's test C. Hoesch's test D. Gerhardt's test ```
C. Hoesch's test
50
``` Which physical examination parameter can be described as achoic or aeruginous? A. Urine color determination B. Urine volume C. Urine clarity D. Urine specific gravity ```
A. Urine color determination
51
``` Which confirmatory method is best for detection of urinary porphyrins A. HPLC B. SSA using nephelometer C. TLC D. Wood's lamp fluorescence ```
D. Wood's lamp fluorescence
52
``` A person is suffering from polyuria if the volume of urine voided exceeds A. 200mL B. 600mL C. 1200mL D. 5000mL ```
C. 1200mL
53
``` Ehrlich's aldehyde test is a test used to determine the presence of urine A. Calcium B. Urobilinogen C. Urobilin D. Hemoglobin ```
B. Urobilinogen
54
``` An increase in urine output during night time is termed as A. Nocturia B. Poldydipsia C. Polyuria D. Anuria ```
A. Nocturia
55
``` The normal odor of urine is A. Aromatic B. Nutty C. Musty D. Ammoniacal ```
A. Aromatic
56
A positive result for the presence of protein in urine may indicate the following EXCEPT A. Urinary tract infection B. Glomerulonephritis C. Bleeding anywhere in the genitourinary tract D. Hormonal imbalance
D. Hormonal imbalance
57
``` The conventional eyepiece of a compound microscope has a magnification of A. 100x B. 40x C. 10x D. 120x ```
C. 10x
58
``` Lymphocytosis; high protein; low glucose; cryotococcal antigen (+) A. Bacterial meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Fungal meningitis D. Tubercular meningitis ```
C. Fungal meningitis
59
``` At what pH can the sediments be best preserved in the urine? A. Acidic B. Alkaline C. Neutral D. Any pH ```
A. Acidic
60
``` Lymphocytosis; high protein; low glucose <45mg/dl; pellicle formation (+) A. Bacterial meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Fungal meningitis D. Tubercular meningitis ```
D. Tubercular meningitis
61
Which of the following sediment findings is NORMAL A. Presence of waxy casts B. Presence of tissue fragments C. Presence of atypical mononuclears D. Presence of few dysmorphic eryhtrocytes
C. Presence of atypical mononuclears
62
``` What color is NOT associated with a xanthochromic CSF? A. Red B. Yellow-green C. Brown D. Orange ```
A. Red
63
``` Sternheimer-Malbin is used in which of the following: A. Stone analysis B. Staining of urine sediments C. Visualization of genitourinary tract D. Urine protein determination ```
B. Staining of urine sediments
64
``` Which normal epithelial cell is commonly interfering when doing urine sediment examination? A. Squamous B. Transitional C. Renal tubular D. Urothelial ```
A. Squamous
65
Which of the following is the unique characteristics of Calcium oxalate? A. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours
B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms
66
``` What do you call a hyaline cast with a tapering end? A. Mucus thread B. Cylindroid C. Renal fiber D. Waxy cast ```
B. Cylindroid
67
What is tested on the CSF whereby the color of CSF is compared to distilled water using a white background after the sample is centrifuged. A. Menigitis B. Xanthochromia C. Hemorrhage D. Hyperbilirubinemia
B. Xanthochromia
68
``` What disorder is the cause of xanthochromia? A. Meningeal abscess B. Subdural hemorrhage C. Polyneuritis D. Meningitis ```
B. Subdural hemorrhage
69
12. Which of the following is TRUE about squamous epithelial cells A. It originated from the distal 1/3 of the urethra B. It originated from the PCT and DCT C. It originated from the bleeding of glomerulus D. It originated from the bladder of transitional carcinoma patients
A. It originated from the distal 1/3 of the urethra
70
Squamous epithelial cells are A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm B. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus
C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm
71
``` What is the most important indication for CSF collection? A. Infectious meningitis B. Multiple sclerosis C. Polyneutritis D. Alzheimer's disease ```
A. Infectious meningitis
72
15. Glomerular bleeding can be diagnosed by seeing under the microscope RBCs which vary in size, have bizarre shapes or are fragmented that is termed as___________RBCs A. Crenated B. Dysmorphic C. Anisotropic D. Dismorphic
B. Dysmorphic
73
