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Pathophysiology > Gould's Test Bank Q's > Flashcards

Gould's Test Bank Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What actions causes the atrioventricular (AV) valves to close?

A

Increased intraventricular pressure

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2
Q

When stroke volume decreases, which of the following could maintain cardiac output?

A

Increased heart rate

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3
Q

Describe the pericardial cavity- it is a

A

It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid

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4
Q

Which factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?

A

Forceful action of the valves in the veins

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5
Q

The function of the baroreceptors is to:

A

signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood pressure.

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6
Q

The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for:

A

completing ventricular filling.

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7
Q

Increased heart rate and force of contraction is a result of increased secretion of :

A

epinephrine

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8
Q

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system causes increased:

A

heart rate

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9
Q

The cardiac reserve is:

A

the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed.

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10
Q

The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is:

A

ventricular depolarization.

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11
Q

The term preload refers to:

A

volume of venous return.

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12
Q

The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the:

A

coronary arteries.

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13
Q

Cardiac output refers to:

A

the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute

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14
Q

Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from:

A

relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles.

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15
Q

hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) drug __________ sodium and fluid retention in the body?

A

decrease

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16
Q

Damaged blood vessel walls
Immobility
Prosthetic valves

are predisposing factors to ___________ formation in the circulation?

A

thrombus

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17
Q

acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is a drug taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce ___________ adhesion

A

platelet

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18
Q

A partial obstruction in a coronary artery will likely cause:

A

angina attacks

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19
Q

Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because smoking:

A

promotes platelet adhesion.

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20
Q

The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to: degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in ____________________

A

small arteries.

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21
Q

A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:

A

leading a sedentary lifestyle.

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22
Q

An atheroma develops from:
accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial __________ has occurred.

A

injury

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23
Q

Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) promote ______________ development

A

atheroma

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24
Q

Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT:

eating a large meal.
engaging in an angry argument.
taking a nap.
shoveling snow on a cold, windy day.

A

taking a nap.

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25
Q

When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true?

Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of _______________ ; the pain of MI is not.

A

nitroglycerin

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26
Q

The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as: total obstruction of a _________________________ , which causes myocardial necrosis.

A

coronary artery

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27
Q

Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include:

persistent chest pain radiating to the _______ arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse.

A

left

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28
Q

The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is: _______________ involving an attached thrombus.

A

atherosclerosis

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29
Q

Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in: reducing cardiac and smooth muscle _______________

A

contractions

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30
Q

The most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction is: cardiac arrhythmias and _____________.

A

fibrillation

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31
Q

Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest? Insufficient blood is supplied to the _________________.

A

myocardium

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32
Q

The term cardiac arrest refers to the ________________ of all cardiac function

A

cessation

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33
Q

Uncontrolled essential ________________ is most likely to cause left-sided congestive heart failure

A

hypertension

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34
Q

The definition of congestive heart failure is: inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the ____________ needs of the body.

A

metabolic

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35
Q

The outcome for many aortic aneurysms is: rupture and ______________.

A

hemorrhage

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36
Q

A common adverse effect of many antihypertensive medications is: orthostatic _________________.

A

hypotension

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37
Q

The most common factor predisposing to the development of varicose veins is: increased _________ pressure

A

venous

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38
Q

More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:

A

an embolus.

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39
Q

. A very rapid heart rate reduces cardiac output because:
ventricular filling is ____________.

A

reduced

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40
Q

In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they: reduce renin and ______________ secretion.

A

aldosterone

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41
Q

Septic shock is frequently caused by infections involving: gram-___________ endotoxin-producing bacteria

A

negative

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42
Q

The maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration is termed the:

_______ capacity

A

vital

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43
Q

which applies to the blood in the pulmonary artery?

PO2 is _____

A

low.

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44
Q

Epinephrine causes __________dilation

A

broncho

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45
Q

Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli to the blood because: PO2 is _________ in the blood.

A

lower

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46
Q

Carbon dioxide is primarily transported in the blood: as _____________ ion.

