growth and lifespan Flashcards
(247 cards)
1
Q
genotype
A
genetic makeup; language of dominant and recessive traits that inform an organism’s phenotype.
2
Q
phenotype
A
observed characteristics; combination of genotype and environment.
3
Q
Bronfrenbrenner’s ecological models
A
a model that addresses the interconnected environments that all impact a child’s development. consists of the micro, meso, exo, macro, and chrono systems.
4
Q
microsystem
A
the system most immediate to the child.
e.g. their family or classroom
5
Q
mesosystem
A
the interactions between the child’s different environments.
e.g. the relationship between a child’s home and their school.
6
Q
exosystem
A
environments that indirectly impact the child’s life.
e.g. a parent’s workplace.
7
Q
macrosystem
A
the broader cultural context a child lives in.
e.g. cultural practices or governmental shifts
8
Q
chronosystem
A
monumental events that occur within a child’s lifespan that can positively or negatively impact how they develop.
e.g. the birth of a sibling or the death of a parent.
9
Q
Rutter’s indicators of adversity
A
six family risk factors; the more risk factors, the greater likelihood of negative outcomes.
1. severe marital discord
2. low SES
3. overcrowding/large family
4. paternal criminality
5. maternal psychopathology
6. out-of-home care
10
Q
Werner and Smith
A
longitudinal study on resiliency factors in children born with prenatal stress. found that the 3 biggest factors of resiliency were:
1. a stable relationship with a caregiver
2. fewer stressor following birth
3. easy temperament
11
Q
critical period
A
a predetermined, unyielding period of time in which some sort of milestone is expected in biological maturation.
12
Q
sensitive period
A
longer in duration and more flexible than a critical period in which a developmental milestone is expected to be achieved.
13
Q
What does the nature-nurture controversy refer to?
A
Disagreements about the relative roles of genetic and environmental influences on development
Most developmental psychologists agree that both factors play a role, but their emphasis varies.
14
Q
What are the three main mechanisms of inheritance?
A
- Single gene-pair inheritance
- Sex-linked inheritance
- Polygenic inheritance
Each mechanism explains how characteristics are influenced by genetic factors.
15
Q
What is single gene-pair inheritance?
A
Occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a single pair of genes
This can involve two recessive genes or one recessive and one dominant gene.
16
Q
What is sex-linked inheritance?
A
Occurs when a characteristic is influenced by a gene on one of the sex chromosomes, most often the X chromosome
This type of inheritance can result in sex-specific traits.
17
Q
What is polygenic inheritance?
A
Occurs when a characteristic is influenced by multiple genes
Most characteristics, such as height and intelligence, are polygenic.
18
Q
Define heritability estimates.
A
Indicate the extent to which variability in phenotype in a given population is attributable to differences in genotype
Phenotype refers to observed characteristics; genotype refers to genetic inheritance.
19
Q
What does a heritability estimate of .80 for height indicate?
A
80% of variability in height in the population is due to genetic factors
The remaining 20% is attributed to environmental factors.
20
Q
How does socioeconomic status (SES) affect intelligence heritability estimates?
A
- About .10 for young children from low-SES families
- About .70 for young children from high-SES families
This indicates that environmental factors can significantly influence heritability.
21
Q
What have adoption studies shown regarding intelligence and SES?
A
Adopted children from low-SES families raised in high-SES families have higher IQ scores than their siblings who remained in low-SES environments
This suggests that enriched environments and educational opportunities impact intelligence.
22
Q
What were the average IQ scores found in Capron and Duyme’s (1989) study?
A
- High-SES born and adopted: 120
- Low-SES born and adopted by high-SES: 107
- High-SES born and adopted by low-SES: 104
- Low-SES born and adopted: 92
This study illustrates the impact of SES on IQ across different family environments.
23
Q
What is a critical period in the context of environmental impact on development?
A
A limited period of time when exposure to certain environmental events is necessary for development to occur.
Critical periods are essential for certain developmental milestones and if missed, may lead to permanent deficits.
24
Q
How does a sensitive period differ from a critical period?
A
A sensitive period is usually longer than a critical period and is optimal (but not necessary) for certain environmental events to occur.
Sensitive periods allow for development to occur but are not strictly limited in time.
25
What is Bronfenbrenner’s ecological theory?
A theory that describes development as involving interactions between a person and their environment, distinguishing between five environmental systems.
## Footnote
This theory emphasizes the importance of multiple environmental layers affecting development.
26
What does the microsystem include?