16. Intact transitional epithelial cells are from A. the PCT and DCT B. the bleeding of glomerulus C. the distal 1/3 of the urethra D. the renal pelvis to the proximal 2/3 of urethra
D. the renal pelvis to the proximal 2/3 of urethra
74
``` 17. Fragmented urothelial cells are A. from the distal 1/3 of the urethra B. from the bladder of transitional carcinoma patients C. from the bleeding of glomerulus D. from the PCT and DCT ```
B. from the bladder of transitional carcinoma patients
75
18. Which following is the unique characteristic of renal epithelial cells? A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm B. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus
A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm
76
19. Because formed elements tend to settle in urine, one should do which of the following before starting routine urinalysis? A. shake vigorously the urine sample B. centrifuge the urine sample C. mix thoroughly the urine specimen D. proceed with macroscopic exam immediately
C. mix thoroughly the urine specimen
77
``` 20. What renal disorder is characterized by detection of fat droplets, oval fat bodies and fatty acids? A. Pyelonephritis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute tubular necrosis ```
C. Nephrotic syndrome
78
``` 20. What renal disorder is characterized by detection of fat droplets, oval fat bodies and fatty acids? A. Pyelonephritis B. Glomerulonephritis C. Nephrotic syndrome D. Acute tubular necrosis ```
C. Nephrotic syndrome
79
``` 21. Dysmorphic RBCs are from A. the bleeding of glomerulus B. the distal 1/3 of the urethra C. the PCT and DCT D. the renal pelvis to the proximal 2/3 of urethra ```
A. the bleeding of glomerulus
80
``` 22. Which method of examining sediments in urine is best in identifying mucus, hyaline casts and platelets? A. Brightfield microscopy B. Darkfield microscopy C. Phase-contrast microscopy D. Polarizing microscopy ```
C. Phase-contrast microscopy
81
``` 23. Which test is the most important in diagnosing multiple sclerosis? A. Protein test B. Bacterial culture C. Immunoassay D. Cell count ```
A. Protein test
82
``` 24. What CNS disease is associated with F2-isoprostanes? A. Multiple sclerosis B. Alzheimer's disease C. Behcet's syndrome D. Creutzfeldt-Jakob ```
B. Alzheimer's disease
83
``` 25. What might cause the urine to be smoky in appearance? A. PMN B. Erythrocytes C. Bacteriuria D. Cylindruria ```
B. Erythrocytes
84
``` 26. Which specific protein is the most abundant in normal CSF? A. Albumin B. Prealbumin C. Transferrin D. Immunoglobulin G ```
A. Albumin
85
``` 27. 7-9um; distorted cells of varied shapes; not nucleated A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Transitional epithelial cell C. Renal epithelial cells D. Dysmorphic RBCs ```
D. Dysmorphic RBCs
86
``` 28. Neutrophilia, markedly high protein; glucose <40mg/dl; high opening pressure A. Bacterial meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Fungal meningitis D. Tubercular meningitis ```
A. Bacterial meningitis
87
``` 29. What is the constant finding when urinary stones are present in the genitourinary tract? A. Hemoglobinuria B. Hemosiderinuria C. Hematuria D. Proteinuria ```
A. Hemoglobinuria
88
``` 30. In urine sediment examination, which elements are reported per high power field? A. RBCs B. WBCs C. Casts D. Both A and B ```
D. Both A and B
89
``` 31. Which of the following is NOT detected using the dipstick? A. Blood B. Crystals C. Leukocytes D. Bacteria ```
B. Crystals
90
32. Which of the following is always present and reliable indicators of renal disease? A. Hematuria and Pyuria B. Oil droplets and Moderate Bacteria C. Proteinuria and Cylindruria D. Plenty epithelial cells and Cloudy character
C. Proteinuria and Cylindruria
91
``` 33. The procedure of wet urinalysis starts with the A. urine collection and transport B. sample identification C. sediment assessment D. chemical testing ```
B. sample identification
92
``` 35. Which crystal description is found in normal alkaline urine? A. envelope crystal B. coffin lid crystal C. whetstone crystal D. wheat sheaves ```
B. coffin lid crystal
93
36. The urine volume needed in sediment examination is at least 10-15 ml. The most common reason why it CANNOT be satisfied is when the patient A. is a pediatric patient B. has a polyuria due to diabetes C. has glomerulonephritis D. is having anuria
D. is having anuria
94
``` 37. Which CNS disorder is NOT characterized by eosinophilia? A. Bacterial meningitis B. Fungal meningitis C. Parasitic infection D. Acute polyneuritis ```
A. Bacterial meningitis
95
``` 38. What is the most reliable method for differential cell counts in CSF? A. Filtration B. Direct smear C. Cytocentrifuge D. Flow cytometer ```
C. Cytocentrifuge
96
``` 39. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval is the unique characteristic of? * A. Uric Acid crystal B. Calcium carbonate C. Calcium oxalate D. Ammonium biurate ```
A. Uric Acid crystal
97
``` 40. Which aminoaciduria causes a caramelized odor in urine? A. PKU B. Tyrosinuria C. MSUD D. Alkaptonuria ```
C. MSUD
98
``` 41. What is the usual time and relative centrifugal force for centrifugation of urine specimens? A. 5 minutes at 450g B. 15 minutes at 450g C. 10 minutes at 540g D. 5 minutes at 550g ```
A. 5 minutes at 450g
98
``` 41. What is the usual time and relative centrifugal force for centrifugation of urine specimens? A. 5 minutes at 450g B. 15 minutes at 450g C. 10 minutes at 540g D. 5 minutes at 550g ```
A. 5 minutes at 450g
99
42. Which is TRUE regarding transitional epithelial cells (intact) A. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm B. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated C. large, flat cells with folded margins; abundant cytoplasm D. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus
40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated
100
``` 43. What substance in CSF is measured using turbidimetric method with trichloroacetic acid or SSA? A. Glucose B. Lactate C. Total protein D. Chloride ```
C. Total protein
101
``` 44. What WBC is the most abundant in a normal CSF in adult? A. Neutrophils B. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte D. Plasma cell ```
B. Lymphocyte
102
``` 45. Which of the following is NOT characterized by decreased CSF pressure? A. Obesity B. Dehydration C. Circulatory collapse D. CSF leakage ```
A. Obesity
102
``` 45. Which of the following is NOT characterized by decreased CSF pressure? A. Obesity B. Dehydration C. Circulatory collapse D. CSF leakage ```
A. Obesity
103
``` 46. When sediment structures have similar refractive index with the urine, they are best seen A. using subdued illumination B. using very bright illumination C. using bright illumination D. any of the aforementioned ```
A. using subdued illumination
104
``` 47. All cylindrical structures called casts have characteristic A. Hyaline form & inclusions B. Regular shape & pointed ends C. Parallel sides & rounded ends D. Low refractive index & blunt ends ```
C. Parallel sides & rounded ends
105
``` 48. Which of the following cells originated from PCT and DCT? A. Squamous epithelial cells B. Transitional epithelial cells C. Renal epithelial cells D. Dysmosrphic RBCs ```
C. Renal epithelial cells
106
``` 49. Which of the following will NOT cause turbidity in CSF? A. High glucose B. High protein C. Presence of fat D. High cell counts ```
A. High glucose
107
50. Which of the following is the unique characteristics of Calcium carbonate? A. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours
D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours
108
``` 1. Associated with HIV infect; spirochetal meningitis A. Bacterial meningitis B. Fungal meningitis C. Tubercular meningitis D. Syphilitic meningitis ```
D. Syphilitic meningitis
109
``` 52. What is the presence of casts in urine called? A. Casturia B. Cylinduria C. Proteinuria D. Cylindruria ```
D. Cylindruria
110
``` 53. Which substance CANNOT diffuse freely via blood-brain barrier A. Protein B. Glucose C. Urea D. Creatinine ```
A. Protein
111
``` 54. Lymphocytosis; normal opening pressure, glucose and lactate; (+) RT-PCR testing is the characteristic of? A. Bacterial meningitis B. Viral meningitis C. Fungal meningitis D. Tubercular meningitis ```
B. Viral meningitis
112
``` 55. The microscopic evaluation of this sediment structure in urine requires 10 low power fields A. Hyaline casts B. WBCs C. RBCs D. Squamous epithelial cells ```
A. Hyaline casts
113
``` 56. Why should a CSF cell count be performed not after 30 minutes to 1 hour after collection? A. the cells will aggregate B. the cells will change form C. the cell will lyse D. contaminants will appear ```
C. the cell will lyse
114
