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Flashcards in GI Deck (192)
1

A pt presenting with progressive dysphasia to both liquids and solids at same time and regurgitation several hours after meals suffers from ...

Achalasia (inability to relax LES)

2

What is the best initial test for Achalasia?

barium swallow (bird's peak)

3

What is the most accurate test for Achalasia?

manometry (increased LES pressure; decreased LES tone)

4

What is the best initial treatment for Achalasia?

pneumatic dilation
(followed by Botox, myometry)

5

An older pt who drinks and smokes presents with progressive dysphasia that starts as just to solids and progresses to liquids and weight loss most likey suffers from ...

Esophageal cancer (Squamous cell)
(associated with long standing GERD)

6

What type of cancer occurs in proximal 2/3 of esophagus?

Squamous cell carcinoma

7

What type of cancer occurs in distal 1/3 of esophagus?

Adenocarcinoma

8

What is the best test for esophageal carcinoma?

Endoscopy w/ biopsy
(do CT scan for local spread; endoscopic U/S for staging)

9

What is the most accurate test for esophageal dysphagia in scleroderma patients?

motility study

10

What is the best treatment for pts with esophageal dysphagia and scleroderma?

PPI (can add metoclopramide)

11

A pt with intermittent chest pain along with dysphasia, usually precipitated by cold liquids most likely suffers from ...

diffuse esophageal spasm/ Nutcracker esophagus

12

What is the finding on barium swallow for Nutcracker esophagus/ diffuse esophageal spasm?

corkscrew appearance (at time of spasm)

13

What is the most accurate test for Nutcracker esophagus/ diffuse esophageal spasm?

manometry (high intensity, disorganized contractions)

14

What is the treatment for Nutcracker esophagus/ diffuse esophageal spasm?

1. calcium channel blockers (nifedipine)
2. nitrates

15

A patient with history of regurgiting undigested food, especially at night, and can express food via pushing on their throat most likely suffers from ....

Zenker's Diverticulum

16

What is the best initial test for Zenker's diverticulum?

Barium studies

17

What is the treatment for Zenker's diverticulum?

surgery (avoid endoscopy, NG tubes)

18

.... is thin epithelial membranes made from squamous cells located at squamocolumnar junction proximal to LES that causes intermittent dysphagia

Scatzki's rings

19

... are epithelial membranes made of squamous cells loacted in hypopharynx, causes intermittent dysphagia, associated with iron deficiency and squamous cell cancer

Plummer-Vinson syndrome
(tx w/ dilation and iron)

20

An HIV pt with CD4 count less than 200 presenting with odynophagia (pain with swallowing) most likely presents with ....

Candida esophagitis

21

What is the treatment for Candida esophagitis?

fluconazole

22

A patient on bisphosphonates or acne meds presenting with odynophagia most likely suffers from ...

Esophagitis (due to pill)
(treat with swallow pill in upright position with lots of water)

23

A pt presents with painless upper GI bleed after repeated episodes of retching and vomiting most likely presents with ...

Mallory-Weiss syndrome

24

What is the diagnostic tool of choice for Mallory-Weiss syndrome?

endoscopy

25

What treament is used for Mallory Weiss syndrome?

1. nothing
2. can inject epi or cauterize if necessary

26

What test for H. pylori is not affected by PPI use?

H. pylori ELISA

27

When should a pt with epigastric pain undergo endoscopy?

1. older than 55 y/o
2. alarm symptoms (bleeding, weight loss, dysphagia)
3. if symptoms not resolved with PPI

28

What is the most accurate test for GERD?

24 hour pH monitoring

29

A pt presents with epigastric pain, sore throat, metallic taste, hoarseness and cough most likely suffers from...

GERD

30

What is the next best step in a patient presenting with GERD or signs of peptic ulcer disease (<45 y/o) without alarming symptoms?

treat with PPI

31

What things should people avoid if they have GERD?

1. nicotine
2. alcohol
3. chocolate
4. caffeine

32

What is the surgical treatment for GERD and when is it indicated?

Nissen fundoplication
1.refactory side effects of PPI (headaches, diarrhea)
2. no response to PPI

33

.... is a complication of long standing reflux in which epithelium of lower esophagus changes from squamous to columnar

Barrett's esophagus

34

How often should endoscopy be repeated in pts with Barrett's esophagus?

every 2-3 years
(every 3-6 months if low grade dysplasia)

35

What is the best treatment for Barrett's esophagus?

PPI

36

A patient with midepigastric pain that is relieved by eating and not associated with weight loss is most likely ...

Dudodenal ulcer

37

A patient presenting with epigastric pain that is worsened by food and associated with weight loss is most likely ...

Gastric ulcer
(always biopsy to exclude cancer)

38

What tests are used to assess whether H. pylori treatment was successful or if recurred after remission?

1. urea breath test
2. stool antigen

39

What are the two most common causes of peptic ulcer disease?

1. H. pylori
2. NSAIDs use

40

What is the treatment for H. pylori associated peptic ulcers?

1. clarithromycin
2. amoxicillin
3. PPI
(for 10-14 days)

41

What are the indications for stress ulcer prophylaxis?

1. mechanical ventilation
2. burns
3. head trauma
4. severe coagulopathy with sepsis

42

A patient presents with peptic ulcer disease despite max dose of PPI and H2 blocker and associated diarrhea most likely suffers from ...

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
(diarrhea due to lipase inactivation by acids)

43

What are the diagnositic for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

1.elevated gastrin level with pt off PPI/H2 blocker for few days
2. secretin stimulation (positive if elevated gastrin)

44

What diagnostic tools are used to assess whether gastrinoma is metastasized?

1. Somatostatin-recpetor scintigraphy
2. endoscopic ultrasound (most sensitive)

45

A poorly controlled diabetic presents with early satiety, post-prandial nausea, abdominal fullness and bloating most likely suffers from ...

gastroparesis
(b/c can't feel stretch so no gastrin release)

46

What is the treatment for gastroparesis?

1. erythromycin
2. metoclopramide

47

What disease can occur in a pt with history of vagotomy and gastric resection for severe peptic ulcer disease?

Dumping syndrome

48

What is the sequence of events involved in dumping syndrome?

1. rapid release of chyme in duodenum --> osmotic draw --> intravascular volume depletion
2. rapid release of chyme in duodenum --> peak of glucose --> rapid release of insulin --> hypoglycemia

49

A pt presents with sweating, shakiness, palpitations and lightheadedness shortly after a meal most likely suffers from ..

Dumping syndrome

50

What is the treatment for Dumping syndrome?

eat multiple, small meals

51

A pt who has epigastric pain but all other causes have been excluded most likely suffers from ..

Non-ulcer dyspepsia
(treat via symptomatic relief)

52

What are the findings on endoscopic exam for Crohn's disease?

skip lesions with transmural inflammation throughout bowels

53

What are findings in barium studies for Crohn's disease?

string sign

54

What is the difference between Crohn's disease and Ulcerative colitis?

Crohn: skip lesions, trasmural, fistula formation, granulomas forming abdominal masses, through GI tract
UC: no skip lesions, mucosal, no fistulas,no granulomas, only in colon, bloody diarrhea

55

A pt presenting with fever, diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain that has positive for Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies most likely suffers from ...

Crohn's disease

56

A pt presenting with fever, diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal that has positive ANCA (anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody) most likely suffers from ...

Ulcerative colitis

57

What are treatments for chronic treatment of Crohn's disease?

1. pentasa (mesalamine derivative)
2. azathioprine
3. 6-MP
4. Infliximab (if fistula or refractory to others; test for TB first)

58

What is use for acute exacerbations of Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's?

Budesonide (steroids)

59

What treatments are used for chronic treatment of Ulcerative colitis?

1.asacol, rowasa, sulfasalazine (mesalamine derivatives in colon)
2. azathioprine
3. 6-MP

60

What are common side effects of sulfasalazine?

1. reversible infertility in men
2. leukopenia
3. sulfa effects (rash, hemolysis, allergic interstitial nephritis)

61

What is a side effect that can occur with the use of azathioprine and with the use of 6-MP?

drug-induced pancreatitis

62

What is the most important thing to do before starting treatment with infliximab?

test for latent TB with PPD
(can induce re-activation of TB)

63

What is the first thing to do in a patient with diarrhea?

assess for hypovolemia (hypotensive or orthostatic hypotension; tachycardia)

64

What tests should be done to exclude infectious diarrhea?

1. fecal leukocytes
2. stool culture
3. ova and parasite exam
4. C. difficile toxin (if clues in hx)
5. Giardia-ELISA antigen testing (if clues in hx)

65

What are the two most common causes of infectious diarrhea?

1. Campylobacter
2. Salmonella

66

A pt develops diarrhea and vomiting shortly after eating Chinese food most likely suffers from ...

Bacillus cereus infection (pre-formed toxins)

67

A pt has history of diarrhea and develops Guillian Barre syndrome or reactive arthritis most likely had diarrhea due to ...

Campylobacter

68

What are the most likely causes of diarrhea in an HIV pt with CD4 count less than 100?

1. Cryptosporidia
2. isopora

69

A pt develops diarrhea (bloody) after eating a hamburger most likely is infected with ...

E.Coli 0157:H7

70

What is a common complication of infection with E. Coli 0157:H7?

HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)
-avoid abx b/c organism already dead at this point
-avoid platelet tranfusion b/c make it worse

71

A camper or mountain hiker develops diarrhea with abdominal fullness, bloating and gas most likely suffers from ....

Giardia
(associated with fat and vitamin malabsorption)

72

A pt develops diarrhea after ingesting chicken, eggs, and dairy products most likely suffers from ...

Salmonella

73

A pt develops diarrhea, flushing, wheezing, and vomiting within minutes of eating fish most likely suffers from ...

Scombroid infection (release histamine into fish)

74

What are the most common causes of diarrhea in an iron overloaded patient (hemochromatosis)?

1. Yersinia
2. Shigella
3. Vibrio vulnificus

75

What infectious diarrheal organism can mimic appendicitis?

Yersinia

76

A pt presents with hx of chronic liver disease and diarrhea after eating raw shellfish (muscles, oysters, clams) most likely suffers from ...

Vibrio (vulnificus and parahaemolyticus)

77

What is the difference between infection with vibrio vulnificus and vibrio parahaemolyticus>

vulnificus: iron loaded pt (hemochromatosis); skin bullae
parahaemolyticus: not above

78

What is the most common cause of diarrhea in children at day-care?

viral (rotavirus)

79

A pt develops nausea and vomiting (with mild diarrhea) shortly after eating dairy products, eggs, salads most likely suffers from ...

S. aureus (pre-formed toxins)

80

A pt develops diarrhea along with neuro symptoms (paresthesia, weakness, reversal of heat/cold) after eating large reef fish (grouper, red snapper, barracuda) most likely suffers from ...

Ciguatera -toxin

81

What is the diagnostic test for Cryptosporidiosis?

modified acid fast test

82

What is the best empiric therapy for infectious diarrhea?

1. ciprofloxacin
2. other fluroquinolone with metronidazole
(if pain, fever, blood, tender)

83

What is the best treatment for Scombroid?

antihistamines (diphenhydramine)

84

What is the best treatment for Giardia?

metronidazole (can also use single dose tinidazole)

85

What is the best treatment for cryptosporidiosis?

1. raise CD4 count (anti-retrovirals)
2.paromomycin
3.nitazoxanide

86

What is the best treatment for diarrhea caused by Isopora?

Bactrim

87

What is the best treatment for Vibrio vulnificus?

Doxycyline

88

What is the best treatment for traveller's diarrhea (E. Coli)?

Rifaximin
(never prophylactic antibiotics)

89

A pt presents with profuse watery diarrhea and a history of recent antibiotic treatment most likely suffers from ...

C. difficile

90

What is the best diagnostic test for C. difficile?

stool toxin for C. difficile

91

What is the best treatment for C. difficile associated colitis?

Metronidazole (oral or IV)
(second line is oral vancomycin if persisted despite metronidazole)

92

What medication can be used to decreased the frequency of recurrent episodes of C. difficile colitis?

Fidaxomicin

93

A pt presenting with gas, bloating and diarrhea associated with ingestion of dairy products most likely suffers from ...

Lactose Intolerance (usually starts around 12 y/o)

94

What diagnostic tests can be used to diagnosis lacotse intolerance?

1.increased stool osmolality
2. increased osmolar gap (difference btw stool osmolality is greater than expected with level of Na and K; >50)

95

What is the best initial test for lactose intolerance?

remove milk, cheese, ice cream and other dairy products from diet
(symptoms resolve within 24-36 hours)

96

A pt presenting with abdominal pain that is relieved by bowel movements, diarrhea and/or constipation most likely suffers from ...

irritable bowel syndrome

97

What is Rome criteria and what disease is it used for?

following symptoms for at least 3 months
1. pain relieved by bowel movement/ change in bowel habits
2.fewer symptoms at night
3. diarrhea alternating with constipation
used for irritable bowel syndrome

98

What are treatments used in irritable bowel syndrome? (5)

1. high fiber diet
2. anti-diarrheal (loperamide, diphenoxylate)
3. antispasmodics (hyoscyamine, dicyclomine, belladonna alkaloids)
4. TCAs (have anticholinergic effect)
5. tegaserod (for constipation predominant)
6. alosetron (for diarrhea predominant)

99

What antibiotics can be used for the peri-rectal/ peri-anal disease associated with Crohn's disease?

Ciprofloxacin with Metronidazole

100

What are the side effects associated with sulfa drugs (i.e. sulfasalazine)? (3)

1.drug induced hemolysis
2. rash
3. renal (allergic interstitial nepritis)

101

What medication is used for fistula formation associated with Crohn's disease?

Infliximab

102

If patient has crohn's disease of colon or ulcerative colitis for more than 8 years, have an increased risk of .....

colon cancer
(scope after 10 years of IBD)

103

What is the liver disease associated with ulcerative colitis and crohn's disease?

Primary Sclerosis Cholangitis

104

What is a curative treatment for ulcerative colitis?

Colectomy (surgical removal of colon)

105

What is the complication of surgery for Crohn's disease?

recurrence at site of surgery

106

If have positive fecal leukocytes or fecal blood in the setting of diarrhea, what are likely infectious causes?

Invasive disease (Salmonella, Yersinia, Shigella: white cells)
(Campylobacter, E.Coli, Vibrio parahemolyticus: red cells)

107

What should you avoid in the treatment of a pt with E.Coli 0157:H7 associated HUS?

1. avoid antibiotics (killing bacteria release more toxin)
2. avoid platelet transfusion (makes it worse)

108

An elderly pt presents with colicky LLQ pain with painless bleeding most likely suffers from..

Diverticulosis (outpouching of colon)

109

What is the diagnostic test of choice for Diverticulosis?

Colonscopy

110

What is the treatment for Diverticulosis?

increase fiber (bran, metamucil, bulking agents, psyllium husks)

111

A pt presents with intermittent flushing, wheezes, diarrhea, tachycardia and hypotension most likely suffers from ...

Carcinoid syndrome (serotonin release- lung or appendix)

112

What are the cardiac complications associated with Carcinoid syndrome?

1. tricuspid insufficiency
2. pulmonic stenosis

113

What is the treatment for diarrhea for carcinoid syndrome?

octreotide

114

What is the diagnostic test of choice for carcinoid syndrome?

urinary 5HIAA

115

A patient presents with greasy, oily, floating and fatty stools that are particularly foul smelling and weight loss most likely suffer from ...

fat malabsorption syndromes (celiac disease, chronic pancreatitis, tropical sprue, whipple disease)

116

What is the best treatment for tropical sprue?

1. Bactrim
2. doxycycline

117

What is the best inital diagnostic test for Celiac disease?

1.anti-gliadin antibodies
2.anti-endomysial antibodies

118

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for Celiac disease?

Small bowel biopsy (flattening of villi)

119

What is the best treatment for Whipple's disease?

1. bactrim or doxycyline
2. ceftriaxone

120

A pt presents with fat malabsorption after visiting a tropical country most likely suffers from ...

tropical sprue

121

What is d-xylose testing used for?

distinguish btw normal bowel wall versus abnormal bowel wall for fat malabsorption syndromes

122

A pt presents with fat malabsorption with dementia, arthalgias, and ophthalmoplegia most likely suffers from ...

Whipple's disease

123

What is the most sensitive test for Whipple's disease?

PCR of bowel biopsy

124

What findings on bowel-wall biopsy in patients with Whipple disease?

foamy macrophages that are PAS positive

125

What is the most accurate test for chronic pancreatitis?

secretin testing (no bicarb release with secretin injection via NG tube)

126

A pt presenting with fever, tenderness, leukocytosis, and intense LLQ pain most likely suffers from...

Diverticulitis (inflammation of outpouching)

127

What is the best diagnostic test for diverticulitis?

CT scan (avoid barium swallow and endoscopy b/c increases perforation)

128

What is the Sudan Black test?

detects fat in stool (used to detect fat malabsorption)

129

What is the best treatment for diverticulitis?

Ciprofloxacin with metronidazole

130

What vitamin deficiencies are associated with fat malabsorption?

1.vitamin D (decrease calcium)
2. vitamin A
3. vitamin K (increased PT; easy brusing)
4. vitamin E

131

What are unique findings in Celiac disease compared to other fat malabsorption syndromes?

1. iron deficiency
2. folate deficiency
3. dermatitis herpetiformis

132

..... is vesicular skin rash on extensor surfaces of the body seen in Celiac disease

Dematitis herpetiformis

133

What are common causes of constipation? (6)

1. calcium channel blockers
2. iron supplement (not absorbed so stuck in stool)
3. hypothyroidism
4. opioids
5. anticholinergics (TCAs)
6. diabetes

134

If polyps are detected on colonoscopy, when should repeat colonscopy?

3-5 years

135

In general population, when should colon cancer screening start and how often if normal?

at age 50 y/o, every 10 years

136

Endocarditis due to what organism is associated with increased likelihood of colon cancer?

Strep bovis (colonoscopy screening immediately)

137

A pt with 3 family members in at least 2 generations that were found to have colon cancer (1 prior to 50 y/o) most likely suffers from..

Hereditary Nonpolyposis Syndrome (lynch syndrome)

138

What is the colon cancer screening recommendations for pt with Hereditary Nonpolyposis Syndrome?

colonoscopy q 1-2 years starting at 25 y/o

139

A pt with multiple polyps associated with defect in APC gene most likely suffers from ...

Familial adenomatous polyposis

140

What is the screening recommendations for familial adenomatous polyposis?

flexible sigmoidoscopy every 1-2 years at 12 y/o

141

If have familial adenomatous polyposis and start to have polyps on colon cancer screening, what is next best step?

colectomy (with new rectum from terminal ileum) b/c adenomas --> cancer all the time by 50 y/o

142

A pt with hamartomous polyps and melanotic spots (hyperpigmentation of lips, skin, mucosa) presenting with abdominal pain due to intussusception/ bowel obstruction most likely suffers from ...

Peutz-Jegher's syndrome

143

A pt with CNS tumors and colon cancer most likely suffers from ...

Turcot syndrome

144

A patient with multiple soft tissue tumors (osteomas of mandible, lipomas, fibrosarcomas) and colon cancer most likely suffers from ...

Gardner syndrome

145

What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

1. alcoholism
2. gallstones
(pentamidine, 6MP, sulf drugs, azathioprine, hypertriglyceridemia)

146

What is the initial step in management of severe GI bleed (hypotensive & tachycardiac)?

fluid resuscitation w/ normal saline or lactated ringers
(followed by CBC- hct & plt; PT; type & crossmatch)

147

When should you transfuse packed RBCs in pt with severe GI bleed?

Hct < 30% if older, heart disease
Hct <25% if younger, healthy

148

When should you transfuse platelets?

platelets < 50,000 (if surgery or already bleeding)

149

What is the next best step in management if the PT is elevated in pt with GI bleed?

fresh frozen plasma (immediate)

150

What are the common causes of lower GI bleed?

1. diverticulosis
2. AVMs (angiodysplasia/ vascular ectasia)
3. hemorrhoids
4. cancer

151

What are diagnostic criteria for orthostatic hypotension?

1. HR >10 or more
2. SBP > 20 or more
(occurs once 15-20% blood loss; used if pt normal when lying down)

152

If SBP < 100 or HR >100, suggests what amount of blood loss?

30% blood loss

153

If a pt has hx of liver disease or alcoholism presenting with acute GI bleed, what treatment should be used if vomiting blood?

Octreotide (decreases portal hypertension to help with varices)

154

If octreotide does not stop bleeding of esophageal varices, what is the next best step of management?

Emergency endoscopy for banding then TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting)

155

What is a common complication of TIPS for varcieal bleeding?

encephalopathy (blood not detoxified by liver)

156

What is the treatment used for pt who presented with variceal bleeding secondary to portal hypertension but now stable (no active bleed)?

Propanolol (nadolol; beta blocker prevents recurrent bleeding)

157

A pt with an upper GI bleed with hx of abdominal aortic aneurysm repair in last 6 months most likely suffers from ...

aortoenteric fistula

158

A pt presents with mid-epigastric pain that radiates to the back with tenderness, nausea, vomiting most likely suffers from ...

acute pancreatitis

159

What is the initial best test for suspected pancreatitis?

amylase and lipase

160

What is the most accurate test for severity pancreatitis?