The child’s immediate environment, including relationships with parents, siblings, friends, and others at home, school, and church.
## Footnote
The microsystem represents the most direct influences on a child's development.
27
What is the mesosystem?
It refers to interactions between elements of the child’s microsystem, such as family relationships affecting school interactions.
## Footnote
The mesosystem highlights the connections between different microsystems.
28
What elements are included in the exosystem?
Elements that affect the child’s immediate environment, including parents’ workplaces, extended family, and community health services.
## Footnote
The exosystem includes influences that are not directly experienced by the child but still impact their development.
29
Define the macrosystem.
The social and cultural environment, including cultural practices, economic conditions, and political ideologies.
## Footnote
The macrosystem encompasses broader societal factors that influence development.
30
What is the chronosystem?
Environmental events that occur over a person’s lifespan and impact development and circumstances, such as parental divorce or natural disasters.
## Footnote
The chronosystem considers the timing and duration of life events and their effects.
31
What is fetal programming?
The theory that environmental events in utero during sensitive windows of development can have permanent and long-lasting effects.
## Footnote
Fetal programming emphasizes the importance of prenatal conditions on long-term health.
32
Who is associated with the fetal origins hypothesis?
Barker and colleagues, who found links between prenatal undernutrition and increased risk for coronary heart disease and type 2 diabetes in adulthood.
## Footnote
Barker's research laid the foundation for understanding how prenatal conditions affect lifelong health.
33
What adaptations occur due to undernutrition during prenatal development?
Adaptations that sustain a fetus’s development in utero but permanently change the structure and function of organ systems.
## Footnote
These adaptations may predispose the offspring to future health problems.
34
True or False: Prenatal exposure to environmental factors has been linked to increased risk for certain health disorders.
True.
## Footnote
Research indicates that various prenatal exposures can lead to both physical and mental health issues later in life.
35
What is one mechanism that explains the link between maternal stress in utero and future health risks?
Prenatal programming of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
## Footnote
The HPA axis is involved in stress response and can influence cardiovascular, metabolic, and mental health outcomes.
36
What is the average heritability estimate for intelligence?
0.50
## Footnote
This estimate varies with age.
37
How does the heritability estimate for intelligence change with age?
* About 0.20 for infants
* About 0.40 for children and adolescents
* 0.60 to 0.80 for early and middle adulthood
* 0.60 for adults over 80 years of age
## Footnote
These estimates indicate an increasing genetic influence with age.
38
What type of studies confirm the influence of genetics on intelligence?
* Twin studies
* Family studies
* Adoption studies
## Footnote
These studies show that genetic factors significantly affect intelligence.
39
What do adoption studies reveal about the correlation of IQ scores?
Children's IQ scores correlate more with biological parents than adoptive parents.
## Footnote
This correlation increases as adopted children age.
40
What is the concept of active genotype-environment correlation?
Niche-picking, where individuals seek experiences that fit their genetic predispositions.
## Footnote
This explains the increasing influence of genetics on intelligence over the lifespan.
41
How do shared environmental factors influence intelligence across the lifespan?
* Large influence in early childhood
* Decreases during adolescence and early adulthood
* Stabilizes at a low level in middle and late adulthood
## Footnote
Non-shared factors maintain a relatively low influence throughout the lifespan.
42
What is the correlation coefficient for identical twins reared together?
0.85
## Footnote
This indicates a strong genetic influence on IQ.
43
What correlation coefficient is observed for fraternal twins reared together?
0.58
## Footnote
This is lower than that of identical twins, indicating less genetic similarity.
44
Define behavioral genetics.
The study of how genetic variation affects psychological traits, including cognitive abilities and personality.
## Footnote
Behavioral genetics often uses data from twin, adoption, and twin-adoption studies.
45
What is the purpose of twin studies in behavioral genetics?
To compare correlation coefficients of traits between monozygotic and dizygotic twins.
## Footnote
A significant difference supports the influence of genetics.
46
What assumption underlies twin studies?
The equal environment assumption, which posits that monozygotic and dizygotic twins have similar environments.
## Footnote
This assumption has been challenged by evidence of differing treatment by parents.
47
Why are adoption studies considered more powerful than twin studies?
They do not rely on the equal environment assumption.
## Footnote
This allows for clearer distinctions between genetic and environmental influences.
48
What do twin-adoption studies combine?
The strengths of twin studies and adoption studies.
## Footnote
They compare traits of monozygotic twins reared together and apart.
49
What does a similar correlation coefficient for twins reared together and apart suggest?
Genetics has a greater impact on the trait than environmental factors.