A

bicarbonate

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47
Q

What would result from hyperventilation?
Respiratory ___________

A

alkalosis

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48
Q

What would be the most effective compensation for respiratory acidosis?
The kidneys producing more ____________ ions

A

bicarbonate

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49
Q

The production of yellowish-green, cloudy, thick sputum is often an indication of _____________ infection.

A

bacterial

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50
Q

hemoptysis refers to _______________ streaks of blood in frothy sputum

A

Bright red

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51
Q

Orthopnea is: difficulty breathing when ________________

A

lying down.

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52
Q

What are early signs and symptoms of infectious rhinitis?

Serous nasal _____________, congestion, and sneezing

A

discharge

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53
Q

Why does the influenza virus cause recurrent infection in individuals?
Viral mutation reduces _____________ from prior infections.

A

immunity

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54
Q

What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis

Sudden ______, sore throat, and drooling saliva

A

fever

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55
Q

Rust-colored sputum in a patient with pneumonia usually indicates:
_______________ pneumoniae is the infecting agent.

A

Streptococcus

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56
Q

What is the cause of Legionnaires disease?

A gram-_____________ bacterium

A

negative

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57
Q

TB is usually caused by an acid-fast bacillus, resistant to many ______________.

A

disinfectants

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58
Q

Histoplasmosis is caused by a:

A

fungus.

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59
Q

The basic pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is centered on a/an: defect of the ___________ glands

A

exocrine

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60
Q

Growth and development of a child with cystic fibrosis may be delayed because of: mucus plugs obstructing the flow of _____________ enzymes.

A

pancreatic

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61
Q

What is a sign indicating total obstruction of the airway by aspirated material? Rapid loss of _________________

A

consciousness

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62
Q

Which of the following predisposes to postoperative aspiration?

_____________ caused by drugs or anesthesia

A

Vomiting

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63
Q

What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?

Chronic irritation, inflammation, and recurrent infection of the _________________

A

larger airways

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64
Q

Which of the following is typical of chronic bronchitis? Fibrosis of the ___________ wall

A

bronchial

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65
Q

When does flail chest usually occur? Several ______ are fractured at two sites.

A

ribs

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66
Q

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a/an:

A

coronavirus.

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67
Q

In addition to effects on the lungs and pancreas, cystic fibrosis results in:

high ___________ chloride content in saliva and sweat.

A

sodium

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68
Q

Which of the following is a significant early sign of bronchogenic carcinoma in a smoker?

A

Hemoptysis and weight loss

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69
Q

Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric
acid?

Parietal cells
Chief cells
Mucous cells
Gastrin cells

A

Parietal cells

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70
Q

Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Ileum
d. Ascending colon

A

c. Ileum

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71
Q

When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of
pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?

A

Secretin

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72
Q

________ breaks protein down into peptides

A

Trypsin

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73
Q

_______ nerve stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract

A

Vagus

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74
Q

In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so
as to support the functions of the structure?

A

Liver

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75
Q

Glycogenesis is likely to occur in the body immediately after __________

A

a meal

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76
Q

What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?

Formation of __________ from protein and fat

A

glucose

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77
Q

________ salts emulsify lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins

A

bile

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78
Q

The visceral peritoneum forms the outer covering of the __________.

A

stomach

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78
Q

Yellow or greenish stained vomitus usually indicates the presence of

A

bile

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79
Q

The early stage of vomiting causes:
metabolic _________

A

alkalosis

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80
Q

What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
Increased intra-abdominal ___________

A

pressure

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81
Q

Which of the following individuals is likely to develop acute gastritis?

a. A long-term, heavy cigarette smoker
b. Patient with arthritis taking enteric-coated aspirin on a daily basis
c. A person with an autoimmune reaction in the gastric mucosa
d. An individual with an allergy to shellfish

A

d. An individual with an allergy to shellfish

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82
Q

What is frequently the first manifestation of stress ulcers?

A

Hematemesis [vomiting blood]

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83
Q

How does iron deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?

Chronic _____________ in stools

A

blood loss

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83
Q

A gluten-free diet as required for the client with celiac disease means avoiding:

A

certain grains.

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84
Q

hepatitis A Is transmitted by the ____________ route.

A

fecal-oraL

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84
Q

Bilirubin is a product of hemolysis of __________________ and breakdown of hemoglobin.

A

red blood cells (RBCs)

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84
Q

What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?

____________ infection has developed.

A

Chronic

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84
Q

What does a vegetative state refer to?

Loss of awareness and intellectual function but continued ____________ function

A

brainstem

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84
Q

What is the most common type of hepatitis transmitted by blood transfusion?

A

HCV

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84
Q

What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?

Decreased production of blood _____________ factors

A

clotting

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84
Q

What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Idiopathic

[spontaneous/ unknown]

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84
Q

What is a major function of the limbic system?
Determines ___________ responses

A

emotional

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85
Q

Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
damage to the intestinal _________ .

A

villi

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85
Q

Which of the following is the usual location of language centers?

______ hemisphere

A

Left

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85
Q

To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

A

Liver

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85
Q

What does the term melena mean?

Blood in a _________-colored stool

A

dark

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86
Q

_____________ usually develops with hepatocellular carcinoma.

A

Jaundice

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86
Q

Although many factors may precipitate pancreatitis, the two major causes are:

gallstones and ___________ abuse

A

alcohol

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86
Q

Which factor(s) appear(s) to have a role in the etiology of inflammatory bowel diseases?

__________ and immunological factors

A

Genetic

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86
Q

A viral infection of the parotid gland is commonly known as:

A

mumps

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87
Q

What is the best definition of aphasia?

The inability to comprehend or express ____________ appropriately

A

language

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88
Q

What is the rationale for vomiting in a patient who has increased intracranial pressure?

Pressure on the _________ center in the medulla

A

emetic

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89
Q

Primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the __________

A

CNS.

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90
Q

Secondary brain tumors usually arise from:

metastasized breast or ________ tumors.

A

lung

91
Q

In cases of Guillain-Barr syndrome, what does the pathophysiology include?
Inflammation and demyelination of ______________ nerves, leading to ascending paralysis

A

peripheral

92
Q

What does the term otorrhea mean?
CSF leaking from the _______ .

A

ear

93
Q

The primary reason for seizures frequently occurring with head injuries is:

presence of blood irritates the ___________

A

neurons

94
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of generalized seizures?

The uncontrolled discharge of __________ in both hemispheres

A

neurons

95
Q

Which of the following is a typical early sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
Weakness and muscle atrophy in _________ limbs

A

upper

96
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by:

infection in the brain by a _________.

A

prion

97
Q

Huntingtons disease is diagnosed by:

A

DNA analysis.

98
Q

What kind of control mechanism is indicated when increased blood glucose levels stimulate
increased secretion of insulin?

_________ feedback control

A

Negative

99
Q

What is the most common cause of endocrine disorders?

A

Benign tumor

100
Q

Choose the statement that applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Onset often occurs during _____________.

A

childhood

101
Q

Which may cause insulin shock to develop?

A

Strenuous exercise

102
Q

Diabetes may cause visual impairment through damage to the lens; this is referred to as:

A

cataracts

103
Q

Which of the following hormonal imbalances causes Addisons disease?

Decreased _________________

A

glucocorticoids

104
Q

Which hormonal imbalances causes diabetes insipidus?
Deficit of _______

A

ADH

105
Q

Dwarfism is caused by:

a deficit of _______________

A

somatotropin (GH).

106
Q

Which is caused by Graves disease?

A

Hypermetabolism

107
Q

Goiters may be caused by:

A

either hypothyroid or hyperthyroid conditions

108
Q

Which of the following is a major function of the hormone norepinephrine?

Visceral and cutaneous _______________

A

vasoconstriction

109
Q

Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means:

A

hunger.

110
Q

Which hormones is involved in both the stress response and the antiinflammatory response?

A

Cortisol

111
Q

Polydipsia occurs with diabetes mellitus when:
__________ causes dehydration.

A

polyuria

112
Q

Catabolic effects of Cushings syndrome include:

A

osteoporosis.

113
Q

Which of the following describes the correct flow of blood in the kidney?

Afferent arteriole to the _______________________ to the efferent arteriole

A

glomerular capillaries

114
Q

Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?

Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the : ______________ > _______________

A

ureter to the bladder

115
Q

Three openings from the ___________________ form the trigone.

A

urinary bladder

116
Q

Under what circumstances do cells in the kidneys secrete renin?

A

Blood flow in the afferent arteriole decreases

117
Q

Involuntary urination by a child after age 4 or 5, when bladder control is expected, is referred
to as:

A

enuresis

118
Q

Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?

A

Cystitis

119
Q

Renal disease frequently causes hypertension because:
congestion and ischemia stimulate release of __________ .

A

renin

120
Q

Wilms tumor is a ___________ defect

A

genetic

121
Q

Cystitis is more common in females because:
the ______________ is short, wide, and adjacent to areas with resident flora.

A

urethra

122
Q

The normal pH of urine is:

A

4.5- 8.0.

123
Q

Wilms tumor is:
an encapsulated mass in one ___________ .

A

kidney

124
Q

Urine with a low specific gravity is usually related to:renal failure due to ________ damage

A

tubule

125
Q

Excess urea and other nitrogen wastes in the blood is referred to as:

A

azotemia.

126
Q

The potential unwanted, usually damaging outcomes of a primary condition or disease, such as paralysis following recovery from a stroke, are referred to as:

A

Sequelae

127
Q

The maintaining of a relatively stable internal environment by the body is called

A

Homeostasis

128
Q

An area of dead cells resulting from a lack of oxygen, where the function of the tissue or organ may be lost, is called a(n):

A

Infarction

129
Q

The study of the physiologic (functional) changes as a result of a disease process is:

A

Pathophysiology

130
Q

The number of new cases of a disease in a given population noted within a stated time period indicates the __________________ of a disease.

A

incidence

131
Q

The term used to refer to undifferentiated cells that have variable nuclei and cell structures and is the basis for grading a tumor is:

A

Anaplasia

132
Q

A factor that can trigger an acute episode of a condition or disease is referred to as a(n):
_____________ factor

A

Precipitating

133
Q

Neoplasm means “new growth” and is commonly called a:

A

Tumor

134
Q

_______________________ indicate(s) a high risk for the development of a certain disease or condition but not the certain development of the disease.

A

Predisposing factors

135
Q

Prevention of a disease is linked to both the _______________________________ for a specific
disease.

A

etiology and predisposing factors

136
Q

Renal failure or the excessive loss of bicarbonate through severe diarrhea can result in the body pH imbalance referred to as:

A

Metabolic acidosis

137
Q

Hypokalemia can cause an irregular, abnormal cardiac rhythm referred to as:

A

Dysrhythmias

138
Q

Typical causes of dehydration include vomiting, excessive sweating, use of concentrated supplements, and: diabetic

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

139
Q

Two thirds of the water in humans is contained in this fluid compartment:

A

Intracellular

140
Q

Decrease in bone density, especially in weight-bearing areas, and depression of
neuromuscular activity are typical symptoms of the electrolyte imbalance referred to as:

A

Hypercalcemia

141
Q

Drugs that cause increased excretion of water through the kidneys and urine production are classified as:

A

Diuretics

142
Q

Hypoparathyroidism and malabsorption with effects such as tetany are characteristic of the electrolyte imbalance referred to as:

A

Hypocalcemia

143
Q

Hyperventilation as a result of high anxiety or high fever may result in a pH imbalance referred to as: Respiratory ____________

A

alkalosis

144
Q

The condition of high serum potassium levels as a result of renal failure is referred to as:

A

Hyperkalemia

145
Q

Low sodium levels that may be caused by excessive sweating, vomiting, or diarrhea is a condition referred to as:

