general Flashcards
(382 cards)
1
Q
history of acute red eye
A
red pain discharge photophobia flashing lights blurred vision
2
Q
middle ear most important relations
A
middle cranial fossa
internal carotid artery
sigmoid sinus and internal jugular vein
3
Q
stapedius
posterior belly of digastric muscle
stylohyoid muscles are innervated by
A
facial nerve
4
Q
sensation to the middle ear is supplied by
A
jacobsons nerve tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerve
5
Q
pinna upper half is innervated by the
A
mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve
6
Q
pinna lower half is innervated by
A
greater auricular nerve C2/3
7
Q
external auditory canal sensation is supplied by
A
Arnold’s nerve - auricular branch of vagus nerve
8
Q
saccule detects what acceleration in which plane?
A
linear and vertical
9
Q
utricle detects what acceleration in which plane?
A
linear acceleration in a horizontal plane
10
Q
inner layers of the retina are supplied by
A
central retinal artery
11
Q
3,4,5 short posterior ciliary arteries supply the
A
posterior part of the choroid, outer retina
12
Q
the anterior choroid, ciliary body and iris is supplied by
A
long posterior ciliary arteries
13
Q
meningiomas frequently occur along the line of
A
falx, convexity or sphenoid
14
Q
how much CSF produced in a day
A
400-450cc/day
15
Q
epileptic lesions only occur above the
A
tentorium
16
Q
saltatory conduction refers too
A
propagation of action potential along myelinated axons from one node of ranvier to the next
17
Q
area 4
A
primary motor cortex
18
Q
area 44,45
A
Broc’s area of motor speech
19
Q
area’s 3,1,2
A
primary sensory area
20
Q
areas 41,42
A
primary auditory cortex
21
Q
area 17
A
primary visual cortex
22
Q
areas 18,19 is the
A
visual association cortex
23
Q
aphasia means
A
problem with speech
24
Q
broca’s aphasia represents damage to the
A
frontal lobe
25
Wernicke's aphasia represents damage to
temporal lobe
26
Broca's aphasia is
missing small words, aware of difficulties
27
Wernicke's aphasia is
fluent speech with meaningless words, no knowledge of mistakes
28
commissural fibres connect
2 hemispheres
29
association fibres connect
cortexes
30
projection fibres connect
cortex and various sub cortical centres via corona radiata and internal capsule
31
internal capsule is supplied by
middle cerebral artery
32
output regions of the basal ganglia
globus pallidus and substantia nigra
33
input regions of the basal ganglia are
caudate nucleus and putamen
34
basal ganglia receives input from
motor cortex, premotor cortex and thalamus
35
which basal ganglia projects to the thalamus
globus pallidus
36
75% of strokes occur in people over the age of
>65
37
how many patients die within a year of a stroke
1/3rd
38
what percentage of strokes are ischaemic?
85%
39
ACA occlusion
contralateral paralysis of foot and leg, sensory loss over foot and leg, impairment of gait and stance
40
MCA occlusion
contralateral paralysis of face/arm/leg with sensory loss and homonymous hemianopia. gaze paralysis to opposite side, aphasia if on dominant side
41
Anosagnosia meaning
denial of hemiplegia
42
prosopagnosia meaning
failure to recognise faces
43
lacunar stroke syndromes
pure motor stroke
pure sensory
dysarthria
ataxic hemiparesis
44
posterior circulation symptoms
coma, vertigo, nausea, vomiting, cranial nerve palsies, ataxia, hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, crossed sensori-motor deficit, visual field deficits.
45
```
IV TPA <3h
IV TPA 3-4.5h
stroke units
aspirin
thromboectomy
which has the highest NNT?
```
thrombectomy
46
thrombectomy NNT
4-8
47
aspirin NNT
111
48
exclusion criteria for IV TPA
```
blood on CT
recent surgery
recent bleeding
coagulation
BP >185 systolic >110 diastolic
glucose <2.8 or >22mmol/L
```
49
ischaemia occurs at which blood flow rate
20mL/100g/minute
50
normal cerebral blood flow average is
55-60mL/100g per minute
51
equation for calculating CPP is
CPP=MAP-ICP
52
MAP is equal to
DP+1/3PP or 2/3DP + 1/3SP
53
CPP range is
50-150mm Hg
54
factors that influence cerebral blood flow
CPP
conc. of arterial CO2
arterial PO2
55
carbon dioxide influence on cerebrovascular blood flow is
dilatation and inhibit autoregulation
56
compliance equation
dV / dP
57
frontal lobe periventricular function
gait
58
frontal lobe paracentral lobule function
bladder control
59
astereognosis refers to the
inability to identify an object by active touch of the hands without sensory input
60
dysgraphesthesia refer to
inability to recognise writing on the skin by pure touch sensation
61
agraphia refers to
inability to communicate through writing
62
finger anomia
inability to recognise name or fingers
63
apraxia refers to
difficulty with motor planning when performing tasks and movement
64
cerebellum damage DANISH P
```
dysdiadochokinesia
ataxia
nystagmus
intention tremor
slurred speech
hypotonia
past pointing
```
65
dysdiadochokinesia refers to
inability to perform rapid alternating movements
66
hypotonia refers to
floppy baby syndrome
67
EMG stands for
electromyography
68
EMG investigates
peripheral nerve and muscle problems
69
EEG investigates
electrical activity within the brain
70
evoked potentials investigate
visual and somatosensory in central pathways
71
GCS eye opening spontaneous score
4
72
GCS verbal response incomprehensible score
2
73
GCS motor response withdrawing from pain score
4
74
GCS eye opening to pain score
2
75
GCS verbal response confused score
4
76
GCS best motor response extending to pain
2
77
GCS best verbal response score inappropriate words
3
78
GCS motor response flexing to pain score
3
79
GCS eye opening to speech
3
80
pupillary reactions cranial nerves
2 + 3
81
corneal response cranial nerves
5 + 7
82
spontaneous eye movement cranial nerves
3, 4, 6
83
oculocephalic responses
3, 4, 6, 8
84
oculovestibular responses
3, 4, 6, 8
85
respiratory pattern
medullary centre
86
coma without focal or lateralising signs and without meningism causes
anoxic, metabolic, intoxication, systemic infection, hyper/hypothermia, epilepsy
87
investigations for coma with lateralizing signs or menigism
toxicology, blood sugar, electrolytes, hepatic or renal function, acid base assessment, blood pressure, CO
88
coma without focal or lateralising signs but with menigism causes
subarachnoid haemorrhage, meningitis, encephalitis
89
coma without focal or lateralising signs but with menigism investigations
CT, lumbar puncture
90
Coma with focal brainstem or lateralising cerebral signs
cerebral tumour, cerebral haemorrhage, cerebral infarction, cerebral abscess
91
Coma with focal brainstem or lateralising cerebral signs investigations
CT/MRI then a metabolic screen, lumbar puncture, EEG
92
40% of coma's are due to (>5hrs)
drug ingestion +/-alcohol
93
factors affecting coma outcome
```
age
cause
depth
duration
brain stem reflexes
```
94
which is the most important prognostic factor
brain stem reflexes
95
what is the percentage of recovery in coma
15% for longer than 6 hours
96
subdural haematoma forms what shape on a CT
convex
97
extradural haematoma forms what shape on a ct
concave/convex
98
2nd most common global cause of blindness
Glaucoma
99
presence of what autoimmune disease increases risk to anterior uveitis
HLA-B27
100
mimics of dementia are
hydrocephalus
tumour
depression
101
treatable causes of dementia
vitamin deficiency B12
endocrine thyroid disease
infective HIV syphilis
102
rapid progression with myoclonus dementia indicates
CJD
103
how many are dead or disabled at 10 years
60-90%
104
non-drug induced side effects of PD
```
Depression
dementia
autonomic
speech, swallow
balance
```
105
drug therapy of PD complications
motor fluctuations
dyskinesias
psychiatric
106
craniorachischisis refers to
failure of neural tube closure along the entire neuroaxis
107
myotomes C5 is for
elbow flexors
108
myotomes C6 is for
wrist extensors
109
myotomes C7 is for
elbow extensor
110
myotome C8 is for
finger extensor
111
myotome T1 is for
intrinsic hand muscles
112
myelopathy
neurological deficit due to compression of spinal cord
113
radiculopathy stands for
compression of nerve root leading to dermatomal and mytomal deficits
114
cervical spondylosis stands for
degenerative changes in cervical spin leading to compression
115
epidural abscess organisms
staph aureus, streptococcus, e coli
116
optic nerve tests
visual acuity, fields, pupillary reactions, fundoscopy, colour vision
117
tests for 3, 4, 6 CN
ptosis, pupils, pupillary reactions, eye movements
118
3+4 CN is located nuclei In the
mid brain
119
5 + 6 + 7 is located nuclei In the CN
PONS
120
8 CN nuclei location
pontomedullary
121
9, 10, 11, 12 nuclei is located in
medulla
122
optic neuritis signs
```
monocular visual loss
pain on eye movement
reduced visual acuity
reduced colour vision
optic disc may be swollen
MS
```
123
hypothalamus secretes what for wakefulness
orexin (hypocretin)
124
SCN stands for
suprachiasmatic nuclei
125
stimulation of the Suprachiasmatic nuclei stimulates
release of melatonin from the pineal gland and sleepiness
126
what percentage of sleep is REM
25%
127
after first seizure and a patient has normal investigations they may drive again after
6 months
128
after a first seizure and a patient has normal investigations they may drive a HGV or a PSV after
5 years If normal investigations and no anti-epileptic meds
129
an epileptic seizure is
intermittent stereotyped disturbance of consciousness behaviour, emotion, motor function or sensation from abnormal neuronal discharges
130
primary generalised epilepsy tend to arise before what age?