## Footnote
A substantial difference indicates strong environmental influences.
50
What is genotype-environment correlation?
A person's genetic make-up affects their characteristics directly and indirectly by influencing their environments
## Footnote
Proposed by Scarr and colleagues, it includes passive, evocative, and active correlations.
51
What are the three types of genotype-environment correlations?
* Passive genotype-environment correlation
* Evocative genotype-environment correlation
* Active genotype-environment correlation
## Footnote
These correlations describe how genetic predispositions interact with environmental factors.
52
What is passive genotype-environment correlation?
Occurs when children inherit genes that predispose them to certain characteristics and are exposed to supportive environments provided by their parents
## Footnote
Example: Sociable children of sociable parents who provide social opportunities.
53
Define evocative genotype-environment correlation.
A child’s genetic make-up evokes reactions from others that reinforce their genetic traits
## Footnote
Example: A sociable child encourages social responses from others.
54
What is active genotype-environment correlation?
Also known as niche-picking, it occurs when children actively seek experiences that fit their genetic predispositions
## Footnote
Example: Sociable children seeking social interactions.
55
How does the importance of genotype-environment correlations change over time?
Passive and evocative types are most important in infancy and early childhood, while active type becomes more important as children gain independence.
56
What is reaction range?
The range of possible outcomes for certain traits influenced by genetic make-up and environmental factors
## Footnote
Example: A child with a mild intellectual disability may have better outcomes in a rich environment than one with a severe disability.
57
What does canalization refer to?
The tendency for genetic make-up to restrict developmental outcomes regardless of environmental circumstances.
58
What is Dynamic Systems Theory (DST)?
A theory that emphasizes the interaction of biology, environment, self-control, social interactions, and cognitive representation in development
## Footnote
Advocates include Thelen and colleagues, who studied motor skill development.
59
What are rhythmic stereotypies in the context of DST?
Simple repetitive behaviors that precede the emergence of voluntary complex behaviors
## Footnote
Examples include kicking and reaching that lead to crawling.
60
How do individual characteristics affect motor milestone development?
Motor milestones emerge in sequence but develop variably based on infant characteristics, environmental factors, and the infant's goals.
61
What is epigenetics?
The study of changes in organisms caused by modifications in gene expression rather than changes in the genetic code
## Footnote
Epigenetic mechanisms can alter phenotype without changing genotype.
62
What is DNA methylation?
The addition of a methyl group to DNA that prevents certain genes from being expressed
## Footnote
It is one of the best-understood epigenetic mechanisms.
63
What environmental factors can cause epigenetic changes?
* Diet
* Environmental pollutants
* Child abuse
## Footnote
These factors can modify gene expression and lead to phenotypic changes.
64
Can epigenetic changes be passed down to future generations?
Yes, certain epigenetic changes can be inherited by descendants.
65
What are the three periods of prenatal development?
1. Germinal period
2. Embryonic period
3. Fetal period
66
What is the germinal period?
Extends from conception to the end of the second week when the zygote implants on the uterine wall
67
What happens if there is exposure to teratogens during the germinal period?
Has an 'all-or-none' effect; significant damage prevents implantation, while little or no effect allows implantation
68
What is the embryonic period?
Extends from the third through the eighth weeks, during which major organs and structures are forming
69
Why is the embryonic period critical regarding teratogen exposure?
Exposure is most likely to cause major defects
70
What is the fetal period?
Begins when major organs have formed and extends from weeks 9 through birth
71
What are the effects of teratogens during the fetal period?
Most likely to cause minor defects or abnormalities
72
What is the age of viability?
The earliest age at which a premature baby can survive outside the womb, occurring between 22 and 26 weeks
73
What are the three trimesters of pregnancy?
1. First trimester (weeks 1-13)
2. Second trimester (weeks 14-27)
3. Third trimester (week 28-birth)
74
What are chromosomal abnormalities?
Include chromosomal deletions, extra chromosomes, and missing chromosomes
75
What is Prader-Willi syndrome caused by?
A deletion on the paternal chromosome 15
76
What are common symptoms of Prader-Willi syndrome?
Narrow forehead, almond-shaped eyes, short stature, hypotonia, global developmental delays, hyperphagia, obesity, hypogonadism, intellectual disabilities
77
What is Angelman syndrome usually caused by?
A deletion on the maternal chromosome 15
78
List symptoms of Angelman syndrome.
* Microcephaly
* Wide jaw and pointed chin
* Severe developmental delays
* Communication and intellectual disabilities
* Hyperactivity
* Ataxia
* Seizures
* Hand-flapping
79
What is Cri-du-chat syndrome caused by?