A

Hyponatremia

146
Q

Pain that lasts several months, often doesn’t respond to pain therapy, and often has an unknown cause is referred to as: __________ pain

A

Chronic

147
Q

Unmyelinated fibers that are involved in the transmission of chronic pain and thus transmit pain impulses slowly are: ___ fibers

A

C

148
Q

Pain that originates in the skin, bone, or muscles and is conducted by sensory fibers is called:

A

Somatic pain

149
Q

Nociceptors are: ______________ nerve endings

A

Free sensory

150
Q

The level of stimulation required to perceive pain is called the pain:

A

Threshold

151
Q

A type of general anesthesia where the patient can respond to commands but is unaware of the procedure and does not experience any discomfort is called:

A

neuroleptanesia

152
Q

Myelinated nerve fibers that rapidly transmit acute pain information from the sensory fibers to the central nervous system are:

A

A Delta fibers

152
Q

The tract in the spinothalamic bundle that carries slower impulses for chronic or dull pain is the: ____________________ tract

A

Paleospinothalamic

153
Q

The system that informs the brain of incoming pain stimuli is the:
_________ activating system

A

Reticular

154
Q

Pain that originates in the organs and is conducted by sympathetic fibers is called:
____________ pain

A

Visceral

155
Q

First-aid directives for injury-related inflammation often recommends this four-step approach:

A

Rest, ice, compression, elevation

156
Q

When scar tissue restricts the range of movement in a joint, which may eventually result in fixation or a deformity of the joint, this is referred to as: ____ contracture

A

A

157
Q

The growth of children is often affected during the acute phase of burn recovery due to Compromised: __________ needs

A

metabolic

158
Q

A small nodular area of cells and/or debris that forms in injured tissue that becomes chronically inflamed is called:

A

granuloma

159
Q

Increased numbers of _______________ usually indicate an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection.

A

eosinophils

159
Q

This group of drugs consists of natural or synthetic steroids (such as hydrocortisone) that are extensively used in the treatment of various inflammatory disorders but that also have significant undesirable side effects such as promoting osteoporosis.

A

Glucocorticoids

159
Q

An open, painful, usually craterlike sore that often results from a severe or prolonged inflammation is called:

A

An ulcer

159
Q

When leukocytes move in the direction of a chemical stimulus to the inflammation site, this process is called:

A

Chemotaxis

160
Q

A method for rapid calculation of the percentage of the body affected by burns that assigns a numerical value to body parts and regions is called the:

A

Rule of Nines

160
Q

The sensation of pain in the inflammatory response activates mast cells and basophils to release:

A

Histamines

161
Q

That period when an infectious disease develops fully and all clinical manifestations appear is called the:

A

Acute period

162
Q

Spherical or ball-shaped bacteria are classified as:

A

Cocci

163
Q

The capacity of an organism to cause disease Is referred to as its:

A

Pathogenicity

164
Q

The period of time between entry of the organism and appearance of clinical signs is called the: ____________ period

A

Incubation

164
Q

Viruses that specifically infect bacteria are called:

A

Bacteriophages

165
Q

The mode of action of antimicrobial drugs in which the organisms are not killed but their growth is inhibited is referred to as:

A

Microbiostatic

166
Q

A type of diagnostic test that determines effective antibiotic dose for treating a specific infection is called the: __________________________ Concentration method

A

Minimum Inhibitory

167
Q

A dangerous condition in the case of a systemic
infection in which pathogens are circulating and reproducing in the blood is referred to as:

A

Septicemia

167
Q

Malaria is an example of what type of infection?