25 years
131
a focal partial epilepsy occurs at what age?
any age
132
focal onset epilepsy patients under 50 require a
MRI
133
epileptic medication side effects of sodium valproate
tremor, weight gain, ataxia, nausea, drowsiness, transient hair loss, pancreatitis, hepatitis
134
epileptic medication side effects of carbamazepine
ataxia, drowsiness, nystagmus, blurred vision, low serum sodium levels, skin rash.
135
epileptic medication lamotrigine side effects
skin rash, difficulty sleeping
136
epileptic medication levetiracetam side effects
irritability, depression
137
epileptic medication topiramate side effects
weight loss, word-finding difficulties, tingling hands and feet
138
epileptic medication zonisamide side effects
bowel upset, cognitive problems
139
epileptic medication lacosamide side effects
dizziness
140
epileptic medication pregabalin side effects
weight gain
141
epileptic medication vigabatrin side effects
behavioural problems and visual field defects
142
epileptic patients can hold a group 1 licence after
seizure free for a year, or only night time seizures,
143
status epileptics is a tonic-clonic seizure lasting longer than
30 minutes
144
proximal shoulder muscles are mapped to spatially to
medial motorneurones
145
distal finger muscles are mapped spatially to
lateral motorneurones
146
a monosynapic reflex name
stretch reflex
147
in an inverse stretch reflex what sensory nerve travels from GTO
1b
148
history in functional neurology symptoms
```
disability
onset and course
timeline
dissociative symptoms
illness beliefs
social
```
149
functional symtpoms in neurology
```
incosistency
absent signs of disease
eye movements, convergent spasm
tremor that dissapears
paralysis
fixed dystonia, comples regional pain
```
150
Hoover's sign is
hip's extension is weak when tested directly. Hip extension is normal when the patient is asked to flex the opposite hip
functional weakness
151
what percentage of headaches are primary
90%
152
abortive treatment to for headaches should be limtied to how many days a month
20 days per month
153
aura with migraines effect what percentage of sufferers
33%
154
duration of a typical migraine aura
15-60 minutes
155
chronic migraine is defined as occuring longer than how many days a month
>15 on which >8 have to be migraine for more than 3 months
156
onset time of a cluster headache
9 minutes
157
duration of a cluster headache
15 minutes to 3 hours
158
paroxysmal hemicrania frequency of attack
1-40
159
duration of attack with a paroxysmal hemicrania headaches
2-30mins
160
duration of SUNCT headache attack
5-240 seconds
161
attack frequency of a SUNCT headache
3-200
162
trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias types of headaches
cluster headache, Paroxysmal, SUNCT
163
what percentage of paroxysmal hemicrania have chronic attacks
80%
164
paroxysmal hemicrania percentage of suferrers who are restless and agitatetd
50%
165
what percentage of paroxysmal hemicrania attacks stimulated by bending/rotating the head
10%
166
differential diagnosis for thunderclap headache
primary headache, subarachnoid, intercerebral haemorrhage, TIA/stroke, thrombosis, meningitis, pituitary apoplexy, intracranial hypotension
167
what number of patients with a thunderclap headaches have a SAH
1 in 10
168
CSF protein consituents (mg/l)
300
169
glucose CSF constiuents mg/dl
40-80
170
total volume of CSF
150ml
171
congenital aetiology of hydrocephalus
chiari malformation
aqueductal stenosis
dandy-walker malformation
172
acquired aetiology of hydrocephalus
```
meningitis
post-haemorrhagic
neoplastic
post op
cerebellar stroke
post traumatic
```
173
Perinaud's syndrome signs
sunsetting
convergent nystagmus
eyelid retraction
174
protein contents of CSF in meningitis
>1g/l
175
GCS <14 in what percentage of meningitis cases?