A deletion on chromosome 5
80
What are symptoms of Cri-du-chat syndrome?
* High-pitched cry
* Intellectual disability
* Developmental delays
* Microcephaly
* Low birth weight
* Weak muscle tone
* Characteristic facial features
81
What causes Klinefelter syndrome?
Presence of two or more X chromosomes in addition to a single Y chromosome
82
What are symptoms of Klinefelter syndrome?
* Incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics
* Gynecomastia
* Low testosterone
* Long arms and legs
* Taller than normal
* Learning disabilities
83
What causes Turner syndrome?
Partial or complete deletion of one of the X chromosomes
84
List symptoms of Turner syndrome.
* No development of secondary sex characteristics
* Infertility
* Short stature
* Stubby fingers
* Drooping eyelids
* Web-like neck
85
What is Rett syndrome?
An X-linked dominant disorder usually caused by mutations in the MECP2 gene, almost exclusively affecting females
86
What are the characteristic symptoms of Rett syndrome?
* Slowed head and brain growth
* Loss of speech and motor skills
* Abnormal hand movements
* Sleep disturbances
* Breathing abnormalities
* Seizures
87
What is Down syndrome classified as?
An autosomal disorder due to an abnormality on a chromosome that is not a sex chromosome
88
What are the three types of Down syndrome?
1. Trisomy 21
2. Mosaic trisomy 21
3. Translocation trisomy 21
89
What is the most common type of Down syndrome?
Trisomy 21
90
What causes trisomy 21?
Presence of an extra 21 chromosome in all cells of the body
91
What are common symptoms of Down syndrome?
* Intellectual disability
* Hypotonia
* Short stocky build
* Wide face
* Thick tongue
* Almond-shaped eyes
* Developmental delays
92
What factors increase the risk of having a baby with trisomy 21?
Older maternal age, especially after 30 years
93
What is the cause of translocation trisomy 21?
Can be due to an error during cell division or inherited from a parent carrier
94
What are genetic disorders caused by?
One or more abnormal genes.
95
What type of genetic disorder is Huntington’s disease?
Autosomal dominant disorder.
96
What is the inheritance probability of Huntington’s disease if one parent has it?
50% chance.
97
What is the inheritance probability of Huntington’s disease if both parents have it?
75% chance.
98
What type of genetic disorder is Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Autosomal recessive disorder.
99
What must happen for a child to inherit PKU?
Inherits the PKU gene from both parents.
100
What is the chance of children having PKU if both parents are carriers?
25% chance.
101
What amino acid is inadequately metabolized in PKU?
Phenylalanine.
102
What is the recommended treatment for PKU?
A diet low in phenylalanine.
103
What are some symptoms of untreated PKU?
* Intellectual disability
* Hyperactivity
* Seizures
* Eczema
* Musty body odor
* Hypopigmentation
* Stunted growth
104
What are teratogens?
Drugs, diseases, and environmental hazards that cause developmental defects.
105
What factors influence the effects of teratogen exposure?
* Type of teratogen
* Amount of exposure
* Time during prenatal development
106
During which weeks is the likelihood of structural damage from teratogens highest?
From the third to the eighth week after conception.
107
What disorder can result from prenatal exposure to alcohol?
Fetal alcohol spectrum disorder (FASD).
108
What is the most severe disorder under FASD?
Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
109
What are some symptoms of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS)?
* Small eye openings
* Thin upper lip
* impaired physical growth
* CNS dysfunction
* Problems with organs
* Hearing and vision impairments
110
What does Partial Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (pFAS) share with FAS?
The same central nervous system dysfunction.
111
What characterizes Alcohol-Related Neurodevelopmental Disorder (ARND)?
CNS dysfunction without prominent facial anomalies.
112
What does Alcohol-Related Birth Defects (ARBD) involve?
Heart, kidney, vision, and other physical defects.
113
When is prenatal exposure to alcohol most harmful?
During the embryonic period (weeks 3 through 8).
114
What effects can prenatal exposure to cocaine have?
* Spontaneous abortion
* Premature birth
* Low birth weight
115
What behavioral issues are common in cocaine-exposed infants?
* Irritability
* Overreactive to stimuli
* Difficult to calm and feed
116
What problems may children face in school if exposed to cocaine prenatally?
* Motor problems
* Attention issues
* Memory problems
* Behavioral problems
117
What risk factors may influence the consequences of prenatal cocaine exposure?
* Amount and potency of cocaine
* Exposure to poverty
* Insensitive caregiving
118
What percentage of its adult weight is a newborn's brain at birth?
25%
119
By what age is a child's brain approximately 80% of its adult weight?
Two years old
120
What is synaptogenesis?
The creation of new synapses
121
What process involves the covering of axons in a fatty substance?
Myelination
122
At what age does synaptogenesis peak?
Two to three years of age
123
What is synaptic pruning?
The loss of unused synapses
124
When does the prefrontal cortex reach maturity?
Late teens or early to mid-20s
125
At what age does brain weight and volume begin to decrease?
Around 30 years of age
126
Which lobes experience the greatest decrease in size with aging?
Frontal lobes and parietal lobes
127
What is neurogenesis?
The production of new neurons
128
What is the least developed sense at birth?
Vision
129
At birth, how far can newborns see compared to normal adults?
20 feet what normal adults see at 400 to 600 feet
130
By what age do infants' visual acuity become similar to that of normal adults?
7 or 8 months
131
What type of stimuli do newborns prefer to look at?
Patterned stimuli
132
What do infants prefer to look at between one to two months of age?
Faces of their mothers and caregivers
133
What are the three types of depth information relied upon for depth perception?
* Kinetic cues
* Binocular cues
* Pictorial cues
134
At what age do infants begin to use kinetic cues for depth perception?
Three or four weeks of age
135
What changes occur in vision by about 40 years of age?
Presbyopia
136
What causes presbyopia?
Hardening of the lens of the eye
137
Name one age-related change in vision during middle adulthood.
* Decreased sensitivity to low levels of illumination
* Slower dark adaptation
* Increased sensitivity to glare
* Reduced ability to discriminate between colors
* Decreased depth perception
138
At what age do newborns' sensitivity to high-frequency sounds come close to adult levels?
By six months of age.
139
What do infants prefer shortly after birth?
The voice of their mothers over the voice of a stranger and other sounds.
140
What auditory ability do infants exhibit in the first few days after birth?
Auditory localization.
141
When does the ability to localize sounds decrease in infants?
Between two and four months of age.
142
When does sound localization improve to nearly adult levels?
By about 12 months of age.
143
At what age does hearing start to decline for most adults?
About 40 years of age.
144
What is presbycusis?
Decreased sensitivity to high-frequency sounds due to aging.
145
Which sounds become difficult to understand due to presbycusis?
Women's and young children's voices, fricative consonants, and certain non-human sounds.
146
What can exacerbate the effects of presbycusis?
Background noise.
147
What is the relationship between age-related hearing loss and neurocognitive disorders?
Severity of hearing loss is related to the risk for developing Alzheimer’s disease and other disorders.
148
Which sense is the first to develop in utero?
Touch.
149
How do newborns respond to touch on their cheeks?
They turn their heads in the direction of the touch.
150
How do newborn male infants respond to pain during circumcision without anesthetic?
They cry intensely.
151
What effect does early exposure to painful experiences have on future pain responses?
It affects future responses to pain.
152
What did Taddio et al. (1997) find about infants who received no anesthesia during circumcision?
They responded more intensely to later vaccinations.
153
How does early exposure to pain affect full-term vs. preterm infants?
It heightens responsivity for full-term but dampens it for preterm infants.
154
What is Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
The unexpected death of an infant under 1 year of age that remains unexplained.
155
What brain abnormalities are associated with SIDS?
Serotonin abnormalities in the medulla.
156
List some factors that increase the risk for SIDS.
* Male gender
* African American or Native American race
* 6 months of age or younger
* Premature birth
* Low birth weight
* Poor prenatal care
* Maternal substance use during pregnancy
* Exposure to cigarette smoke
* Unsafe sleep practices.
157
List factors that reduce the risk for SIDS.
* Sleeping on the back
* Breastfeeding
* Keeping the crib bare
* Avoiding overheating
* Sharing a room without bed-sharing
* Offering a pacifier.
158
What gross motor milestone occurs at 1-3 months?
Chin and then chest up in prone position, props on forearms in prone position, rolls to side
## Footnote
These are early developmental movements indicating strength and coordination.
159
At what age do children typically sit with trunk support?
4-6 months
## Footnote
Sitting with support is an important milestone indicating core strength development.
160
What is a key gross motor milestone for 7-9 months?
Sits without support steadily
## Footnote
This milestone reflects significant progress in balance and stability.
161
Fill in the blank: At 10-12 months, children begin to _______.