A

Protozoal

168
Q

Fungal infections in which a normally harmless resident fungus becomes a pathogen is called a(n): ____________ infection

A

Opportunistic

169
Q

The type of leukocyte that contains chemical mediators and plays an important part in allergic and inflammatory responses is the:

A

Basophil

169
Q

One of the most significant differences between the primary and secondary immune response is that the: Secondary response happens __________ than the primary

A

faster

170
Q

Cells that are responsible for long-term immunity because of the recognition of antigens that have previously activated the immune system are called: __________ cells

A

Memory

171
Q

The two forms of lymphocytes are the:

A

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

171
Q

The type of lymphocyte responsible for the production of antibodies (immunoglobulins) is the:

A

B lymphocyte

172
Q

Immunodeficiency predisposes individuals to infections in general but particularly to microorganisms that are:

A

Opportunistic

173
Q

A group of genes that are responsible for the production of self-antigens is called the:
Major _________________ complex

A

histocompatibility

174
Q

The immunoglobulin that is found in tears and saliva is:

A

IgA

175
Q

Transplant involving the replacement of a heart valve with a pig heart valve is an example of:
A _____________

A

xenograft

176
Q

The body’s capacity to respond and defend against the presence of any foreign substances is called:

A

Immunity

177
Q

The percentage of blood composed of RBCs is referred to as the:

A

Hematocrit

178
Q

The development of blood cells is called:

A

Hematopoiesis

179
Q

The term for whole blood minus cells and clotting elements (fibrinogen) is:

A

Serum

179
Q

A neoplastic blood disorder in which one or more types of leucocytes are undifferentiated, immature, or nonfunctional is referred to as:

A

Leukemia

180
Q

The blood disorder characterized by an overproduction of erythrocytes and other cells in the bone marrow is referred to as:

A

Polycythemia

180
Q

One of the signs/symptoms of aplastic anemia is flat, red, pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin that bleed excessively and are referred to as:

A

Thrombocytopenia

181
Q

An anemia characterized by large, immature, nucleated erythrocytes is called ________________
anemia

A

Megaloblastic

182
Q

A venous disorder in which a thrombus forms spontaneously in a vein without prior inflammation is referred to as:

A

Phlebothrombosis

182
Q

Leukocytes that can enter the tissue and become macrophages are called:

A

Monocytes

183
Q

The most common inherited disorder that is caused by a deficit or abnormality of clotting factor VIII is referred to as:

A

Hemophilia A

183
Q

A syndrome that is caused by inadequate cell production by the bone marrow, and that can occur after chemotherapy or radiation treatment, is referred to as: ________________ syndrome

A

Myeloplastic

184
Q

Prenatal diagnosis of thalassemia can be done by:

A

Chorionic villus assay and amniocentesis

184
Q

Microscopically, the erythrocytes appear hypochromic and microcytic in the case of:

A

Iron deficiency anemia

185
Q

The narrowing of an aortic or pulmonary valve that restricts the forward blood flow is referred to as:

A

Stenosis

186
Q

Heart block occurs when the conduction is excessively delayed or stopped at the:
AV node and bundle of ____

A

His

186
Q

Infective endocarditis, formerly called bacterial endocarditis, occurs in two forms:

A

Subacute and acute

186
Q

The primary cause of septic shock is:

A

Infection

186
Q

Plaques consisting of lipids, cells, fibrin, and debris, often with attached thrombi that can obstruct arteries and arterioles, are referred to as:

A

Atheroma’s

187
Q

The combined abnormalities of pulmonary valve stenosis, ventricular septal defect, dextroposition of the aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy are part of the congenital abnormality known as: __________ of Fallot

A

Tetralogy

187
Q

A condition in which the extremities swell due to an obstruction of the lymphatic vessels is called:

A

lymphedema

188
Q

Rheumatic fever is an acute systemic inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication of infection by: Group A _______________

A

Streptococcus

189
Q

Structural defects of the heart that generally develop during the first 8 weeks of embryonic life are referred to as: ___________ heart defects

A

Congenital

190
Q

A neoplastic disorder that involves malignant plasma cells that replace the bone marrow and erodes bone is referred to as: Multiple ____________

A

myeloma

191
Q

The two types of Castleman Disease are:

A

unicentric and multicentric

192
Q

The passage of fluid, solid particles, or vomitus into the trachea and lungs is referred to as:

A

Aspiration

193
Q

A form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease that is an abnormal, permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles is called:

