Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PHARMACOLOGY 2ND YEAR > PHARMACODYNAMICS > Flashcards

PHARMACODYNAMICS Flashcards

(98 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is pharmacodynamics?

A

The study of how drugs affect the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

True or False: Pharmacodynamics involves the mechanism of action of drugs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fill in the blank: The primary focus of pharmacodynamics is on the __________ of drugs.

A

effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the term ‘receptor’ refer to in pharmacodynamics?

A

A protein molecule that receives chemical signals from drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define ‘agonist’ in the context of pharmacodynamics.

A

A substance that activates a receptor to produce a biological response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define ‘antagonist’ in pharmacodynamics.

A

A substance that binds to a receptor but does not activate it, blocking the action of agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the significance of the dose-response relationship?

A

It describes the relationship between the dose of a drug and the magnitude of its effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: A higher dose of a drug always results in a greater effect.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is ‘potency’ in pharmacodynamics?

A

The amount of drug needed to produce a specific effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define ‘efficacy’ in the context of pharmacodynamics.

A

The maximum effect that can be achieved with a drug, regardless of dose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between ‘selectivity’ and ‘specificity’?

A

‘Selectivity’ refers to a drug’s preference for a particular receptor, while ‘specificity’ refers to the ability to produce a desired effect without unwanted effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the term for the concentration of a drug at which 50% of its maximum effect is observed?

A

EC50 (Effective Concentration 50)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ is the measurement of the safety of a drug.

A

therapeutic index

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does a high therapeutic index indicate?

A

A greater margin of safety for the drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

True or False: Pharmacodynamics is concerned with the absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is ‘tolerance’ in pharmacodynamics?

A

A reduced response to a drug after repeated use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define ‘synergism’ in pharmacodynamics.

A

The interaction between two drugs that produces a greater effect than the sum of their individual effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is ‘antagonism’ in the context of drug interactions?

A

When one drug reduces or counteracts the effect of another drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ effect occurs when the combined effect of two drugs is less than the effect of each drug alone.

A

antagonistic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the role of second messengers in pharmacodynamics?

A

They relay signals from receptors to target molecules inside the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or False: Pharmacodynamics can be influenced by genetic factors.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the primary method by which most drugs exert their effects?

A

By binding to specific receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is ‘desensitization’ in pharmacodynamics?

A

The process by which a receptor becomes less responsive to a drug after prolonged exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define ‘inverse agonist’.