Creep well
## Footnote
Creeping is a precursor to crawling and walking.
162
What milestone is reached by children at 13-15 months?
Walks well, stoops to pick up toy
## Footnote
This indicates improved coordination and mobility.
163
What gross motor skill is achieved at 16-18 months?
Runs well
## Footnote
Running is a major developmental step indicating increased strength and coordination.
164
At what age do children typically kick a ball?
19-30 months
## Footnote
Kicking a ball demonstrates improved leg coordination and control.
165
What is a milestone for children aged 31-36 months?
Balances on one foot for 3 seconds
## Footnote
This skill reflects balance and stability development.
166
True or False: A 4-year-old can hop on one foot two or three times.
True
## Footnote
Hopping indicates coordination and strength.
167
Fill in the blank: At 5 years old, children can walk down stairs with _______.
Alternating feet and without holding rail
## Footnote
This milestone shows advanced coordination and balance.
168
What does the adolescent growth spurt refer to?
The rapid increase in height and weight that marks the beginning of adolescence.
169
At what ages does the adolescent growth spurt typically begin for girls and boys?
Girls: 10 or 11 years; Boys: 12 or 13 years.
170
When does the adolescent growth spurt reach its peak velocity?
About two years after it starts.
171
How long does the adolescent growth spurt last?
Three to four years.
172
What is puberty in relation to the growth spurt?
Puberty (sexual maturation) begins before or at about the same time as the growth spurt.
173
True or False: Early onset puberty in boys is associated with higher levels of self-esteem.
True.
174
List some positive consequences associated with early onset puberty in boys.
* Higher levels of self-esteem
* Greater popularity with peers
* Better athletic skills
175
What negative behaviors are linked to early onset puberty in boys?
* Higher levels of alcohol use
* Antisocial behavior
* Precocious sexual behavior
176
What are some negative consequences of early onset puberty in girls?
* Lower levels of self-esteem
* Poorer academic achievement
* Higher risk for precocious sexual behavior
* Higher rates of substance use, depression, anxiety, eating disorders, and disruptive behavior disorders
177
What predictors of early onset puberty in girls were identified by Ellis and Garber (2000)?
* Maternal mood disorder
* Absence of biological father
* Presence of stepfather or maternal boyfriend
* Discordant family relationships
178
What percentage of youth aged 12 to 17 reported drinking alcohol in the past month according to the National Survey of Drug Use and Health (2018)?
9.0%.
179
What percentage of youth reported using illicit drugs in the past month according to the National Survey of Drug Use and Health (2018)?
8.0%.
180
Fill in the blank: The limbic system develops earlier than the _______.
prefrontal cortex.
181
What is the role of the prefrontal cortex in brain development?
Involved in planning, decision-making, and impulse control.
182
What factors are considered risk factors for adolescent substance abuse?
* Exposure to stressful life events
* Parental substance abuse
* Weak parent-child relationship
* Affiliation with deviant/substance-involved peers
* Mental health problems
* Favorable attitudes toward drug use
* Poor social skills
* Academic failures
183
What factors are considered protective factors against adolescent substance abuse?
* Parental disapproval of substance use
* Supportive parenting
* Age-appropriate parental monitoring
* Academic success
* Involvement in extracurricular activities
* Positive peer influences
* Good self-control
* Religiosity
184
True or False: Adolescents are likely to make decisions based on rational thinking due to brain development.
False.
185
What impact does early drug use have on the risk of developing a substance use disorder?
Individuals who began using drugs in early adolescence are at greater risk for a substance use disorder.
186
What is chronic sleep deprivation commonly linked to during adolescence?
Increased risk for depression, anxiety, substance use, impaired concentration, memory, information processing, and increased physical symptoms like headaches and stomachaches.
187
What combination of factors contributes to adolescent sleep deprivation?
Biological, societal, and psychosocial factors.
188
What is the main biological factor causing sleep deprivation in adolescents?
Delayed sleep onset due to changes in melatonin secretion during puberty.
189
What societal factor limits the available time for sleep in adolescents?
Early starting time for school.
190
What are some psychosocial factors contributing to adolescent sleep deprivation?
Greater autonomy over bedtimes, increased academic pressures, excessive screen time.
191
Which two factors have strong research support as contributors to adolescent sleep deprivation?
Early school start time and excessive screen time.
192
How does excessive screen time affect adolescent sleep?
It can exacerbate delayed sleep onset by suppressing melatonin production.
193
What has contemporary research focused on regarding sexual orientation?
Biological factors.
194
What have studies found about monozygotic twins and sexual orientation?
