GOUT AND IMMUNOPHARMACOLOGY Flashcards

(28 cards)

1
Q

What causes gout?

A

Increased uric acid due to overproduction (10%) or underexcretion (90%), leading to monosodium urate crystal deposition in joints and tissues

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2
Q

What enzyme does allopurinol inhibit and what is its effect?

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor; decreases uric acid synthesis

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3
Q

What are the key adverse effects of allopurinol?

A

Rash, hypersensitivity, GIT upset, interaction with azathioprine/mercaptopurine

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4
Q

What is colchicine’s mechanism of action?

A

Inhibits microtubule polymerization in neutrophils, reducing migration and inflammation

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5
Q

What is the maximum colchicine dose during acute gout?

A

2.5 mg in 24 hours; not more than 6 mg over 4 days

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6
Q

What drug interactions affect colchicine?

A

CYP3A4 and P-gp inhibitors increase toxicity risk (e.g. macrolides, cyclosporine)

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7
Q

What is probenecid’s mechanism and contraindication?

A

Inhibits URAT1 transporter, increasing uric acid excretion; contraindicated in renal failure, urate nephropathy

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8
Q

What is the MOA of glucocorticoids?

A

Bind cytoplasmic receptors → translocate to nucleus → bind GREs → inhibit cytokines, COX-2, phospholipase A2

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9
Q

Key side effects of long-term glucocorticoid use?

A

Osteoporosis, Cushingoid features, adrenal suppression, hypertension, diabetes, infections

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10
Q

Why taper glucocorticoids after long-term use?

A

To prevent adrenal insufficiency due to HPA axis suppression

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11
Q

Prednisone vs. prednisolone?

A

Prednisone is a prodrug; converted to active prednisolone in the liver

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12
Q

Examples of Glucocorticoids?

A

hydrocortisone
prednisone
prednisolone
methylprednisolone
dexamethasone
betamethasone

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13
Q

MOA, class and roles of cyclosporine and tacrolimus?

A

Calcineurin inhibitors; prophylaxis and treatment of transplant rejection; Inhibit calcineurin → block NFAT activation → ↓ IL-2 → ↓ T-cell activation

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14
Q

Pharmacokinetics of cyclosporine?

A

Low, variable oral bioavailability; CYP3A4 metabolism; excreted in bile

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15
Q

What is the main adverse effect of calcineurin inhibitors?

A

Nephrotoxicity; also hypertension, neurotoxicity, hyperglycaemia

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16
Q

Key counselling point for tacrolimus?

A

Avoid food at administration; therapeutic drug monitoring needed

17
Q

MOA, class and roles of mycophenolate mofetil?

A

Antiproliferative agent; antimetabolite; Inhibits IMPDH → ↓ guanine synthesis → ↓ lymphocyte proliferation and function

18
Q

What is the key adverse effect of mycophenolate?

A

Myelosuppression, GI upset, infections, teratogenic

19
Q

MOA, class and role of sirolimus and everolimus?

A

mTOR inhibitors; antimetabolite; Bind FKBP-12 → inhibit mTOR → block cytokine-driven T-cell proliferation

20
Q

Adverse effects of sirolimus/everolimus?

A

Hyperlipidaemia, mouth ulcers, myelosuppression, pneumonitis (sirolimus)

21
Q

MOA of methotrexate?

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase → ↓ thymidylate and purine synthesis → ↓ lymphocyte proliferation

22
Q

Methotrexate toxicity and monitoring?

A

Hepatotoxicity, myelosuppression, stomatitis; monitor LFTs, FBC, U&E

23
Q

Azathioprine metabolism and implication?

A

Converted to 6-MP then 6-TG; TPMT deficiency increases toxicity risk

24
Q

Cyclophosphamide toxicity?

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis (acrolein), sterility, myelosuppression; use mesna + fluids

25
MOA of rituximab?
Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody → B cell depletion → ↓ cytokines and antigen presentation
26
Adverse effects of rituximab?
Infusion reactions, rash, reactivation of TB and Hep B
27
MOA of baricitinib?
JAK1/3 inhibitor → blocks JAK-STAT pathway → anti-inflammatory effects
28
MOA of basiliximab?
Anti-CD25 → blocks IL-2 mediated T cell activation; used in transplant induction therapy