Genitourinary/Reproductive System (Exam Two) Flashcards
(105 cards)
1
Q
List the female hormones.
A
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Inhibin
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
2
Q
List the male hormones.
A
- Follicle-stimulating hormone
- Luteinizing hormone
- Testosterone
- Inhibin
3
Q
Which hormones are specific to females?
A
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
4
Q
Which hormones are specific to males?
A
-Testosterone
5
Q
What is included in an obstetrical history?
A
- Gravida
- Para
- Abortions
6
Q
What is gravida?
A
Number of pregnancies regardless of the outcome
7
Q
What is para?
A
-Number of births after 20 weeks gestation regardless if live and stillborn births
8
Q
What is abortion?
A
-Number of pregnancies terminated before 20 weeks gestation regardless if therapeutic or miscarriage
9
Q
A 39 year old female has had five pregnancies: two sets of twins born at 38 and 39 weeks gestation, a single birth born at 32 weeks gestation, a miscarriage at 16 weeks, and one 21-week stillborn delivery. How will the nurse record this information?
A
G5
P4
A1
10
Q
How often should a breast self-examination be performed? At what time of the month should it be performed?
A
- Monthly
- One week after each menstrual period
11
Q
At what age should a women begin to get a yearly mammogram screening?
A
Age 40
12
Q
How often should a testicular self-examination be performed? At what time of the month should it be performed?
A
- Monthly
- After a warm bath or shower
13
Q
What is mastitis? What can it cause if left untreated?
A
- Clogged milk-ducts
- Sepsis
14
Q
What are the risk factors for developing breast cancer?
A
- Estrogen treatment
- Early menarche (menstruation)
- Late menopause
- Late/No pregnancies
- No breastfeeding
15
Q
What are the signs and symptoms of breast cancer?
A
- Lump or thickening
- Dimpling
- Clear or bloody discharge
- Swelling
- Tenderness
- Discoloration
16
Q
What is the best way to prevent breast cancer?
A
Early identification
17
Q
How is breast cancer definitively diagnosed?
A
Biopsy
18
Q
What are the treatment options for breast cancer?
A
- Lumpectomy
- Mastectomy
- Radiation
- Chemotherapy
- Hormonal therapy
- Targeted therapies
19
Q
What is removed during a simple mastectomy?
A
Breast tissue
20
Q
What is removed during a radical mastectomy?
A
All muscle and lymph nodes
21
Q
If a patient presents with a new onset of dysmenorrhea, what should the nurse do?
A
Notify the health care provider
22
Q
If a patient has any noticeable changes in menstruation or presents with any abnormal signs/symptoms, what should they do?
A
Notify the health care provider
23
Q
What is premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A
Combination of symptoms that present in the week or two before a menstruation cycle
24
Q
What is the priority intervention for premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?
A
Limitation of alcohol, caffeine, nicotine, salt, and simple sugars
25
What is premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)?
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) with accompanying signs and symptoms of depression
26
Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is commonly associated with what?
Body dysmorphic disorder
27
What is endometriosis? Is it acute or chronic?
- Endometrial tissue growth outside of the uterus
| - Chronic
28
What are the signs and symptoms of endometriosis?
- Scar tissue
- Infertility
- Pain
- Swelling
- Organ damage
29
What should the nurse closely monitor if a patient has endometriosis?
Use of pain medications
30
What is menopause?
Permanent cessation of menstrual cycle
31
A woman is considered to have reached menopause once she has what?
Gone a full year without a menstrual cycle
32
What are the treatment options available to women in menopause?
- Healthy diet
- Vaginal lubricant (water-soluable)
- Dress in layered clothing
- Calcium/Vitamin D
- Dietary phytoestrogens
33
How would the nurse describe the characteristics of candidiasis to a patient? What causes candidiasis?
- Distinct cottage-cheese appearance
| - Prolonged antibiotic use
34
A patient describes having very foul smelling vaginal discharge that has not gone away after using an OTC medication, the nurse knows the patient most likely has?
Bacterial vaginosis
35
What is toxic shock syndrome?
Systemic infection caused by staphylococcus aureus or streptococcus bacteria
36
What can cause toxic shock syndrome?
- Prolonged or highly absorbent tampon use
| - Other types of vaginal packing
37
What are the signs and symptoms of toxic shock syndrome?
- Redness of palms and soles
- Rash
- Blisters
- Petechiae
- Sore throat
38
A patient in the ER has been diagnosed with toxic shock syndrome, the nurse knows she will need what?
Immediate antibiotic treatment
39
What are the most non-reliable forms of contraceptives?
- Natural family planning
- Lactational amenorrhea
- Coitus interruptus (pulling out)
40
What contraceptive method is used mostly by religious communities or those who do not believe in medicinal forms of contraceptives?
Natural family planning (NFP)
41
What is considered the only true method of sterilization?
Hysterectomy
42
What is a therapeutic abortion?
Scheduled or planned for a medical reason
43
What is a routine abortion?
Elective
44
What are the most common complications post-termination?
- Hemorrhage
| - Infection
45
What is polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)?
Endocrine imbalance with an unknown cause
46
What are the risk factors for developing vulvar cancer?
- STD's
| - Smoking
47
What are the signs and symptoms of vulvar cancer?
- Wart-like growths
- Ulcerations
- White and red patches
- Persistent itching
48
What are the treatment options for vulvar cancer?
