Neurological System (Exam One) Flashcards
1
Q
What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
A
- Central Nervous System
- Peripheral Nervous System
2
Q
What is included in the central nervous system?
A
- Brain
- Spinal cord
3
Q
What is included in the peripheral nervous system?
A
Includes the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
4
Q
What is nerve tissue comprised of?
A
- Neurons
- Support cells
5
Q
List the six different parts of a neuron.
A
- Soma
- Dendrites
- Axon
- Myelin Sheath
- Nodes of Ranvier
- Synaptic Knob
6
Q
What part of the neuron is considered the control center?
A
Soma (cell body)
7
Q
What part of the neuron contains the nucleus?
A
Soma (cell body)
8
Q
What part of the neuron receives transmissions and sends out impulses to other cells in the body?
A
Dendrites
9
Q
What part of the neuron carries nerve signals away from the soma?
A
Axon
10
Q
What part of the neuron encases the axon and increases and conducts speed?
A
Myelin sheath
11
Q
What are the gaps in between the myelin sheath called?
A
Nodes of Ranvier
12
Q
What is present at the end of axon branches?
A
Synaptic knob
13
Q
What do synaptic knobs contain?
A
A neurotransmitter
14
Q
What are the different types of neurons?
A
- Sensory
- Motor
- Interneurons
15
Q
Sensory neurons are responsible for what?
A
- Detecting stimuli
- Sending information about the stimuli to the CNS
16
Q
Motor neurons are responsible for what?
A
Relay messages from the brain to the body so the muscle or gland can respond to the stimulus
17
Q
What do the interneurons do?
A
Connect the incoming sensory messages with the outgoing motor messages
18
Q
What is a nerve?
A
Group of axons and blood vessels wrapped in connective tissue
19
Q
Most nerves are _____.
A
Mixed
20
Q
Where is the spinal cord located?
A
In the vertebral column
21
Q
List the components of the spinal cord.
A
- White matter
- Gray matter
- Epidural space
- Subarachnoid space
- Central canal
- Anterior horn
- Posterior horn
22
Q
List the vertebral column or spinal nerves.
A
- Cervical
- Thoracic
- Lumbar
- Sacral
- Coccygeal
23
Q
How many cervical nerves are there?
A
8
24
Q
How many thoracic nerves are there?
A
12
25
How many lumbar nerves are there?
5
26
How many sacral nerves are there?
5
27
How many coccygeal nerves are there?
1
28
Are reflexes voluntary or involuntary movements?
Involuntary movements
29
What is the largest portion of the brain?
Cerebrum
30
What is the second largest portion of the brain?
Cerebellum
31
What does the brainstem consist of?
- Midbrain
- Pons
- Medulla oblongata
32
What are meninges?
Three layers of connective tissue that cover the central nervous system
33
What is the function of the cerebral spinal fluid?
- Permits exchange of waste and nutrients between blood and neurons
- Shock absorber
34
What is the primary reflex center?
Midbrain
35
What is the primary respiratory center?
Pons
36
The medulla is responsible for what? Give examples.
-Responsible for vital life functions
- Heart rate
- Blood pressure
37
The cerebellum is responsible for what?
- Coordination
- Posture
- Balance
38
What does the hypothalamus control?
Thermoregulation or body temperature
39
The anterior hypothalamus controls heat _____. Give examples of how this mechanism is carried out within the body.
Heat loss
- Sweating
- Vasodilation
40
The posterior hypothalamus controls heat _____. Give examples of how this mechanism is carried out within the body.
Heat production
- Vasoconstriction
- Muscle contraction and shivering
41
List the four different lobes of the brain.
- Frontal lobe
- Temporal lobe
- Occipital lobe
- Parietal lobe
42
What is the name of cranial nerve I?
Olfactory
43
What is the name of cranial nerve II?
Optic
44
What is the name of cranial nerve III?
Oculomotor
45
What is the name of cranial nerve IV?
Trochlear
46
What is the name of cranial nerve V?
Trigeminal
47
What is the name of cranial nerve VI?
Abducens
48
What is the name of cranial nerve VII?
Facial
49
What is the name of cranial nerve VIII?
Vestibulocochlear
50
What is the name of cranial nerve IX?
Glossopharyngeal
51
What is the name of cranial nerve X?
Vagus
52
What is the name of cranial nerve XI?
Accessory
53
What is the name of cranial nerve XII?
Hypoglossal
54
What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
- Sympathetic Nervous System
| - Parasympathetic Nervous System
55
The sympathetic nervous system is also known as what?
Fight-or-flight
56
The parasympathetic nervous system is also known as what?
Rest-or-digest
57
What neurotransmitters are in the sympathetic nervous system?
- Acetylcholine
| - Norepinephrine
58
Are extreme forgetfulness and confusion a normal part of aging?
No
59
Decreased blood flow to brain because of aging causes what?
- Increased syncope
| - Decreased mental function
60
In relation to aging, the deposition of aging pigment lipofuscin in nerve cells and amyloid in blood vessels causes what?
Impairment in cognition, reasoning, judgement, and orientation
61
Decreased norepinephrine due to aging results in what?
Altered sleep patterns
62
Decreased acetylcholine and progressive loss of dendrites due to aging causes what?
Impaired short-term memory
63
A decrease in dopamine due to aging causes what?
- Decreased motor function
| - More accidents and falls
64
Decreased postural stability due to aging leads to what?
More accidents and falls
65
Describe Babinski's sign. List a normal and abnormal sign.
- Firmly stroking sole of foot
- Normal response is flexion of the great toe
- Abnormal if the great toe extends and the other toes fan out (patient >6 months old)
66
Describe Romberg's test.
- Patient stands feet together and eyes closed
- Patient will have minimal swaying in a negative Romberg test
- A patient who sways or leans to one side has a positive Romberg test
67
When is Romberg's test often utilized?
In concussion patients
68
Why is the Glasgow Coma Scale used?
Used to assess the patients level of consciousness
69
Using the Glasgow Coma scale, at what score is the patient considered comatose?
7
70
Using the Glasgow Coma scale, at what score is the patient considered severe?
8 and below
71
A Glasgow Coma scale score of 15 indicates what?
Patient is fully alert and oriented
72
What is decorticate posturing? What does this indicate?
- Flexion of body
| - Indicates significant cerebral impairment
73
What is decerebrate posturing? What does this indicate?
- Extension of body
| - Indicates brainstem damage
74
FOUR Score Coma Scale assesses patients who are in what type of state?
Comatose state
75
What four components are assessed during the FOUR Score Coma scale?
- Eye responses
- Motor responses
- Brainstem reflexes
- Respirations
76
What is anisocoria?
Pupils are unequal in size
77
What is nystagmus? What type of nystagmus is most common?
- Involuntary eye movement
| - Horizontal nystagmus
78
Why is B12 assessed as a neurological diagnostic test?
To rule out fatigue or tiredness
79
Why are hormone levels assessed as a neurological diagnostic test?
To identify problems in the pituitary gland or hypothalamus
80
Why are liver and kidney function assessed as a neurological diagnostic test?
Problems with the brainstem
81
A lumbar puncture is most commonly used to assess what disease?
Meningitis
82
What nursing management should be provided to a post-operative lumbar puncture patient?
- Maintain flat bedrest for 6 to 8 hours
- Encourage fluids
- Monitor puncture site
- Monitor movement, sensation, headache
83
Why should a post-operative patient be kept on flat bedrest for 6 to 8 hours following a lumbar puncture?
Prevent spinal headache
84
What must the nurse assess before obtaining a CT scan with contrast dye?
Assess for shellfish allergy
85
What must the nurse assess before obtaining an MRI?
- Presence of pacemaker
- Metal within the body
* *Absolutely NO metal can enter the machine**
86
What must the nurse assess before obtaining a myelogram with contrast dye?
- Assess for shellfish allergy
| - Assess for history of seizures
87
What does an electroencephalogram (EEG) assess?
Seizure activity
88
What is meningitis? Is it bacterial or viral?
- Infection or inflammation of the brain and spinal cord
| - Can be either bacterial or viral
89
Is viral or bacterial meningitis more common? Is it considered a serious disease?
- Viral meningitis (enterovirus)
| - Rarely considered serious
90
When can brain damage occur with bacterial meningitis?
With the onset of a fever
91
Bacterial meningitis can kill an individual within _____ hours.
24
92
What are the signs and symptoms of meningitis?
- Severe headache
- Nuchal Rigidity
- Positive Kernig's sign
- Positive Brudzinski's sign
93
What is the LPN/RN's responsibility when a lumbar puncture is performed?
Hold the patient in position
94
Why might codeine products be contraindicated in a patient with meningitis?
Codeine may impair neurological assessment
95
What precaution is in place for 24 hours after antibiotics have been administered to a patient with bacterial meningitis?
Droplet isolation
96
What is encephalitis? What might it cause?
- Inflammation of brain tissue
- Cause increased intracranial pressure
- Cause possible herniation of the brain
97
What is the most common cause of encephalitis?
Viruses
98
What particular virus is related to encephalitis? Who will this virus most negatively affect?
- West nile virus
| - Affects infants and children
99
How would the fontanel look in a child who has encephalitis?
Bulging fontanel
100
Increased intracranial pressure results from an increase in what three components?
- Brain
- Blood
- Cerebrospinal fluid
101
What is a classic late sign of increased intracranial pressure?
Cushing's Triad
102
What results if Cushing's Triad is present?
- Increased systolic blood pressure
- Decreased heart rate
- Decreased respirations
103
What are the early signs of increased intracranial pressure?
- Decreased LOC
- Confusion
- Slurred speech
104
What measures prevent increased intracranial pressure?
- HOB at 30 degrees
- Avoid neck and hip flexion
- Prevent strenuous activities
- Promote rest
105
List examples of a primary headache.
- Migraine
- Tension
- Cluster
106
What is a secondary headache?
Caused by trauma, infection, or other disease
107
What education should be provided to a patient who has headaches or seizures?
Keep a diary with trigger, timing, symptoms
108
What are the two classifications of seizures?
- Partial
| - Generalized
109
What is involved in a partial seizure?
- Involves one side of the cerebral cortex
| - Can become generalized
110
What is involved in a generalized seizure?
Involves both sides of the cerebral cortex
111
What is an aura? When does this occur?
- Visual distortion
- Odor
- Sound
- Occurs right before a seizure
112
How long are partial seizures?
Usually < 1 minute
113
How long are complex partial seizures? Will the patient lose consciousness
- 2 to 15 minutes
| - Yes
114
What are the signs and symptoms of absence or petit mal seizures?
Staring
115
What can an electroencephalogram (EEG) tell the nurse about seizure activity?
- Where seizure starts
- Frequency
- Duration
- Presence of asymptomatic seizures
116
The nurse knows they should not restrain a seizure patient because?
It can cause injury to the patient or the nurse
117
What is the priority nursing care for a patient who is actively having a seizure?
- Monitor and maintain airway
- Suction and oxygen
- Observe and document
118
Status epilepticus is considered what?
EMERGENCY!
119
What causes status epilepticus?
Abruptly stopping anti-seizure medication
120
What is the most common cause of traumatic brain injuries?
Motor vehicle accident
121
Describe the acceleration mechanism of injury.
Moving object strikes a stationary head
122
Describe the deceleration mechanism of injury.
Moving head strikes a stationary object
123
Describe the acceleration-deceleration mechanism of injury.
A mobile object strikes a stationary head and then the head strikes a stationary object
124
Describe the rotational mechanism of injury.
- Shifting/shearing of the head
- Results from direct blow
- Results from vehicle getting hit from the side
125
Twisting of the brainstem can cause what?
Loss of consciousness
126
Where does a subdural hematoma occur?
Between the dura and arachnoid space
127
Where does an epidural hematoma occur?
Between the dura and the skull
128
If the patient presents with a hematoma, the nurse knows they need to do what? Why?
- Be prepared to prep the patient for a craniotomy
| - To relieve intracranial pressure
129
What is post-concussion syndrome?
- When the symptoms of a concussion exceed three weeks
| - May last up to 12 months
130
Patients who are ______ with a suspected concussion will require an immediate _______.
- Vomiting
| - CT scan
131
What is paresthesias?
Feeling of pins and needles
132
What is autonomic dysreflexia? When will autonomic dysreflexia occur?
- Complication of a spinal injury
- When injury is above T6
- Life threatening
- Impairs equilibrium between SNS and PNS
133
What is the priority vital sign that the nurse will monitor in a patient with a spinal cord injury? How often is it evaluated?
- Blood pressure
| - Every five minutes
134
What factors might cause the blood pressure to rise in a patient with a spinal cord injury?
- Full bladder
- Constipation
- Pressure sores
- Improper positioning
135
When is it safe for the nurse to remove a c-collar?
- IT IS NOT!
| - Can only be done with a physicians order
136
Why is logrolling performed on a patient for a spinal cord injury?
To maintain body alignment
137
What does a neurodegenerative disorder cause?
Degeneration, or wasting, of the neurons
138
What does a neurocognitive disorder cause?
Cognitive decline
139
What is the priority nursing intervention for a dementia patient?
Prolong a good quality of life
140
What is the primary nursing diagnosis for dementia patients?
Risk for injury
141
What is delirium?
Temporary mental disturbance
142
Is delirium considered a medical emergency?
Yes
143
What are the signs and symptoms of delirium?
- Disorganized thinking
| - Difficulty staying focused
144
What is the primary cause of Parkinson's disease?
Decreased dopamine production
145
What are the signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
- Shuffling gait
- Pill-rolling tremor
- Difficulty swallowing
- Muscular rigidity
- Bradykinesia
146
What might the nurse instruct a Parkinson's patient to do in order to initiate movement?
Rock from side-to-side
147
What is Huntington's disease?
Progressive degeneration of parts of the brain
148
Huntington's disease is ________.
Incurable
149
What are the signs and symptoms of Huntington's disease?
- Dementia
- Depression
- Dysphagia
- Death
150
What nursing care should be provided to a patient with Huntington's disease?
- Palliative care
| - Prolong a good quality of life
151
What is Alzheimer's disease?
Progressive, degenerative disease
152
What is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with Alzheimer's disease?
Risk for injury
153
Describe Stage One of Alzheimer's disease.
- 2 to 4 years
| - Increased forgetfulness
154
Describe Stage Two of Alzheimer's disease.
- 2 to 12 years
- Progressive memory loss
- Depression
- Aphasia
- Sleep disturbances
- Hallucinations
- Seizures
155
Describe Stage Three of Alzheimer's disease.
- Complete dependency
- Loss of bowel/bladder control
- Loss of emotional control
- Inability to recognize significant family members
- Death
156
What is a transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
Temporarily blocks circulation from going through the brain
157
A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is a forewarning for what condition?
Stroke
158
Transient ischemic attacks (TIA) deprive the brain of what substances?
- Glucose
| - Oxygen
159
What is a stroke? What does a stroke cause within the brain?
- Disruption of blood flow to the brain
| - Results in dead brain cells
160
What are the modifiable risk factors of a stroke?
- Hypertension
- Smoking
- TIA
- Diabetes
161
What are the warning signs of a stroke?
- Sudden numbness or weakness
- Sudden confusion
- Sudden change in vision
- Sudden dizziness/trouble walking
- Sudden severe headache
162
What is the acronym for a stroke?
F: ace
A: rms
S: peech
T: ime (call 911)
163
What is expressive aphasia?
Patients knows what they want to say but have trouble saying or writing it
164
What is receptive aphasia?
Patient is able to hear or see words but cannot make sense of the words
165
If the patient has a left-sided infarction, which side of the body will be impaired?
Right side
166
If the patient has a right-sided infarction, which side of the body will be impaired?
Left side
167
Will a CT scan initially show a stroke?
No
168
Following an ischemic stroke, thrombolytic therapy must be given within how many hours?
4.5 hours
169
What question does the nurse need to ask while collecting the history of a patient who is experiencing symptoms of a TIA?
How long have the symptoms been going on?
170
What are the priority nursing diagnosis with cerebrovascular accidents?
- Safety
- Decrease in sensation
- Impaired skin integrity
171
What is an aneurysm?
Weakness in the artery wall
172
What are the signs and symptoms of a cerebral aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage?
- Severe headache
- Photophobia
- Vomiting
- Disorientation
- IICP
- Changes in LOC
- Nuchal Rigidity
- Pupil changes
173
Which cranial nerves are most commonly affected in a cerebral aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Cranial nerve III (3)
| Cranial nerve VI (6)
174
What are the complications of a cerebral aneurysm or subarachnoid hemorrhage?
- Rebleed
- Hydrocephalus
- Vasospasm
175
Picture boards are utilized in patients who have what?
Expressive aphasia
176
What is the function of cranial nerve I?
Sense of smell
177
What is the function of cranial nerve II?
Sense of sight
178
What is the function of cranial nerve III?
- Eyeball movement
| - Pupil constriction
179
What is the function of cranial nerve IV?
Eyeball movement
180
What is the function of cranial nerve V?
- Sensation in face, scalp, teeth
| - Chewing
181
What is the function of cranial nerve VI?
Eyeball movement
182
What is the function of cranial nerve VII?
- Taste
- Contraction of facial muscles
- Saliva secretion
183
What is the function of cranial nerve VIII?
- Sense of hearing
| - Sense of equilibrium
184
What is the function of cranial nerve IX?
- Taste
- Saliva secretion
- Swallowing
- Sensory input for cardiac, respiratory and blood pressure reflexes
185
What is the function of cranial nerve X?
- Sensory input for cardiac, respiratory and blood pressure reflexes
- Sensory for speech
- Decreased heart rate
- Swallowing
- Peristalsis
- Increased digestive secretions
186
What is the function of cranial nerve XI?
- Contraction of neck and shoulder muscles
| - Speech
187
What is the function of cranial nerve XII?
Movement of the tongue
188
What is multiple sclerosis?
Degeneration of myelin sheath and destruction of nerve fibers
189
What education should be provided to a patient with multiple sclerosis?
Fatigue will be increased in a hot environment
190
What are the signs and symptoms of multiple sclerosis?
- Muscle weakness
- Numbness
- Fatigue
- Vertigo
- Dysphagia
- Bowel/bladder problem (UTI)
191
What might cause exacerbations of multiple sclerosis?
- Stress
- Illness
- Hot environment
- Urinary tract infection
192
What occurs within the body of a patient who has myasthenia gravis?
Immune system destroys acetylcholine on the muscle receptors and becomes unable to stimulate muscle contraction
193
What are the signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis?
- Progressive muscle weakness
- Fatigue with activity
- Ptosis
- Difficulty chewing, swallowing
- Difficulty breathing
194
What is a myasthenic crisis?
Sudden onset of muscle weakness
195
What is a cholinergic crisis?
- Overmedication with anticholinesterase drugs
- Not administering correctly
- Administering too much
196
What is a Tensilon test?
Injection of IV anticholinesterase drug to see if muscle weakness improves
197
Does ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease affect involuntary or voluntary muscle movement?
Voluntary
198
What are an EEG, nerve biopsy, and EMG used when diagnosing ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease?
To rule out other illnesses
199
What patient education should be provided to a patient with ALS or Lou Gehrig's disease?
- Support groups
- Importance of avoiding infection
- Teach family to provide care
200
How can the nurse facilitate the expulsion of sputum in an ALS patient with pneumonia?
Suction at bedside
201
What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Inflammation of the spinal and cranial nerves
202
In Guillain-Barre syndrome, demyelination occurs in what type of pattern? Where does this begin?
- Ascending pattern
| - In the legs
203
In Guillain-Barre syndrome, remyelination occurs in what type of pattern?
Descending pattern
204
Describe Stage One of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- Hours to 3 weeks
- Abrupt onset of weakness and paralysis
- Respirations are affected
- Autonomic nervous system is affected
205
Describe Stage Two of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- 2 to 14 days
- Plateau
- Progression stopped
206
Describe Stage Three of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- 6 to 24 months
| - Recovery
207
What is the most important assessment with a new onset of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Respiratory assessment
208
What should be kept at the bedside of a patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome?
- Oxygen
- Intubation
- Suction
209
How long can post-polio syndrome affect polio victims?
10 to 40 years later
210
List the nursing diagnosis for patients with neuromuscular disorders.
- Ineffective airway clearance
- Impaired physical mobility
- Risk for imbalanced nutrition
- Impaired verbal communication
211
What is trigeminal neuralgia?
Irritation of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V)
212
What portion of the nerve is affected with trigeminal neuralgia?
Sensory portion
213
What is Bell's palsy?
Inflammation and edema of the facial nerve
214
What function of the nerve is affected with Bell's palsy?
Motor function
215
What are the signs and symptoms of Bell's palsy?
- One sided facial drooping
- Weakness
- Difficulty with speech/chewing
- Forehead not wrinkled
216
A patient with trigeminal neuralgia will experience what?
Pain
217
A patient with Bell's palsy will experience what?
Paralysis
218
What percent of developmental delays occur in children within the United States?
17%
219
What percent of children with a developmental delay will be diagnosed by school-age?
50%
220
Once a milestone is missed, children _______ catch up _____.
DO NOT catch up QUICKLY
221
When is spina bifida present in an infant?
At birth
222
What is consumed during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects?
Folic Acid
223
How much folic acid should be consumed during pregnancy?
At least 400 mg
224
What are the different types of spina bifida?
- Myelomeningocele
- Meningocele
- Spina Bifida occulta
225
Which form of spina bifida is most common?
Myelomeningocele
226
What occurs during myelomeningocele?
Spinal cord and nerves are exposed and visible on the outside of the body
227
Myelomeningocele will result in what?
Partial or complete paralysis
228
What is spina bifida occulta?
- Section of spinal vertebrae is malformed
- Cord and nerves are normal
- Tuft of hair may be only visible physical indication
229
Does spina bifida occulta cause bowel and bladder problems or paralysis?
No
230
What is involved in the protection of open spinal cord defects?
- Must be covered and protected
- Aseptic technique
- Sterile dressing moistened with warn sterile saline
- Position prone and lying on open diaper
231
What is name of the neural tube defect where most of the brain does not develop?
Anencephaly
232
What is encephalocele?
Portion of the brain protrudes through an opening in the skull
233
What are the common locations of an encephalocele?
- Groove in the middle of the skull
- Between the forehead and nose
- On the back side of the skull
234
What is chiari malformation?
Structural defect of the cerebellum
235
What are the signs and symptoms of type one chiari malformation? How is this diagnosed
- No signs and symptoms
| - Diagnosed through accidental finding
236
When do congenital malformations occur?
During fetal development
237
What is the most common brain malformation?
Agenesis of Corpus Callosum
238
This condition is also known as "smooth brain".
Lissencephaly
239
Lissencephaly causes what?
Severe neurological impairment
240
Microencephaly is present if what?
The circumference of the head is more than two standard deviations below normal
241
What is schizencephaly?
Abnormal slit or cleft in the hemisphere(s) of the brain
242
What will result if schizencephaly is in both hemispheres?
- Developmental delays
| - Paralysis
243
What will result if schizencephaly is in one hemispheres?
Paralysis on one side
244
Premature closing of skull sutures is known as what?
Craniosynostosis
245
What is craniosynostosis associated with?
Facial deformities
246
Closing of the skull sutures is considered to be premature if closure occurs before what age?
Two months old
247
What is congenital hydrocephalus?
Blockage occurs before birth
248
What is acquired hydrocephalus?
Blockage occurs after birth
249
What are the signs and symptoms of hydrocephalus symptoms?
- Large head
- Rapid increase in head circumference
- Bulging fontanel
- High-shrill
- Sunsetting eyes
- Opisthotonos
250
What is the treatment option for hydrocephalus?
Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
251
What risk is associated with a shunt?
Infection
252
What is the most important factor when diagnosing sleep disorders in children?
Thorough sleep history
253
What are the treatment options for sleep disorders in children?
- Good sleep habits
- No hypnotic sleep aids
- Safety measures for sleepwalking
254
What causes febriel seizures?
- Body temperature accelerated or decreased too rapidly
| - Body is unable to adjust
255
List safety promotion for seizure prevention.
- Helmet/protective gear
- Bathe with supervision
- No swimming without supervision
- No sleeping on high bed
256
At what age are febrile seizures most common? In what gender are they most common?
- 3 months to 5 years
| - Common in boys
257
When are infantile spasms most likely to occur?
- Upon awakening
| - Going to sleep
258
What type of syncope is most common?
Vasovagal syncope
259
What is a common sign of Type 1 neurofibromatosis?
Cafe-au-lait spots
260
Can infants have strokes in utero?
Yes
261
What is the most common cause of pediatric strokes?
Neonatal hemorrhages
262
What are the signs and symptoms of congenital zika syndrome?
- Severe microcephaly
- Congenital contractures
- Hypertonia
263
What are the causes of cerebral palsy in children?
- Premature birth
| - Very low birth weight
264
What type of cerebral palsy is the most common?
Spastic
265
What is cerebral palsy?
Chronic disability impairing muscle movement and posture
266
Describe the signs and symptoms of spastic cerebral palsy?
- Stiffness in legs
| - Occurs on one side of body or quadriplegia
267
Describe the signs and symptoms of athetoid/dyskinetic cerebral palsy?
- Sudden, uncontrollable changes in muscle tone
| - Difficulty controlling movements
268
Describe the signs and symptoms of ataxic cerebral palsy?
- Problems with balance/coordination
| - Problems with writing/reaching for objects
269
Describe the signs and symptoms of mixed cerebral palsy?
Some have more than one type
270
Few spontaneous movements is associated with what pediatric disease?
Spinal muscle atrophy one (SMA1) (Werdnig-Hoffman disease)