``` 57. Gram stain is beneficial in establishing which CNS disorder? A. Viral meningitis B. Fungal meningitis C. Bacterial meningitis D. Tubercular meningitis ```
C. Bacterial meningitis
115
``` 58. Which variable is NOT related or important to urine sediment examination? A. Urine volume that is centrifuged B. Amount of sediment examined C. Time and speed of centrifugation D. Urine specific gravity and osmolality ```
D. Urine specific gravity and osmolality
116
``` 59. Urine sediments are also interchangeably termed A. Total solids B. Formed elements C. Renal deposits D. Urine structures ```
B. Formed elements
117
``` 60. Which CSF substance is 60% of the same substance in plasma? A. Total protein B. Lactate C. Glucose D. Albumin ```
C. Glucose
118
``` 61. Which of the following urine sediment examination findings is NOT normal? A. 0-5 WBCs/hpf B. 0-2 RBCs/hpf C. 0-2 hyaline casts/lpf D. 0-2 renal cells/hpf ```
D. 0-2 renal cells/hpf
119
62. Which of the following is the unique characteristics of Ammonium biurate? A. Four-sided, flat, yellow or red-brown; lemon-shaped or oval B. Small, colorless octahedral; rarely dumbbells, ovoid or long forms C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections D. Colorless granules or spheres; form pairs of fours
C. Yellow-brown spheres with striations and hornlike projections
120
63. Cells from the collecting ducts are A. 7-9um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus B. 14-60um; oblong to egg shape; granular cytoplasm C. 12-20um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus D. 40-200um; round to pear-shaped; binucleated
C. 12-20um; cuboidal or polygonal shaped; eccentric nucleus
121
``` 64. What is the principal WBC that is found in pyuria? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Plasma cells D. Mononuclears ```
A. Neutrophils
122
``` 65. What is the reference range for CSF total protein? A. 15-45 g/dl B. 20-40 g/dl C. 15-45 mg/dl D. 15-45 mg/L ```
C. 15-45 mg/dl
123
``` Which test requires a spun urine? * 1/1 specific gravity microscopic exam of urine urine character assessment dipstick testing ```
microscopic exam of urine
124
``` Which physical examination parameter can be described as acholic or aeruginous? * 1/1 Urine color determination Urine volume Urine clarity Urine specific gravity ```
Urine color determination
125
``` The state of hydration of the patient can be assessed by all of the following EXCEPT: * 1/1 Urine osmolality Urine volume and color Urine specific gravity Urine pH ```
Urine pH
126
``` What compound of copper is colored red? * 1/1 CuOH Cu2O CuSO4 CuO ```
Cu2O
127
``` Which of the following macroscopic test is used for screening hematuria or myoglobinuria? * 1/1 Urine volume Urine color determination Specific gravity Urine odor determination ```
Urine color determination
128
``` Which part of the genitourinary tract whose function can be tested via the creatinine clearance test? * 1/1 PCT glomerulus DCT collecting ducts loop of Henle ```
glomerulus
129
``` When lipid is lost in the urine, many granular casts, fatty casts and oval fat bodies are found in the urine sediment. Oval fat bodies are actually * 1/1 Hyaline casts with lipid deposits Fat-laden renal tubular epithelial cells Droplets of cholesterol esters Liporoteins forming oval crystals ```
Fat-laden renal tubular epithelial cells
130
``` What might NOT cause a positive urine blood test with no RBCs seen in the microscopic examination? * 1/1 lysis of RBCs muscle cell lysis hemoglobinuria alkaptonuria ```
alkaptonuria
131
``` The range of drops required of the urine sample in the glucose testing using Clinitest is * 1/1 2 to 5 5 to 10 5 to 8 10 to 15 ```
2 to 5
132
``` Which part of the genitourinary tract whose function can be tested via the PAH clearance test? * 1/1 PCT glomerulus DCT collecting ducts loop of Henle ```
glomerulus
133
``` Bilirubin can be detected using all of the following methods EXCEPT * 1/1 Ictotest Yellow foam test Diazo reagent strip Blondheim method ```
Blondheim method
134
``` Which part of the genitourinary tract whose function can be tested via the Free Water Clearance test? * 1/1 PCT glomerulus DCT collecting ducts loop of Henle ```
collecting ducts
135
``` Sodium nitroferricyanide reaction (Actest) is specific for urinary * 1/1 Urobilinogen Diacetate Bilirubin Sucrose ```
Diacetate
136