CT scan (better than ranson criteria- leukocytosis, LDH, AST, BUN, glucose, hypoxia, hypocalcemia; to determine if surgery)

161

If CT scan shows severe necrosis of pancreas in pancreatitis, what is the next best step in management?

1. give antibiotics (imipenem)
2. percutaneous needle biopsy

162

... is blue discoloration around umbilicus due to hemoperitoneum and is a sign of ....

Cullen sign; severe necrotizing pancreatitis

163

... is bluish purple discoloration of the flanks due to tissue catabolism of hemoglobin and is a sign of ....

Turner's sign; severe necrotizing pancreatitis

164

What is the best treatment for acute pancreatitis that is not necrotizing?

NPO (bowel rest) and IV fluids

165

What is a common complication of pancreatitis that occurs withing 2-4 weeks of acute episode?

pseudocyst
(drain if enlarging, rupture, pain, fistula formation)

166

What are signs/symptoms of cirrhosis? (6)

1. hypoalbuminemia (ascites, edema)
2. elevated PT (decrease in clotting factors)
3. spider angiomata, palmar erythema
4. asterixis
5. portal hypertension (causes varices)
6. encephalopathy
7. splenomegaly (thrombocytopenia)

167

What is the treatment for the ascites and edema associated with cirrhosis?

spironolactone (decrease aldosterone effects from intravascular volume depletion)

168

What is the treatment for the encephalopathy associated with cirrhosis?

lactulose (binds uremic acid and eliminates)

169

What clotting factors are not made in the liver?

1.factor 8
2. von willebrand factor

170

What is the treatment for prolonged PT in the setting of active bleeding?

fresh frozen plasma

171

What SAAG?

difference between serum-ascites albumin gradient
(high in portal hypertension- low albumin in ascites)

172

What happens to SAAG in portal hypertension?

high b/c albumin in ascites is low

173

What happens to SAAG in spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

high

174

What is the diagnostic criteria for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)?

1. WBC >500 in ascitic fluid
2. neutrophils >250 in ascitic fluid

175

What is the treatment of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP)?

1. cefotaxime (renal metabolized)
2. ceftriaxone (liver metabolized)
(w/ albumin transfusion)

176

What liver disease is associated with inflammatory bowel disease?

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

177

A middle-age female presents with pruritis and elevated alkaline phosphatase most likely suffers from ...

primary biliary cirrhosis

178

What antibodies are associated with primary biliary cirrhosis?

anti-mitochondrial antibodies

179

A pt presents with pruritis and elevated alkaline phosphatase and a hx of inflammatory bowel disease most likely suffers from ...

primary sclerosing cholangitis

180

What is the most accurate test for primary sclerosing cholangits?

ERCP (tortusity and beading of biliary system)

181

What is the treatment for primary sclerosing cholangitis and primary biliary cirrhosis?

1. cholestyramine
2. urosdeoxycholic acid

182

What is the initial diagnostic test for chronic hep C?

anti-hep C antibodies
PCR hep C viral load

183

What is the initial diagnostic test for Wilson's disease?

1. ceruloplasmin (low)
(high urinary copper level)
2. slit lamp exam for kayser fleischer rings

184

What is the initial diagnostic test for Hemochromatosis?

Iron studies (elevated iron, decreased TIBC, increased ferritin)

185

A pt with a young non-smoker with emphysema and liver diease most likely suffers from ...

Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

186

What is the treatment for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

replace enzyme

187

A pt presenting with liver disease, skin hyperpigmentation, insulin intolerance/ diabetes, and restrictive cardiomyopathy most likely suffers from ....

Hemochromatosis
(liver, heart, pancreas, skin, joints, infertility)

188

What infections are common in patient with Hemochromatosis?

1. Vibro vulnificus
2. Yersinia

189

A pt presents with liver disease, movement disorder and eye problems most likely suffers from ...

Wilson's Disease
(liver, movement due to basal ganglia, Kayser Fleischer rings)

190

What is the treatment for Hemochromatosis?

phlebotomy

191

What is the treatment for Wilson's disease?

copper chelators (penicillamine, trientine)

192

What is the diagnostic criteria for chronic hep B infection?

hep B surface antigen for more than 6 months