A

A substance that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but induces a pharmacological response opposite to that of the agonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is an agonist?
An agonist is a substance that activates a receptor to produce a biological response.
26
What are the two main types of agonists?
The two main types of agonists are full agonists and partial agonists.
27
True or False: Full agonists produce a maximal response at a receptor.
True
28
What is a partial agonist?
A partial agonist binds to a receptor but produces a weaker response than a full agonist.
29
What does the dose-response curve represent?
The dose-response curve represents the relationship between the dose of a drug and the magnitude of its effect.
30
What does 'affinity' refer to in pharmacology?
Affinity refers to the strength of the binding between a drug and its receptor.
31
What does 'efficacy' refer to in pharmacology?
Efficacy refers to the ability of a drug to produce a desired therapeutic effect.
32
Fill in the blank: A drug with high affinity and low efficacy is likely to be a __________.
partial agonist
33
What are the four main families of receptors?
The four main families of receptors are ligand-gated ion channels, G protein-coupled receptors, enzyme-linked receptors, and intracellular receptors.
34
Which receptor family is known for rapid signaling via ion flow?
Ligand-gated ion channels
35
True or False: G protein-coupled receptors can activate second messenger systems.
True
36
What type of receptor is typically involved in hormone signaling?
Enzyme-linked receptors
37
Which receptor family is associated with steroid hormone action?
Intracellular receptors
38
What is the significance of the EC50 value in a dose-response curve?
The EC50 value represents the concentration of a drug that produces 50% of its maximal effect.
39
Fill in the blank: A drug that has high efficacy but low affinity may lead to __________.
ineffective treatment
40
What type of agonist can activate a receptor but also block the effect of full agonists?
Inverse agonist
41
True or False: All agonists have the same efficacy.
False
42
What does a steep dose-response curve indicate?
A steep dose-response curve indicates a small change in dose can lead to a large change in effect.
43
What is the primary function of G protein-coupled receptors?
To relay signals from outside the cell to the inside through G proteins.
44
Fill in the blank: __________ receptors are often involved in rapid synaptic transmission.
Ligand-gated ion channel
45
What is a key characteristic of enzyme-linked receptors?
They often have intrinsic enzymatic activity or are associated with enzymes.
46
What role do second messengers play in receptor signaling?
Second messengers amplify the signal initiated by the receptor activation.
47
True or False: Intracellular receptors can directly affect gene expression.
True
48
What is the relationship between affinity and potency?
Higher affinity generally leads to higher potency, meaning a lower dose is required to achieve a desired effect.
49
Fill in the blank: The __________ curve helps visualize the effectiveness of different doses of a drug.
dose-response
50
What does GPCR stand for?
G protein-coupled receptor
51
Which enzyme is primarily activated by GPCRs to increase cyclic AMP levels?
Adenylyl cyclase
52
True or False: Phospholipase C is responsible for hydrolyzing phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate.
True
53
What second messenger is produced by the action of phospholipase C?
Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG)
54
Fill in the blank: GPCRs can directly influence __________ channels.
Ion
55
Which enzyme is involved in the release of arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids?
Phospholipase A2
56
What small GTPase is activated by GPCR signaling and plays a role in cytoskeleton dynamics?
Rho
57
MAP kinase pathways are often activated by which type of receptors?
G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)
58
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a target of GPCRs? A) Adenylyl Cyclase B) Phospholipase C C) DNA polymerase D) Ion channels
C) DNA polymerase
59
What is the primary function of adenylyl cyclase in GPCR signaling?
To convert ATP to cyclic AMP
60
True or False: Phospholipase A2 is involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins.
True
61
Which signaling pathway is primarily associated with cell growth and differentiation activated by GPCRs?
MAP kinase pathway
62
Fill in the blank: Rho proteins are part of the __________ family of GTPases.
Ras
63
Short answer: What is the role of inositol trisphosphate (IP3) in GPCR signaling?
To stimulate calcium release from the endoplasmic reticulum
64
Which of the following second messengers is generated by phospholipase C? A) cAMP B) IP3 C) DAG D) Both B and C
D) Both B and C
65
True or False: Ion channels can be modulated directly by GPCR activation.
True
66
What cellular processes are influenced by Rho GTPases?
Cell migration, adhesion, and cytoskeletal organization
67
Fill in the blank: The activation of MAP kinases often leads to changes in __________.
Gene expression
68
Short answer: What is the significance of cyclic AMP in GPCR signaling?
It acts as a second messenger to activate protein kinase A (PKA)
69
What type of receptors can activate phospholipase C?
Certain types of G protein-coupled receptors
70
Multiple choice: Which pathway is primarily involved in the regulation of ion channels by GPCRs? A) cAMP pathway B) Phospholipase C pathway C) Rho pathway D) All of the above
D) All of the above
71
True or False: Phospholipase A2 is activated by GPCRs.
True
72
What is the role of diacylglycerol (DAG) in GPCR signaling?
To activate protein kinase C (PKC)
73
Fill in the blank: GPCRs can activate __________ proteins which then modulate various intracellular signaling pathways.
G
74
What is Type 1 hypersensitivity also known as?
Immediate hypersensitivity or anaphylactic reaction.
75
Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?
IgE.
76
What is a common example of a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
Allergic rhinitis (hay fever).
77
True or False: Type 2 hypersensitivity involves the formation of antibodies against cell surface antigens.
True.
78
Which immunoglobulin is primarily involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
IgG and IgM.
79
What is a common example of a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?
Hemolytic anemia.
80
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by immune complexes?
Type 3 hypersensitivity.
81
Fill in the blank: Type 3 hypersensitivity can lead to __________ disease.
systemic lupus erythematosus.
82
Which immunoglobulin is involved in Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
IgG.
83
What is a common example of a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
Serum sickness.
84
What type of hypersensitivity reaction is delayed-type hypersensitivity?
Type 4 hypersensitivity.
85
Which type of immune cells are primarily involved in Type 4 hypersensitivity?
T cells (specifically CD4+ and CD8+ T cells).
86
What is a common example of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction?
Contact dermatitis.
87
True or False: Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions can occur within minutes after exposure to an allergen.
True.
88
What is the time frame for Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions to manifest?
24 to 72 hours after exposure.
89
Fill in the blank: Allergic reactions to bee stings are classified as __________ hypersensitivity.
Type 1.
90
What is the role of mast cells in Type 1 hypersensitivity?
They release histamine and other mediators upon allergen exposure.
91
Which hypersensitivity type is associated with the Arthus reaction?
Type 3 hypersensitivity.
92
What is a distinguishing feature of Type 2 hypersensitivity?
Destruction of target cells by antibodies.
93
True or False: All four types of hypersensitivity reactions involve the immune system.
True.
94
Which hypersensitivity type can lead to chronic inflammation and tissue damage?
Type 4 hypersensitivity.
95
What is the mechanism of action for Type 1 hypersensitivity?
IgE binds to allergens and cross-links on mast cells and basophils.
96
Fill in the blank: __________ hypersensitivity reactions are often referred to as cytotoxic reactions.
Type 2.
97
Which hypersensitivity type is characterized by the formation of immune complexes?
Type 3.
98
What is a common test used to diagnose Type 1 hypersensitivity?
Skin prick test.

PHARMACOLOGY 2ND YEAR (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions