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Genetics Flashcards

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1
Q

Mendelian genetics is also called ____ to distinguish it from another branch of biology known as ____

A

classical genetics; molecular genetics

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2
Q

How many alleles are there for earlobe construction?

A

two: attached and free earlobe

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3
Q

The set of all genes that specify an organism’s traits is known as the organism’s ____

A

genome

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4
Q

The genome for a human cell consists of about ____ genes

A

20000

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5
Q

The expression of the genes is referred to as the _____ of a living thing

A

phenotype

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6
Q

How many genotypes and phenotypes are possible for earlobe shape?

A

3 genotypes, 2 phenotypes (attached and free earlobes)

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7
Q

Which earlobe shape allele is dominant in humans?

A

Free earlobes

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8
Q

The seven traits Mendel studied in pea plants?

A

plant height, pod shape, pod color, seed shape, seed color, flower color, flower location

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9
Q

Pea plants pollinate themselves and therefore, over many generations, pea plants develop individuals that are homozygous for particular characteristics. These populations are known as ___.

A

pure lines

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10
Q

Mendel’s law: When an organism has two different alleles for a trait, one allele dominates.

A

Mendel’s law of dominance

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11
Q

Mendel’s law: During gamete formation by a diploid organism, the pair of alleles for a particular trait separate, or segregate, during the formation of the gametes (as in meiosis).

A

Mendel’s law of segregation

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12
Q

Mendel’s law: The members of a gene pair separate from one another independent of the members of other gene pairs. (These separations occur in the formation of gametes during meiosis).

A

Mendel’s law of independent assortment

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13
Q

The possible gametes produced by the female are indicated at the ____ of the Punnett square, while the possible gametes produced by the male are indicated at the ____ of the square.

A

top (female); left (male)

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14
Q

____ is used to determine the probabilities of the genotypes and phenotypes in the offspring of a genetic cross.

A

Punnett square

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15
Q

Five genetic observations that cannot be explained and predicted based on Mendelian genetics:

A

Incomplete dominance, Multiple alleles, Polygenic inheritance, Gene linkage, Sex linkage

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16
Q

Incomplete dominance is seen in ____

A

snapdragon flower colour (white and red alleles)

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17
Q

Example of trait with multiple alleles

A

blood type

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18
Q

Some characteristics are determined by an interaction of genes on several chromosomes or at several places on a chromosome, this is called ____

A

polygenic inheritance

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19
Q

Examples of traits with polygenic inheritance

A

Human skin colour, Height

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20
Q

Large number of genes are commonly inherited together as if they are located on the same chromosome; they remain together even tho crossing over occurs in meiosis, this is termed ___

A

Gene linkage

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21
Q

Two examples of traits with sex-linkage.

A

Colour blindness, Haemophilia

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22
Q

Who discovered DNA structure?

A

Watson and Crick

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23
Q

DNA consists of _____, they twist around one another to form a double helix (resembles a spiral staircase).

A

two long nucleotide chains

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24
Q

Purine bases and pyrimidines have how many rings of carbon and nitrogen atoms, pyrimidines?