A

Emphysema

194
Q

Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a result of: Diffuse __________ and epithelial
damage

A

alveolar

194
Q

Some typical chronic complications of diabetes include: ______________ and infections

A

Neuropathy

195
Q

In the blood, about 99% of the oxygen is: Bound to the _______________

A

hemoglobin

196
Q

The cough reflex is controlled by the center for coughing in the: Medulla __________

A

oblongata

196
Q

Influenza (the flu) is caused by a virus and is spread mainly by person to person by :

A

coughing/sneezing

196
Q

The amount of air moving in and out of the lungs with normal breathing is referred to as the: ________ volume

A

Tidal

197
Q

Bronchiolitis, a common infection in young children, is caused by: _____________ syncytial virus

A

Respiratory

197
Q

A subjective sensation of discomfort when a person is unable to inhale enough air is referred to as:

A

Dyspnea

197
Q

Deep, harsh breathing sounds resulting from thick mucus are referred to as:

A

Rhonchi

198
Q

The primary control centers for breathing are located in the: Medulla oblongata and the _______

A

pons

198
Q

Inappropriate ADH syndrome causes excess fluid retention and is caused by:
Excess _______________ of ADH

A

release

198
Q

A severe form of hypothyroidism that occurs in adults and results in hypotension, hypoglycemia, and loss of consciousness is called:

A

Myxedema

198
Q

When sputum is thick, yellowish-green, and cloudy, it is often an indication of:
_________________ infection

A

Bacterial

198
Q

An adrenal cortex disorder most commonly caused by an autoimmune reaction and resulting in a deficiency of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens is called:

A

Addison’s disease

198
Q

The release of hormones is controlled by a feedback system involving: A sensor, an integrating center, and an ____________

A

effector

198
Q

The part of the adrenal gland that releases epinephrine (adrenalin) and norepinephrine (noradrenalin) upon stimulation is the:

A

Adrenal medulla

199
Q

Type 2 diabetes used to be referred to as: ___________________ diabetes

A

Mature onset

200
Q

_______parathyroidism may be caused by: Problems following surgery, an autoimmune disorder, or congenital defects

A

Hypo

201
Q

The three sections of the large intestine, in order from the ascending colon to the anus, are:

A

Transverse, descending, sigmoid

202
Q

A common complication associated with digestive system disorders involves a significant change in the balance of:

A

Acids/bases and electrolytes

203
Q

The activities of the digestive system are under: Neural and _____________ control

A

hormonal

204
Q

Hematemesis refers to:

A

Blood in vomit

205
Q

The most common group of drugs that can increase urine output has a mechanism of action that: Inhibits sodium chloride reabsorption in the ___________

A

tubules

206
Q

The actual site of fertilization in a normal pregnancy is the:

A

Fallopian tubes

207
Q

The hormone that is responsible for triggering the release of an ovum is:

A

Luteinizing hormone

208
Q

The majority of pelvic inflammatory disease infections arise from:

A

Sexually transmitted diseases

209
Q

The presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus on structures such as the ovaries, ligaments, or colon is referred to as:

A

Endometriosis

210
Q

Cells in a malignant tumor appear: As ______________ shaped and varying in size

A

irregularly

211
Q

The most common form of skin cancer is: ________ cell carcinoma

A

Basal

212
Q

The process by which normal cells are transformed into cancer cells is called:

A

Carcinogenesis

213
Q

A chromosomal disorder in which there is a third #21 chromosome is called:

A

Down syndrome

214
Q

Infections are common in the elderly, primarily as a result of: Poor ______________ , which impairs the immune response

A

circulation

215
Q

One common change in the urinary system that is a result of the aging process, frequent nighttime urination, is termed: _____________

A

Nocturia

216
Q

Some changes in the cardiovascular system that are often a result of the aging process are a decrease in size and number of cardiac muscle fibers, accumulation of collagen fibers in heart muscle, and: ______________ of the heart valves

A

Thickening

Pathophysiology (23 decks)

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