``` Ketonuria may be seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT * 1/1 Fasting Type 1 diabetes milletus Excessive exercise Carbohydrate-rich diet ```
Carbohydrate-rich diet
137
``` The reverse Swatzz-Watson test is also called * 1/1 Erlich's test Rubner's test Hoesch's test Gerhardt's test ```
Hoesch's test
138
``` Substances responsible for the normal color of urine include the following EXCEPT * 1/1 Urochrome Urobilinogen Urobilin Uroerythrin ```
Urobilinogen
139
``` All of the following are reducing sugars except * 1/1 Glucose Fructose Galactose Sucrose ```
Sucrose
140
``` Leukocytoria is synonymous with: * 1/1 Chyloria Hemocyturia Pyuria Cylindruria Dysuria ```
Pyuria
141
``` A specific chemical test designed for urine porphobilinogen detection is * 1/1 Ehrlich's aldehyde test Schwartz-Watson test Sulkowitch test Fantus test ```
Schwartz-Watson test
142
``` The most abundant among these inorganic urine constituents is * 1/1 Sodium Chloride Bicarbonate Potassium ```
Chloride
143
``` Proteinuria can be assessed via: * 1/1 Wet urinalysis Dry chemistry Both Wet urinalysis & Dry chemistry ```
Both Wet urinalysis & Dry chemistry
144
``` Which of the following macroscopic test is used for screening hematuria or myoglobinuria? * 1/1 Urine volume Urine color determination Specific gravity Urine odor determination ```
Urine color determination
145
``` Which substance is tested via protein error of indicators? * 1/1 Albumin pH Bilirubin Blood ```
Albumin
146
``` Substances responsible for the normal color of urine include the following EXCEPT * 1/1 Urochrome Urobilinogen Urobilin Uroerythrin ```
Urobilinogen
147
``` The confirmatory test for the presence of urine myoglobin is * 1/1 Paper electrophoresis Immunochemical Method HPLC TLC ```
Immunochemical Method
148
``` Tubular pattern proteinuria is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT * 1/1 Fanconi's syndrome Pyelonephritis Wilson's disease Nephrotic syndrome ```
Nephrotic syndrome
149
A positive result for the presence of protein in urine may indicate the following EXCEPT * 1/1 Urinary tract infection Glomerulonephritis Bleeding anywhere in the genitourinary tract Hormonal imbalance
Hormonal imbalance
150
``` Which of the following parts of the genitourinary system are parts of the nephron? * 5/5 collecting ducts Bowman's capsule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubules afferent arterioles efferent arterioles distal convoluted tubules peritubular capillaries glomerulus arcuate arteries ureters urethra urinary bladder ```
``` Bowman's capsule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubules distal convoluted tubules glomerulus ```
151
``` Among the following reagent strip parameters, which of the following are NOT regarded as substances? * 3/3 pH Leukocyte esterase Nitrite Ascorbate Glucose Blood Hemoglobin Specific gravity Bilirubin Urobilinogen Albumin ```
pH Blood Specific gravity
152
``` The main ingredient of the Gerhardt's test for the detection of urine diacetic acid is * 1/1 Nitroprusside Nitroferricyanide Ferric chloride Sulfobromophthalein ```
Ferric chloride
153
``` Substances responsible for the normal odor of urine are * 1/1 Urochrome Volatile acids Urinod Both urinod & volatile acids ```
Both urinod & volatile acids
154
``` In galactokinase deficiency, galactose cannot be converted to glucose. From what sugar was the galactose that appears in the urine derived? * 1/1 Sucrose Maltose Lactose Starch ```
Lactose
155
``` An instrumental method for measuring urine pH is * Litmus paper Reagent strip pH electrode Spectrophotemetric method ```
pH electrode
156
``` The most abundant among these organic substances in the urine is * 1/1 Beta-hydroxybutyric acid Acetone Diacetic acid Urea ```
Urea
157
``` Which of the following compound would indicate pyuria? * 1/1 Urobilin Indican Nitrite Leukocyte esterase ```
Leukocyte esterase
158
``` What apparatus is required to detect the lavender to violet fluorescence of porphyrins after acidification of urine sample and addition of glacial acetic acid : ethyl acetate mixture? * 1/1 Microscope TS meter Wood's lamp UV light ```
Wood's lamp
159
``` A positive nitrite test indicates * 1/1 Bacteriuria Cylindruria Pyuria Crystalluria ```
Bacteriuria
160