A

Two fused rings in purines, only one in pyrimidine

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25
The phosphate group of DNA is derived from a molecule of ____.
phosphoric acid
26
The phosphate group connects the ____ molecules to one another in the nucleotide chain.
deoxyribose
27
Protein synthesis occurs constantly in the cell. T or F
False, it occurs at intervals followed by periods of genetic “silence.”
28
Useless bits of nucleic acid in mRNA molecule that are removed in the production of the final mRNA molecule are called _____
introns
29
The remaining pieces of mRNA after removal of the useless bits that are then spliced to form the final mRNA molecule are called ____
exons
30
Through removal of ____ and retention of ____, the cell can alter the message received from the DNA and control gene expression.
introns; exons
31
In bacteria, genes have been identified as ___, ____ and ____ and the three units form a functional unit called ____
structural genes, regulator genes, control genes; Operon
32
When lactose is present in certain bacteria, ____ is needed to break down the lactose.
bacterial synthesis
33
Lactose acts as ____ molecule
an inducer molecule
34
In the absence of lactose, a regulator gene produces ____ which binds to a control region called the ______
repressor; operator
35
The binding of repressor to operator in the absence of lactose prevents ____
structural genes from encoding the enzyme for lactose digestion
36
When lactose is present, it binds to the _____ and thereby removes the ____ at the ____. With the operator site free, the structural genes are free to produce their ____.
repressor; repressor at the operator site; lactose-digesting enzyme
37
Examples of ncRNAs that control mRNA transcription.
ncRNA (non-coding RNAs): microRNA (miRNA), small interfering RNA (siRNA)
38
____ are small, single-stranded RNA molecules that, along with associated proteins, bind to complementary sequences in certain mRNA molecules.
microRNAs or miRNAs
39
miRNA block translation of the mRNA by either ______, or by _____.
physically preventing the ribosome from binding; causing the mRNA to degrade
40
_____ is a means of disabling a gene by introducing siRNAs into a cell.
RNA interference (RNAi)
41
Possibly half of human genes are regulated by ____
miRNA
42
DNA is condensed and packaged with histone proteins into a complex known as ___
chromatin
43
Two functions of compact structure of chromatin.
Helps DNA fit into the nucleus and provides opportunity for gene regulation
44
In order for a gene to be accessed by the transcriptional machinery, it must be _____ from the histone proteins.
“unwound”
45
Unwounding of gene from the histone proteins is facilitated by certain enzymes adding _____ to the histone proteins (process called ____)
acetyl groups (-COCH₃); histone acetylation
46
If a segment of DNA needs to remain unexpressed (such as the inactivated ____), a different set of enzymes will add ____ to certain bases.
mammalian X chromosomes; methyl groups
47
Modification of DNA and its associated histone proteins can be passed on to future generations and thus affect gene expression in progeny, this is called ____
epigenetic inheritance
48
When genes are changed, the DNA becomes "______" – meaning it’s been mixed or altered. The result of this process is _____.
recombinant; recombinant DNA
49
If an organism has extra genes from another organism, it's called ____
transgenic
50
_____ is the study of an organism's entire set of chromosomes, including their function and species evolution.
Genomics
51
The sequencing of the human genome was completed in what year?
2003
52
The Human Genome Project revealed that the human genome contains ____ genes.
only 20,000 to 25,000 genes
53
The sequence data has led to the estimation that only about ___% of the human genome actually encodes functional proteins.
1 percent
54
Gene defects in humans can lead to deficiencies in proteins such as ____, ____, and ____ that may result in problems.
insulin, human growth hormone, Factor VIII
55
Gene defects in humans leading to deficiencies in insulin, human growth hormone, Factor VIII may result in _____, ____ and ____ respectively.
diabetes, dwarfism, and impaired blood clotting
56
For insulin production, how many protein chains are encoded by separate genes in plasmids inserted into bacteria?
two protein chains
57
Three therapeutic proteins that can also be produced by biotechnology
Tissue plasminogen activator TPA, Interferon, An antisense molecule
58
Tissue plasminogen activator TPA is a _____
clot-dissolving protein
59
Interferon is a ____ protein produced in ____
antiviral; E. coli
60
An antisense molecule is a molecule of ____ that reacts with and neutralizes the ____ molecule used in protein synthesis.
RNA; mRNA
61
Vaccines represent another application of ______ technology.
recombinant DNA
62
The hepatitis B vaccine now in use is composed of ____ proteins manufactured by ____ and recombined with _____.
viral; yeast cells; viral genes
63
_____ is a recombinant DNA process in which cells are taken from the patient, altered by adding genes, and replaced in the patient.
Gene therapy
64
Which cells are used in gene therapy and why?
Nonreproductive cells; so there is no carryover of inserted genes to the next generation
65
In the early 1990s, gene therapy was used to correct a deficiency of the enzyme ____
adenosine deaminase (ADA)
66
There are over ____ single-gene defects.
4000
67
_____ refers to the ability to make a genetic replica of a cell (or even an entire organism).
Cloning
68
Making genetic replica of an entire organism is termed
reproductive cloning
69
Interest in cloning is due primarily to its potential to ____
create stem cells
70
____ is a cell that has not yet differentiated and retains the ability to turn into many different tissues.
A stem cell
71
One source of undifferentiated stem cells is from ____
early-stage embryos
72
Adult stem cells are found in a number of tissues, including _____, ____ and _____
dental pulp, bone marrow, and the brain
73
Adult stem cells are not able to _____ and thus are not as beneficial as embryonic stem cells.
differentiate into all cell types
74
What year did researchers announce successful reprogramming of fully differentiated adult cell?
2007
75
_____ cells can do everything an embryonic stem (ES) cell can do without the ethical implications associated with using embryonic cells.
Induced pluripotent stem (IPS)

Embryology (12 decks)

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