Surgery
49
Regarding cervical cancer, what risk factor has began to show an increase in incidence?
HPV
50
What are the signs and symptoms of cervical cancer?
- Asymptomatic
| - Serosanguinous discharge
51
What is Schiller's Test?
- Iodine staining of the cervix to identify cervical cancer
| - Cancer tissue will appear yellowish or white
52
What anatomy must be removed in a patient with ovarian cancer?
- Uterus
- Fallopian tubes
- Ovaries
53
What is the priority nursing intervention regarding post-op care for a hysterectomy patient?
Prevent constipation!
54
What is prostatitis?
Bacterial infection and inflammation of the prostate
55
What are the signs and symptoms of prostatitis?
- Dysuria
- Urine retention
- Pain
- Urgency
- Frequency
56
If a patient with prostate cancer is unable to urinate, this is considered what?
Emergency!
57
What is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
- Increase in the number of cells within the prostate
- Gradual benign growth of prostate
- Begins around age 50
58
What are the signs and symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia?
- Urinary retention
- Dribbling
- Nocturia
- Dysuria
- Urgency
59
What does DRE stand for?
Digital Rectal Exam
60
What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
Watchful waiting
61
What medical procedure is used to relieve benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? What does this procedure do?
- Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)
| - Chips away at the prostate
62
What postoperative care should the nurse provide to a patient who has undergone a TURP procedure?
- Monitor I&Os
- Bladder irrigation
- Monitor clots
- Monitor bleeding
- Encourage fluids
63
The nurse should educate a postoperative TURP patient on what?
- Avoid constipation
- Avoid lifting
- Avoid aspirin and NSAIDS
- Retrograde ejaculation
64
What is the most common cancer among American men?
Prostate Cancer
65
What are the signs and symptoms of prostate cancer?
- Hematuria
- Urinary obstruction
- Urinary retention
66
How are most male genitourinary disorders diagnosed?
-Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)
67
All men over _____ should have a yearly _____.
- 40
| - Digital Rectal Exam (DRE)
68
What is Priapism?
Prolonged painful erection lasting more than four hours
69
What is Phimosis?
Foreskin that cannot be retracted
70
What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with phimosis?
- Educate on proper cleaning techniques
| - Educate on bacterial infection
71
Paraphimosis is a _____ _____.
Surgical emergency!
72
Undescended testes are known as what?
Cryptorchidism
73
Fluid in the scrotal sac is known as what?
Hydrocele
74
Varicose veins of the scrotum is known as what?
Varicocele
75
Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men aged ____ to ____.
15 to 34
76
Is alopecia, or hair loss, a normal sign or symptom caused by cancer?
- No
- Usually autoimmune
- Can be caused by chemotherapy
77
When does a vasectomy become effective?
About three months following surgery
78
What is erectile dysfunction disorder?
Problem obtaining or maintaining erection
79
What are the physical risk factors for developing erectile dysfunction disorder?
- Circulation
- Medications
- Hormone imbalance
- Sleep apnea
80
What are the psychosocial risk factors for developing erectile dysfunction disorder?
- Stress
- Alcohol
- Illegal drugs
- Illness
- Fatigue
81
Infertility is definitively diagnosis when a patient has been what?
Unsuccessful in becoming pregnant for one year of unprotected intercourse
82
Most sexually transmitted infections (STI) are ______.
Not easily detected
83
What is the most common sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
Chlamydia
84
Chlamydia is often a comorbidity with what other infection?
Gonorrhea
85
Chlamydia and gonorrhea can result in what if not treated properly and promptly?
Infertility
86
If a male patient complains of dysuria, they will be tested for both...
- Urinary tract infection (UTI)
| - Sexually transmitted infection (STI)
87
What should the nurse always consider as a differential factor for chronic and unexplained abdomen and pelvic pain?
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
88
Many sexually transmitted infections may present with...
No signs or symptoms
89
If a patient who has chlamydia gives birth, what is the priority nursing intervention for the baby?
Ophthalmic ointment
90
Besides the genital area, where can gonorrhea and chlamydia manifest?
- Throat
| - Eyes
91
Gonorrhea differs from chlamydia in that it will present with what?
Thicker discharge
92
Syphilis is considered what?
- Long standing disease
| - Up to 10-20 years to manifest
93
What are gummas?
Tumors that grow holes in the organs
94
Gummas are associated with what STI? In what stage do they appear?
- Syphilis
| - Tertiary stage
95
Is syphilis always contagious?
Yes
96
Can syphilis be transmitted from mother to baby?
Yes
97
What are the signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis?
- Strawberry cervix
- Foul smelling discharge
- Frothy discharge
- Genital redness and swelling
98
If a pregnant patients presents with a current outbreak of herpes during labor, the nurse knows that?
The baby will be delivered via cesarean section
99
Is there a cure for Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)?
No
100
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) puts the patient at an increased risk for what condition?
Cervical cancer
101
How is HIV transmitted?
- Sexual secretions
- Blood
- Breastmilk
- Other fluids
102
What populations are considered at-risk for HIV?
- Engaging in anal sex
- All females
- High-risk sex practices
103
The nurse should strongly encourage a patient who has an STI to do what?
Notify ALL sexual partners
104
There is no such thing as what?
"Safe sex"
105
The nurse should educate a patient on what regarding sexually transmitted infections?
- Safer sex practices
- Finishing all medications/antibiotics
- Signs and symptoms of complications