Which tasks are NOT part of the urinalysis proper? * 6/6 checking for transport delays checking for calculi checking for pre-analytical storage conditions checking for container leakage checking for signs of urinary contamination checking for storage condition of the dipstick checking for the urine volume & character checking for the appropriateness of the sample to the requested test checking for the osmolality checking for the preservative used correcting for the specific gravity based on temperature centrifugation of the urine
checking for transport delays checking for pre-analytical storage conditions checking for container leakage checking for signs of urinary contamination checking for the appropriateness of the sample to the requested test checking for the preservative used
161
``` Which physical property of urine CAN be measured using dry chemistry? * 1/1 Specific gravity Urinary pH Urine character Osmolality Both specific gravity & pH ```
Specific gravity
162
``` Which tests can be done macroscopically? * 1/1 cylindruria hematuria pyuria crystalluria specific gravity ```
specific gravity
163
``` Which of the following is not a heme compound? * 1/1 Bilirubin Myoglobin Hemoglobin Porphyrinuria ```
Porphyrinuria
164
``` Which of the following compound would inidicate pyuria * 1/1 Urobilin Indican Nitrite Leukocyte esterase ```
Leukocyte esterase
165
``` Which of the following parts of the genitourinary tract are found both in the renal cortex & renal medulla? * 5/5 glomerulus vasa recta DCT loop of Henle PCT afferent arteriole Bowman's capsule peritubular capillaries juxta glomerular apparatus collecting ducts ```
``` vasa recta DCT PCT peritubular capillaries collecting ducts ```
166
``` Which part of the genitourinary tract whose function can be tested via the osmolality test? * 2/2 PCT glomerulus DCT collecting ducts loop of Henle ```
collecting ducts | loop of Henle
167
``` C-Stix reagent strips are impregnated with buffered phosphomolybdates to detect * 1/1 Ascorbic acid 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid Citric acid Melanin ```
Ascorbic acid
168
``` A positive result for Rothera's test for urine ketone bodies is * 1/1 Cherry-red Brown Green Purple ```
Purple
169
``` Schwartz-Watson test differentiates between the presence of urobilinogen and * 1/1 Hemoglobin Porphyrins Bilirubin Porphobilinogen ```
Porphobilinogen
170
``` Which of the following parts of the genitourinary system contain the ultrafiltrate? * 4/4 collecting ducts Bowman's capsule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubules afferent arterioles efferent arterioles distal convoluted tubules peritubular capillaries glomerulus arcuate arteries ureters urethra urinary bladder ```
loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubules distal convoluted tubules glomerulus
171
``` The decrease in urine volume seen as a result of excessive water loss from vomiting is * 1/1 Oliguria Anuria Polyuria Hyponuria ```
Oliguria
172
``` The decrease in urine volume seen as a result of excessive water loss from vomiting is * 1/1 Oliguria Anuria Polyuria Hyponuria ```
Oliguria
173
``` Which of the following parts of the genitourinary system conduct urine? * 4/4 collecting ducts Bowman's capsule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubules afferent arterioles efferent arterioles distal convoluted tubules peritubular capillaries glomerulus arcuate arteries ureters urethra urinary bladder ```
collecting ducts ureters urethra urinary bladder
174
``` Which pathologic condition would cause a positive Acetest * 1/1 Diabetes mellitus Nephrotic syndrome Diabetes insipidus High fat diet ```
Diabetes mellitus
175
``` Cancers in the genitourinary tract can be better diagnosed using: * 3/3 Wet urinalysis Dry chemistry Cytodiagnostic urinalysis Flow cytometry Image cytometry & DNA analysis Conventional urine cytology Urine microbiology ```
Flow cytometry Image cytometry & DNA analysis Conventional urine cytology
176
``` The hormone that first responds to acute blood loss is the * 1/1 Eryhtropoietin Activated vitamin D3 Renin Antidiuretic hormone ```
Eryhtropoietin
177
Which statement regarding protein testing is NOT TRUE? * 1/1 Reagent strips are not sensitive in measuring globulins but sensitive to albumin Both albumin and globulins can be precipitated using SSA and TCA Reagent strips can be used in assessing the degree of proteinuria Both reagent strips and SSA and TCA methods are for urine protein screening
Reagent strips can be used in assessing the degree of proteinuria
178
Which of the following should NOT be done during multi-parameter reagent strip testing? * 6/6 test urine as soon as possible after receipt and interpret at the same time test using a well-mixed centrifuged urine sample dip reagent strip into the urine within a few seconds allow the reagents to run together drain excess urine off by blotting the reagent pads on an absorbent paper refrigerated urine samples can be tested right away
test urine as soon as possible after receipt and interpret at the same time test using a well-mixed centrifuged urine sample dip reagent strip into the urine within a few seconds allow the reagents to run together drain excess urine off by blotting the reagent pads on an absorbent paper refrigerated urine samples can be tested right away
179
``` In the tubular cells, the passing filtrate acquire hydrogen ions in exchange for * 1/1 Ammonium ions Bicarbonate ions Sodium ions Chloride ions ```
Sodium ions
180
``` Ehrlich's aldehyde reaction is the formation of reddish-brown color due to * 1/1 Urobilinogen Nitrite Bilirubin Leukocyte esterase ```
Urobilinogen
181
``` O-toluidine is the chromogen used in which reagent strip for glucose * 1/1 Clinistix Chemstrip-G Multistix Clinitest ```
Clinistix
182
``` Which tests are tested best using unspun urine? * 3/3 isosthenuria crystalluria urine character assessment uristix hematuria cylindruria nocturia ```
urine character assessment uristix nocturia
183
``` Which urine physical test is greatly associated with hematuria? * 1/1 Clear red urine Smoky red urine Amber urine Green urine ```
Smoky red urine
184
``` The chemical test for urine calcium determination is * 1/1 Sulkowitch test Obermeyer's test Fantus test Hay's test ```
Sulkowitch test
185
``` The best urine sample for detection of bacterial presence in urine is * 1/1 12-hour collection clean freshly collected first morning 24-hour urine midstream random urine ```
clean freshly collected first morning
186
``` A positive leukocyte esterase test indicates * 1/1 Bacteriuria Cylindruria Pyuria Crystalluria ```
Pyuria
187
``` Which of the following has a peroxidase-like activity * 1/1 Hexokinase Myoglobin Heme Hydrogen peroxide ```
Heme
188
``` The Uristix reagent strip can detect * 1/1 Glucose only Glucose and protein only Protein only Glucose and Protein among others ```
Glucose and protein only
189
``` The protein uromucoid is secreted by the cells in the distal tubular cells and ascending loop of Henle. It is highly associated with cast formation. It is also referred to as the * 1/1 Bence Jones protein Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein Retinol-binding protein Immunoglobulin light chains ```
Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein
190
``` Diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed via: * 1/1 Wet urinalysis Dry chemistry Both Wet urinalysis & Dry chemistr ```
Wet urinalysis
191
``` Defects in the sythesis of heme moiety of hemoglobin would cause * 1/1 Lead poisoning in vitro hemolysis porphyrias hemorrhagic fever ```
porphyrias
192
``` What organic substances are products of incomplete lipid metabolism? * 1/1 Free fatty acids Ketone bodies Bile pigments Porphyrin ```
Ketone bodies
193
``` Which test is used to screen reducing sugar? * Ehrlich's test Rubner's test Hoesch's test Gerhardt's test ```
Rubner's test
194
``` Standard body fluids include which 4 among the choices? * 4/4 Serum Synovial fluid Semen Sputum Plasma Sweat Saliva Urine Cerebrospinal fluid ```
Serum Plasma Urine Cerebrospinal fluid
195
``` The ability of the kidney to maintain hydrogen ion concentration in the plasma and ECF is tested via * 1/1 pH Specific gravity Protein Volume ```
pH
196
Which of the following parts of the genitourinary tract are NOT found in the renal cortex?
loop of Henle
197
``` Which of the following parts of the genitourinary system conduct blood? collecting ducts Bowman's capsule loop of Henle proximal convoluted tubules afferent arterioles efferent arterioles distal convoluted tubules peritubular capillaries glomerulus arcuate arteries ureters urethra urinary bladder ```
``` afferent arterioles efferent arterioles peritubular capillaries glomerulus arcuate arteries ```