69%
176
petechial skin rash is characteristic in what?
meningitis
177
infective differential diagnosis in meningitis
bacterial, viral, fungal
178
the inflammatory differential diagnosis for meningitis
sarcoidosis
179
drug induced differential diagnosis for meningitis
NSAIDS, IVIG
180
malignant differential diagnosis for meninigitis
metastatic, haematological
181
bacterial causes of meningitis
```
neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
```
182
viral causes of meningitis
enteroviruses
183
flu-like prodrome for encephalitis normally lasts for
4-10 days
184
encephalitis differential diagnosis infective
viral
185
encephalitis differential diagnosis inflammatory
limbic encephalitis, ADEM, anti VGKC, anti NMDA receptor
186
encephalitis differential diagnosis metabolic
hepatic, uraemic, hyperglycaemic
187
encephalitis differential diagnosis malignant
metastatic, paraneoplastic
188
indications for a CT scan before a lumbar puncture
```
focal neurological deficit
new onset seizures
papilloedema
abnormal level of consciousness GCS <10
severe immunocompromised state
```
189
contraindictions for a lumbar puncture
focal symptoms suggesting a focal brain mass
| reduced conscious levels suggests intracranial pressur
190
herpes simplex virus remains latent where
trigeminal, or sacral gangl
191
differential diagnosis for brain abcess and empyema
focal lesion, tumour
| subdural haematoma
192
streptococci in what percentage of cases in brain abscess
70%
193
what percentage of brain abcesses contain anaerobes?
40-100%
194
HIV indicator illnesses in the brain
cerebral toxoplasmosis
aseptic meningitis
primary cerebral lymphoma
cerebral abscess
cryptococcal meningitis
space occupying lesion
dementia
leucoencephalopathy
195
brain infections in HIV patients with low CD4 counts
```
cryptococcus neoformans
toxoplasma gondii
progressive multifocal leukonecephalopathy (PML)
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
HIV encephalopathy (dementia)
```
196
lyme disease caustive agent bacteria
spirochaete Borrelia Burgdorferi
197
the early localised infection in stage 1 of Lyme disease lasts for
1-30 days
198
what percentage of stage 1 lyme disease suffer from a flu like symptoms for a week?
50%
199
polioviruses are all what group of viruses
enterovirsues
200
syphilis causitive agent bacteria
Trepomena pallidum
201
leptospirosis causitive agent bacteria
leptospira interrogans
202
tetanus infective agent
clostridium tetani
203
risus sardonicus stands for
tetanus rigidity and spams
204
clostridium tetani in tetanus is what sort of bacteria
anaerobic gram positive bacillus, spore forming
205
differential diagnosis to sporadic CJD
CNS vasculitis
inflammatory encephalopathies
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Alzheimer's disease with myclonus
206
Cornea layers
epithelium - stratified squamous non-keratinised
Bowman's membrane
stroma
descemet's lay
207
chordoid consists of
fenestrated blood vessels of
208
the lens if a ... what structure
transparent crystalline biconvex
209
the lens is suspended by what from the ciliary body
zonules
210
out of the mucinous layer, aqueous layer and oily layer which one is the most superficial
oily
211
ancilliary tests in loss of vision are
Amsler chart, visual field assessment, flurescein angiography, optical coher and colour vision
212
what percentage of age related macular degeneration is dry AMD
90%
213
anterograde amnesia refers to
cannot form new memories
214
retrograde amnesia refers to
cannot access old memories
215
long term potentiation refers to
increased amplitude in graded membrane potential in post synaptic cells inolved in long
216
declarative or explicit memory
abstract memory, episodic, semantic
217
procedural, reflexive, implicit memories
acquired through repetition, motor skills in the cerebellum
218
Korsakoff's syndrome refers to
vitamin B1 deficiency leading to damage in the limbic system, ability to consolidate memory is impaired
219
high level function of stragety is controlled by what structures
association neocortex, basal ganglion
220
middle level function of tactics is controlled by what structures
motor cortex, cerebellum
221
low level function of execution is performed by what structures
brainstem, spinal cord
222
stragety to voluntary motor control refers to
movement to best achieve a goal
223
tactics to voluntary motor control refers to
sequence of spatiotemporal muscle contractions to achieve goal
224
execution to voluntary motor control refers to
activation of motor neuron and interneurone pools
225
lateral pathways control which movements of which muscles
voluntary distal muscles
226
ventromedial pathways control what
posture and locomotion
227
lateral pathways are under what direct control?
direct cortical
228
ventromedial apthways are under what control ?
brain stem
229
2/3rd's of the CST originate in which area's of the frontal motor cortex
areas 4 and 6, rest is somatosensory
230
rubrospinal tract originates where?
red nucelus of the midbrian
231
vestibulospinal tract function is to
stabilise head and neck
232
tectospinal tracts function is to
ensure eyes remain stable as body move
233
the ventromedial pathways are the
pontine and medullary reticulospinal tracts
234
Pre motor area connects which pathway neurones innervating proxismal motor untis
reticulospinal
235
damahe to areas 5 and 7 result in
neglect to contralateral side to the damahe
236
thinking about movement activates which area
area 6
237
basal ganglia loop major subcortical input to area 6 comes from the
ventral lateral nucleus in Dorsal thalamus Vlo
238
corticostriatal pathway is what sort of pathways
multiple parallel pathways with different functions
239
the input zones of the basal ganglia are the
caudate and putamen
240
what sort of neurones are in the putamen and caudate
medium spiny neurones
241
medium spiny neurones in the putamen and caudate receive what sort of cortical inputs?
excitatory glutamatergic cortical inputs
242
the axons in the basal ganglia, putamen and caudate are what sort?
inhibitory GABAergic and project to the globus pallidus and substantia nigra pars reticulata
243
putamen fires before what movement?
limb and trunk movements
244
the caudate fires before what movement?
eyes
245
cortex to putamen pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory
excitatory
246
putamen to globus pallidus pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory
inhibitory
247
globus pallidus to VLo neurones pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory
inhibitory
248
VLo back to SMA pathway is it inhibitory or excitatory
excitatory
249
functional consequence of cortical activation of putamen is
excitation
250
at rest globus pallidus neurones are spontaneously
active and inhibit VLo
251
cortical excitation of the putamen results in a
positive feedback loop focussing on widespread activation of cortical area onto cortical SMA
252
dopamine effects on cortical inputs (direct) and (indirect)
enhances direct, and suppresses indirect
253
cerebellum contains what percentage of total CNS neurones
50%
254
layer 5, areas 4,6 and somatosensory cortex are a part of which huge projection
cortico-ponto-cerebellar
255
how many new cases of MS are in Aberdeen in each year?
50-60
256
female male ratio pathogenesis
2-3:1
257
80% of cases of MS present with what?
relapse
258
differential optic neuritis
```
neuromyelitis optica
sarcoidosis
ischaemic optic neuropathy
toxic /drugs/B12 deficiency
Wegener's granulomatosis
local compression
lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
infection borrelia
```
259
differential for myelitis
```
inflammation
neuromyelitis optica
SLE
sarcoidosis
infection
tumour
paraneoplastic process
stroke
```
260
differential diagnosis for MS
```
acute disseminated encephalomyelitis
auto immune conditions
sarcoidosis
vasculitis
infection
adrenoleukodystrophy
```
261
what percentage of MS is primary progressive
10-`15%
262
relapsing remitting percentage of MS
85%
263
what fraction of MS progression results in being wheelchair bound
1/4
264
good prognostic indicators for MS
female
present with optic neuritis
long interval between 1-2
few relapses in 1st 5 years
265
bad prognostic markers for MS
male
older age
multifocal symptoms and signs
motor symptoms and signs
266
primary progressive MS presents in what decade
5th-6th decade
267
Devic's disease signs
| (neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder
optic neuritis
myelitis
aquaporin-4 antibodies
antibody negative
268
MS relapse often involves what percentage of infection?
25-30%
269
side effects of disease modifying treatment
```
flu
injection reaction
abnormalities of blood count and liver
not a cure
no effect on progression
```
270
muscle disease classification congenital groups
structural
contractile
coupling
energy
271
muscle disease classification congenital structural causes
muscular dystrophy
272
muscle disease classification congenital contractile causes
congenital myopathy
273
muscle disease classification congenital couplings causes
channelopathies
274
muscle disease classification congenital energy causes
enzymes/mitochondria
275
acquired muscles disease classification groups
metabolic
endocrine
inflammatory
iatrogenic
276
acquired muscle disease classification metabolic metabolites causes
Ca, k
277
acquired muscle disease classification iatrogenic medication causes
steroids, statins
278
muscular dystrophies causes (condition names)
```
Duchenne's
Becker's
facioscapulohumeral
myotonic dystrophy
limb-girdle
```
279
channelopathy condition names
```
familial hypokalemic periodic paralysis (CA, NA, K)
hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (NA)
paramyotonia congenita(NA)
myotonia
congenita (CL)
```
280
generalised peripheral neuropathy causes
hereditary, metabolic, toxic drug, infectious lyme, HIV, leprosy, malignancy paraneoplastic, inflammatory
281
acute generalised peripheral neuropathy is called
guillian barre syndrome
282
chronic generalised peripheral neuropathy is called
chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
283
prognosis percentage of mortality of motor neurone disease
50% within 14 months
284
groups of neurotransmitters
acetylcholine, monoamines, amino acids, purines, neuropeptides, NO
285
monoamines neurotransmitters
noradrenaline
dopamine
serotonin
286
amino acid neurotransmitters
glutamate
GABA
glycine
287
purine neurotransmitters
ATP
| adenosine
288
neuropeptide neurotransmitters
endorphins
CCK
substance P
289
dopamine receptor is
adenylate cyclase metabotropic
290
dopamine is broken down into
homovanillic acid
291
nociception is conducted along which fibers
A-delta
| C - fibers
292
descending pain pathway is through the
periaqueductal grey
293
allodynia refers to
decreased threshold for response
294
hyperalgesia refers to
exaggerated response to normal and supranormal stimuli
295
neuropathic pain is initiated by dysfunction where
somatosensory nervous system
296
indications for CT
head trauma, stroke, thunderclap headache, cancer, hydrocephalus, haemorrhage
297
indications for MRI
demyelination, CNS tumours, spine, TIA, epilepsy, paediatric neurology, headache
298
contraindications for a MRI scan
cardiac pacemakers, metallic implants, claustrophobia, pregnancy, tattoos
299
PET scans are used for
tumour, inflammation and infection glucose metabolism
300
uncal herniation is caused by
cerebrum moves inferiorly over edge of tentorium
301
metastatic intracranial tumour sources
breast, lung, kidney, colon, melanoma
302
adults CNS tumour occur above
tentorium
303
children CNS tumour occur below
tentorium
304
Glioma characteristics
disuse edges
| no metastatic
305
meningioma arise from what cells
arachnocytes
306
CNS lymphoma is normally what type of cell
diffuse large B cell lymphoma
307
CNS lymphoma is an example of what neoplasm
high grade
308
hypotension results in what sort of pattern of interrupted blood supply
watershed infarction
309
cardiac arrest results in what sort of pattern interrupted blood supply
cortical infarction
310
what number of 100,00 die from head injuries
10
311
secondary injuries of head injury
hypotension
hypoxia
infection
haematoma
312
complications of a head injury
```
disability
epilepsy
infection
psychiatric illness
haemorrhage
dementia
fatality
```
313
skull fracture types
```
linear
depressed
fragmented mosaic
ring
contre coup
```
314
ring fractures are caused by and result in
foramen magnum ring from a fall by height
315
service definition of rehabilitation
use of all means to minimise the impact of disabling conditions and to assist people with activity limitation to achieve their desired level of autonomy and participation in society
316
A beta fibres are what sort of fibres
large myelinated
317
speed of large myelinated A beta fibres (m/s)
30-70
318
large myelinated A beta fibres functions
touch, pressure, vibration