Monozygotic twins are more likely than dizygotic twins to have the same sexual orientation.
195
How does the impact of genetics on sexual orientation differ between genders?
It is stronger for males than for females.
196
What is the fraternal birth order effect in relation to sexual orientation?
The likelihood that a boy will be gay increases for each older brother born to the same mother.
197
What hypothesis explains the fraternal birth order effect?
The maternal immune hypothesis.
198
What does sexual fluidity refer to?
Changes in a person’s sexual attractions and/or behaviors over time and in different situations.
199
Is sexual fluidity the same as bisexuality?
No, sexual fluidity is transient and situation dependent, while bisexuality involves a stable pattern of attraction to both genders.
200
In which gender is sexual fluidity somewhat more common?
Women.
201
What is temperament?
Genetically based but also environmentally influenced tendencies to respond in predictable ways to events that serve as the building blocks of personality
## Footnote
Sigelman & Rider, 2015, p. 336
202
How stable is temperament over time?
Generally low to moderate stability, becoming more stable after three years of age
## Footnote
Roberts & DelVecchio, 2000
203
What are the nine dimensions used by Thomas and Chess to describe temperament?
Activity level, distractibility, adaptability, intensity of reaction, and others
## Footnote
They conceptualized temperament through these dimensions.
204
What are the three groups of children identified by Thomas and Chess?
* Easy children
* Slow-to-warm-up children
* Difficult children
205
Describe the characteristics of Easy children.
Positive mood, adapt easily to new people and situations, tolerate frustration, regular feeding and sleeping routines.
206
Describe the characteristics of Slow-to-warm-up children.
Mildly negative mood, take time to adapt to new people and situations, low levels of activity, moderately regular feeding and sleeping routines.
207
Describe the characteristics of Difficult children.
Negative mood, cry frequently, respond negatively to new people and situations, very active, irregular feeding and sleeping routines.
208
What is the goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess?
A child's behavioral and emotional outcomes are affected by the match between the child's temperament and the demands of the social environment.
209
How can infants with a difficult temperament become more adaptable?
If their parents provide a stable environment and allow slow responses to new experiences.
210
What does Rothbart describe as temperament?
Constitutional differences in reactivity and self-regulation influenced by heredity, maturation, and experience
## Footnote
Rothbart & Derryberry, 1981, p. 37
211
What is reactivity according to Rothbart?
Responsivity of biological processes determined by latency, duration, and intensity of responses to stimuli.
212
What are the two factors of reactivity identified by Rothbart?
* Surgency/extraversion
* Negative affectivity
213
Define surgency/extraversion.
Characterized by high activity level, intense pleasure seeking, and low shyness.
214
Define negative affectivity.
Characterized by mood instability and tendencies to be sad, fearful, and irritable.
215
What does self-regulation refer to in Rothbart's model?
Processes that facilitate, maintain, and inhibit reactivity.
216
What is effortful control?
The ability to inhibit a dominant response to perform a subdominant response
## Footnote
Rothbart, 2011, p. 57
217
What did Kagan focus on in his research?
The temperamental characteristic of behavioral inhibition (BI).
218
How is behavioral inhibition (BI) characterized?
Tendency to respond to unfamiliar people and situations with negative affect and withdrawal.
219
What has longitudinal research shown about continuity in BI?
Evidence of both continuity and discontinuity, with greater continuity in individuals with high levels of BI.
220
What risks are associated with high levels of behavioral inhibition?
* Increased risk for anxiety
* Depression
* Poorer social functioning
221
What correlation exists between parents of children with BI and anxiety disorders?
Parents had higher rates of childhood anxiety disorders and continuing anxiety disorders in adulthood
## Footnote
Svihra & Katzman, 2004; Tang et al., 2020
222
What are the five stages of Freud's psychosexual development?
1. Oral
2. Anal
3. Phallic
4. Latency
5. Genital
## Footnote
Each stage focuses on a different area of the body and impacts personality development.
223
What is fixation in Freud's theory?
A condition resulting from excessive gratification or frustration of a child's impulses during a psychosexual stage, affecting later outcomes.
## Footnote
For example, fixation at the oral stage may lead to thumb-sucking or smoking in adulthood.
224
What does Erikson's theory of psychosocial development emphasize?
Social and cultural influences on personality development throughout the lifespan.
## Footnote
It consists of eight stages, each involving a different psychosocial conflict.
225
What are the eight stages of Erikson's psychosocial development?
1. Trust vs. Mistrust
2. Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
3. Initiative vs. Guilt
4. Industry vs. Inferiority
5. Identity vs. Role Confusion
6. Intimacy vs. Isolation
7. Generativity vs. Stagnation
8. Integrity vs. Despair
## Footnote
Each stage has associated virtues that indicate successful resolution.
226
What are Baumrind's four parenting styles?
1. Authoritative
2. Authoritarian
3. Permissive
4. Uninvolved
## Footnote
Each style is characterized by different levels of demandingness and responsiveness.
227
What characterizes authoritative parenting?
High demandingness and high responsiveness; establishes rules but respects children's opinions.
## Footnote
Children tend to be self-confident, independent, and cooperative.
228
True or False: Authoritarian parents are low in both demandingness and responsiveness.
False
## Footnote
Authoritarian parents are high in demandingness and low in responsiveness.
229
What are the outcomes for children of permissive parents?
Self-centered, immature, rebellious, poor impulse control, low social skills, and low academic achievement.
## Footnote
They are also at increased risk for bullying and being victims of bullying.
230
What are the characteristics of uninvolved parenting?
Low in both demandingness and responsiveness; uninvolved in children's lives and unaware of their needs.
## Footnote
Children often have the worst outcomes, including low self-esteem and self-control.
231
What is rank-order stability in personality development?
Indicates the relative positions of several personality traits over time.
## Footnote
It reflects how individuals maintain their relative standing in personality traits throughout their lives.
232
What are the predictable mean-level changes in personality traits during adulthood?
* Neuroticism decreases
* Extraversion remains stable or decreases slightly
* Openness to experience remains stable or decreases slightly
* Agreeableness increases
* Conscientiousness increases
## Footnote
These changes reflect shifts in personality traits as people age.
233
What is self-awareness?
The capacity to realize that one is a distinct individual, separate from others.
## Footnote
It is a crucial first step in identity development.
234
What does the mirror self-recognition test assess?
Self-awareness in babies and toddlers.
## Footnote
Children pass the test by touching their own noses or cheeks when they see their reflection.
235
At what age do most children pass the mirror self-recognition test?
18 to 24 months.
## Footnote
Children with developmental delays may pass at a later age.
236
What are the stages of self-understanding during childhood?
1. Early childhood: Gender and age
2. Middle childhood: Personality traits and social comparisons
3. Adolescence: Abstract qualities and values
## Footnote
Self-descriptions evolve as children grow.
237
What are the three stages of Kohlberg's cognitive developmental theory of gender identity?
1. Gender identity
2. Gender stability
3. Gender constancy
## Footnote
These stages outline how children understand their own and others' gender.
238
How does social cognitive theory explain gender identity development?
Through observation, imitation, and differential reinforcement of gender-appropriate behaviors.
## Footnote
Children learn gender roles by watching others and receiving rewards for conforming.
239
What is Bem's gender schema theory?
Children organize gender-typed experiences into schemas that guide their behavior and perceptions.
## Footnote
By age 3, children often have established schemas for toys.
240
What does Egan and Perry's multidimensional model identify as components of gender identity?
* Membership knowledge
* Gender typicality
* Gender contentedness
* Felt pressure
* Intergroup bias
## Footnote
These components relate to an individual's adjustment and self-esteem.
241
What is psychological androgyny according to Bem?
The integration of both masculine and feminine traits in an individual.
## Footnote
Androgynous individuals are better at adapting their behavior to situations.
242
What are the four identity statuses in Marcia's model?
* Identity diffusion
* Identity foreclosure
* Identity moratorium
* Identity achievement
## Footnote
These statuses represent different combinations of identity crisis and commitment.
243
What is identity foreclosure?
A strong commitment to a particular identity as a result of accepting the values, goals, and preferences of parents or authority figures.
## Footnote
This concept suggests that individuals may not explore other identities before committing to one.
244
What characterizes identity moratorium?
Experiencing an identity crisis but not yet committing to an identity.
## Footnote
This stage involves exploration without commitment.
245
What defines identity achievement?
Having experienced an identity crisis and developed a strong commitment to a specific identity.
## Footnote
This stage reflects a resolution of the identity crisis.
246
According to Marcia’s model, how does identity formation vary?
It occurs at different rates for different aspects of identity, such as:
* Occupational choice
* Political ideology
* Religious beliefs
## Footnote
This indicates that identity development is not uniform across all areas of life.
247
True or False: Individuals may recycle through identity moratorium and achievement during adulthood.
True
## Footnote
This suggests that identity formation is a dynamic process rather than a linear one.
