prescribing

Question 1

OM

Answer 1

every morning

Question 2

ON

Answer 2

every night

Question 3

SC

Answer 3

subcutaneous

Question 4

SL

Answer 4

sublingual

Question 5

IO

Answer 5

intra-osseous

Question 6

when are buccal medications often given?

Answer 6

when patient has an unsafe swallow or they are vomiting

Question 7

what is the difference between buccal and sublingual medications?

Answer 7

buccal stays in cheek, sublingual is under tongue

Question 8

what is a transdermal medication and examples?

Answer 8

patch that just sits on top of the skin, can last like up to a week
eg painkiller patches, nicotine

Question 9

what medication if it accumulates you can go deaf?

Answer 9

gentomycin

Question 10

what do you need to measure to give LMWH?

Answer 10

body weight

Question 11

when should you give statins to make them more effective?

Answer 11

at night-most cholesterol production happens at night

Question 12

what is the difference between crystalloid and colloid fluids?

Answer 12

crystalloid: NaCl, no big molecules, less SEs (more in line with normal body), give in 500/1000ml bags
colloid: more starchy, big molecules, more SEs (can cause rash), give in 250-500ml bags

Question 13

What are some common immunosuppressant medications?

Answer 13

Methotrexate (and other DMARDs)
Steroids
Azathioprine

Question 14

what is the hong kong protocol?

Answer 14

protocol for IV omeprazole-80mg bolus stat followed by 8mg/h infusion for 72h.

Question 15

what is teicoplanin?

Answer 15

antibiotic used in the prophylaxis and treatment of serious infections caused by gram-positive bacteria, including methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus and enterococcus faecalis

Question 16

what is the antidote to opioid overdose?

Answer 16

naloxone

Question 17

what is methyldopa ?

Answer 17

centrally acting antihypertensive

Question 18

what is the drug class of spironolactone?

Answer 18

potassium sparing diuretic

Question 19

how is spironolactone used?

Answer 19

can get hyperkalaemia if too high dose-used in longer term management, lower doses. also good bc protective against HF.

Question 20

what is tamsulosin?

Answer 20

treats BPH
andrenoreceptor antagonist-relaxes smooth muscle in prostate-improves flow.

Question 21

what are the different adrenaline doses for adult life support?

Answer 21

anaphylaxis: 0.5mg 1:1000 IM
cardiac arrest: 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml 1:1000IV

Question 22

what TB drugs can cause optic neuritis?

Answer 22

ethambutol
also isoniazid but not as common

Question 23

what are the most likely side effects of bendroflumethiazide?

Answer 23

postural hypotension
electrolyte disturbances, esp hypokalaemia

Question 24

what common drug commonly causes ankle oedema?

Answer 24

amlodipine

Question 25

what are the drugs for motion sickness in order of effectiveness?

Answer 25

hyoscine >cyclizine >promethazine

Question 26

what is an electrolyte imbalance that PPIs cause?

Answer 26

hypomagnesaemia

Question 27

how does metoclopramide work and what is it used for?

Answer 27

dopamine D2 antagonist treats N+V due to: migraines, chemo, radiotherapy, post-op, palliative care.

Question 28

what is a well known more niche side effect of spironolactone?

Answer 28

gynaecomastia

Question 29

which metabolic disturbance is a known side effect of metformin?

Answer 29

lactic acidosis

Question 30

how do you calculate breakthrough dose of morphine?

Answer 30

1/6th normal daily dose

Question 31

what are the metabolic disturbances of salicylate overdose (eg aspirin)?

Answer 31

early stimulation of respiratory centre leads to respiratory acidosis first later direct acid effects of salicylates may lead to metabolic acidosis-in children metabolic acidosis tends to predominate.

Question 32

what important monitoring do you need to do with a patient on hydroxychloroquine?

Answer 32

visual acuity testing-can cause severe retinopathy baseline then every 6-12 months

Question 33

when should patient <25 who are started on an SSRI be reviewed?

Answer 33

after 1 week.

Question 34

what sort of anaemia can methotrexate cause and why?

Answer 34

megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia due to folate deficiency because folate (and B12) required for final steps in RBC maturation

Question 35

what is the 1stline treatment for threadworm?

Answer 35

mebendazole

Question 36

what does steroid dependency mean in someone with IBD?

Answer 36

unable to stop steroids within 3m without recurrent active disease or have relapse needing steroids within 3m of stopping them.

Question 37

what is an important side effect of AchE inhibitors?

Answer 37

bradycardia

Question 38

what is the treatment for seborrheic dermatitis?

Answer 38

ketoconazole cream once or twice a day for at least 4 weeks, or antifungal shampoo like ketoconazole as body wash

Question 39

What are some side effects of phenytoin?

Answer 39

Gingivitis Coursening of facial features Hirsutism