319
A delta fibres are what sort of fibres
small myelinated
320
speed of A delta small fibres myelinated (m/s)
5-30
321
A delta small fibres myelinated functions
cold "fast", pain, pressure
322
C fibres are what sort of fibres
unmyelinated fibres
323
C fibres unmyelinated speeds (m/s)
0.5-2
324
C fibres unmyelinated functions
slow, pain
325
proprioception is mediated by
A alpha and A beta
326
A alpha and A beta fibres are what class of sensory fibres
mechanoreceptive
327
A delta and C fibres are what kind of fibres
thermoreceptive, nociceptive
328
signal transduction in nociception is activated by
low pH, heat, local chemical mediators; bradykinin, histamine, prostaglandins
329
two internal carotid arteries enter the skull through
carotid canal (foramen Lacerum)
330
medulla oblongata surface features
pyramids and decussation
olives laterally
connected to cerebellum by inferior cerebral peduncle CN; 9, 10, 11, 12
331
medulla white tracts
pyramidal, medial lemniscus, inferior cerebellar peduncle
332
medulla grey matter
```
cranial n nuclei and inferior olivary nucleus
nuclei of reticular formation (vital)
sensory nuclei (gracile and cuneate)
```
333
Pons surface features
middle cerebellar peduncle
| CN; 5, 6, 7, 8
334
pons section white matter
middle cerebellar peduncle
medial lemniscus sensory
pyramidal tract (motor)
335
pons grey matter
cranial n. nuclei
pontine nuclei
nucelii of reticular formation
336
midbrain surface features
cerebral peduncle
superior cerebellar peduncle
copora quadrigemina (S+I colliculus)
CN 4 +3
337
midbrain grey matter and nucleus for which CN
periaqueductal and 3 + 4
338
3 semi circular canals connect to the
saccule
339
otolith organs are
utricle and saccule
340
at the base of the bony canals, the ampulla contains what sensory receptors
crista
341
the cristae , the sensory receptors in the ampulla contains a gelatinous flexible structure called
cupula
342
the larger cilia hair cells are called
kinocilium
343
smaller hair cilia cells are called
stereocilia
344
distortion of the cilia away from the kinocilium leads to
hyperpolarisation
345
sensory apparatus of the utricle and saccule are known as
maculae
346
the maculae on the utricle is orientated on what plane?
horizontal
347
the maculae on the saccule is located on what plane?
vertical plane
348
vestibular system reflexes
tonic labyrinthine reflexes - head to body
dynamic righting reflexes - rapid postural adjustment
vestibulo-ocular reflexes
349
types of vestibulo-ocular reflexes
static reflex
| dynamic vestibular nystagmus
350
COWS nystagmus
COLD OPPOSITE, WARM SAME
351
kinetosis refers to
motion sickness
352
rhodopsin is what sort of protein
integral transmembrane helical protein
353
when light falls on retinal is isomerises into what
cis to trans
354
chromophore resting in opsin is produced from what
vitamin A
355
Bitot's spots are a sign of what
vitamin A deficiency
356
vitamin A deficiency leads to what in the cornea
corneal melting
357
refractive errors
myopia
hyperopia
astigmatism
presbyopia
358
myopia refers to
short sighted
359
hyperopia refers to
long sighted
360
astigmatism refers to
non-spherical curvature of cornea
361
presbyopia refers to
long sightedness of age
362
myopia requires what lenses
biconcave
363
hyperopia requires what lenses
biconvex
364
astigmatism requires what lenses
cylindrical glasses
365
right optic nerve damaged
blindness in one eye
366
optic chiasma disrupted in middle
bitemporal hemianopia
367
right optic tract is damaged
contralateral homonymous hemianopia
368
optic radiation is damaged
contralateral homonymous hemianopia
369
LR abducts causes SR and IR to
SR elevates
| IR depresses
370
MR adducts causing Sr and IR to
SR intorsion
| IR extorsion
371
eyeball adduction SO and IO
SO depression
| IO elevation
372
eyeball abducted SO and IO
SO intorsion
| IO extorsion
373
RADSIN
Recti ADductors, Superiors, INtortors
374
SO 123 actions
1 intorsion
2 depression
3 abduction
375
IO 123 actions
1 extorsion
2 elevation
3 abduction
376
IR 123 actions
1 depression
2 adduction
3 extorsion
377
SR 123 actions
1 - elevation
2 adduction
3 intorsion
378
MR action
adduction
379
LR action
abduction
380
amblyopia refers to
lazy eye
381
diplopia refers to
double vision
382
horner's syndrome signs
ptosis
miosis
anhidrosis
