Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

medicine year 3 > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

if you see an elderly patient with painless jaundice what must you think of?

A

pancreatic cancer until proven otherwise.
(head of pancreas grows and blocks liver tubes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the window for alcohol withdrawal?

A

mostly within 72 hours of last drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how could you treat alcohol withdrawal?

A

clordazopoxide (benzo)
paprunex (vit b complex infusion you give alcoholics-need to make sure they’ve eaten something and are eating for this bc it relies on using glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the risk factors for gallstones?

A

female
obesity
age
pregnancy
drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how do gallstones cause cholecystitis (acute and chronic)?

A

acute-stones compress blood supply
chronic-due to repeated mechanical trauma from stones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the risk factors for gallbladder carcinoma?

A

previous gallstones
chronic cholecystitis
female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is Ranson’s score?

A

clinical prediction rule for prognosis and mortality risk of acute pancreatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

why can PR bleeding give you diarrhoea?

A

blood is a laxative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a sign of peritonitis o/e?

A

patients’ muscles contract and their abdomen is rigid to touch, they can’t move bc it hurts too much.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what organism is the most common cause of bloody diarrhoea?

A

shigella dysenteriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are some clinical signs of hypovalaemia?

A

orthostatic hypotension
supine hypotension
increased cap refill
resting tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where are bile salts reabsorbed in the GIT?

A

terminal ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is an important blood finding in upper GI bleed?

A

increased urea-urea is product of protein breakdown so increased protein breakdown from RBCs=increased urea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 2 things gastrograffin does?

A

radioopaque-can see whether it can pass through
is osmotically active-draws out oedema.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are 4 common causes of small bowel obstruction?

A

adhesions (fibrous bands)
hernias
cancer
volvuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are 3 common causes of large bowel obstruction?

A

phlegmon -inflammatory mass-secondary to diverticulitis
swelling secondary to diverticulitis
cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the glasgow blatchford score?

A

screening tool to assess the likelihood that a person with an acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding will need to have medical intervention such as a blood transfusion or endoscopic intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the 4 key features of peritonism on exam?

A

Cough tenderness – localising pain with cough
Involuntary guarding
Percussion tenderness – localising tenderness with percussion
Rebound tenderness – transient worsening pain following immediately release after deep palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the 5 Fs for cholecystitis risk factors?

A

fat
female
fertile
forty
family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is charcot’s triad?

A

for cholangitis:
fever
jaundice
RUQ pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are some signs of uraemia on examination?

A

bruising due to platelet dysfunction
uraemic encephalopathy-asterixis, confusion, seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is a PEG tube?

A

percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy-tube that connects stomach to outside world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does UGIB stand for?

A

upper GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does UGIB stand for?

A

upper GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what’s a way of dealing with a stomach ulcer?

A

injecting adrenaline into it-it vasoconstricts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which artery can a gastric ulcer erode into, causing big bleeds?

A

gastro-duodenal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

if someone has suspected GI cancer based on bloods, what’s the next investigation?

A

urgent 2ww colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what situations are the faecal occult blood test used for?

A

population screening-not when they have suspected cancer but for the every day population.

29
Q

what is the single criteria for an urgent liver transplant post paracetomol overdose?

A

arterial pH <7.3 more than 24 hours after ingestion.

30
Q

what is the triple criteria for an urgent liver transplant post overdose?

A

heptic encephalopathy
creatinine >300
PT >100 seconds

31
Q

what are 2 examples of stimulant laxatives?

A

senna
bisacodyl

32
Q

what type of laxative is lactulose?

A

osmotic

33
Q

how does oesophageal spasm present?

A

intermittent dysphagia +severe restrosternal chest pain
‘corckscrew’ appearance

34
Q

what is achalasia?

A

failure of oesophageal peristalsis and abnormally increase tone of LOS, resulting in narrowing of lower oesophagus-looks like bird beak on barium swallow

35
Q

what are the causes of asterexis?

A

hypercapnia
hepatic encephalopathy
uraemia

36
Q

what is curling’s ulcer?

A

stress-driven ulcers that develop in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract when a person experiences a significant physical injury, specifically a burn. most common symptom=haematemesis

37
Q

what is the most common cause of elevated ALT and AST in the 10,000s?

A

paracetomol overdose

38
Q

what does alcohol usually do to LFTs?

A

causes a greater elevation in AST than ALT

39
Q

what is the difference between the main use of metoclopramide and ondansetron for nausea?

A

metoclorpramide-often prescribed for N+V related to gastric motility
ondansetron-often used for N+V related to chemotherapy

40
Q

what is the drug treatment for h.pylori?

A

PPI +clarithromycin +amoxicillin or metronidazole

41
Q

what is a common side effect of hookworms that would show on blood tests?

A

iron deficiency anaemias

42
Q

what is the key differential diagnosis of appendicitis?

A

ectopic pregnancy
ovarian cysts
meckel’s diverticulum
appendix mass

43
Q

what is meckel’s diverticulum and how does it present?

A

congenital small pouch in small intestine
mostly asymptomatic but can release acid which can cause ulcers to develop in small intestine which can bleed and show as blood in poo. can also cause volvulus and intussusception.

44
Q

what is mesenteric adenitis and how does it present?

A

inflamed abdominal lymph nodes
abdo pain esp in young children, often associated with tonsilitis or URTI, no specific treatment needed.

45
Q

what is sister mary joseph’s node?

A

palpable nodule in umbilicus due to metastases of malignant cancer within pelvis or abdomen

46
Q

what is virchow’s node and its relevance?

A

enlarged left supraclavicular node seen in various intrabdominal malignancies

47
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for perianal fistulae in crohn’s disease?

A

MRI pelvis -can enable visualisation of course and can be used to plan surgical management.

48
Q

what is the treatment for severe c diff?

A

PO vancomycin +IV metronidazole

49
Q

what is boerhaave’s syndrome?

A

spontaneous rupture of the oesophagus due to repeated episodes of vomiting -usual history=severe chest pain and severe vomiting.
diagnosis =CT contrast swallow
emergency -needs surgery asap

50
Q

what is nitazoxanide?

A

broad spectrum anti-parasitic/viral

51
Q

what is choledocholithiasis?

A

where gallstones obstruct the common bile duct

52
Q

when is ERCP used?

A

choledocholithiasis and acute cholangitis

53
Q

what is ursodeoxycholic acid, how does it work, and what is it used for?

A

secondary bile acid
works by replacing hydrophobic and toxic bile acids in bile acid pool with itself, protecting liver and gallbladder cells from bile acid induced damage
used for dissolution of gallstones (if contraindications to definitive treatments) and primary biliary cirrhosis

54
Q

elderly patient with large amounts of painless red blood PR -top differential?

A

diverticulosis

55
Q

what is the tumour marker most commonly associated with colorectal cancer?

A

CEA (carcinoma embryonic antigen)

56
Q

what happens in cholangitis?

A

infection of biliary tree due to biliary outflow obstruction (eg gallstone) causing bile flow to stop or slow, providing an ideal growth medium for bacteria.

57
Q

what is charcot’s triad and what is it for?

A

cholangitis -fever, RUQ pain, jaundice

58
Q

what can charcot’s triad progress to and what’s in that?

A

reynolds pentad -add confusion and hypotension

59
Q

if they get gallstone sx a few weeks after a cholecystectomy what is the likely cause?

A

gallstones being left in the CBD

60
Q

what is the presentation of failure of surgical anastamoses post cholecystectomy?

A

bile leaking into abdo cavity, presents in 1st week post op
abdo pain
diaphragm irritation
peritonitis

61
Q

which condition shows a ‘double bubble’ on AXR?

A

duodenal atresia

62
Q

what are the bowel sounds in bowel obstruction?

A

‘tinkling’ earlier on
absent later on

63
Q

what is the classic presentation of acute mesenteric ischaemia? and what is it

A

embolism resulting in occlusion of an artery supplying the small bowel
classic =severe sudden onset abdo pain, classic patient has AF

64
Q

what happens in ischaemic colitis?

A

acute but transient compromise to blood flow of large bowel -can lead to inflammation, ulceration, and haemorrhage
can see thumbprinting on AXR same as UC -mucosal oedema/haemorrhage

65
Q

what is melanosis coli?

A

abnormal pigmentation of large bowel, most commonly due to laxative abuse

66
Q

what is an important blood test to do when someone is on aminosalicylates and why?

A

FBC
they can cause agranulocytosis

67
Q

which acid base disturbance does diarrhoea cause?

A

metabolic acidosis

68
Q

what do you give for prophylaxis of oesophageal varices bleeding?

A

non cardioselective beta blocker eg propranolol

medicine year 3 (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions