learning and memory Flashcards
1
Q
Who initially described classical conditioning?
A
Ivan Pavlov
2
Q
What was the unconditioned stimulus (US) in Pavlov’s studies?
A
Meat powder
3
Q
What was the unconditioned response (UR) elicited by the US?
A
Salivation
4
Q
What type of stimulus is a ringing bell before conditioning?
A
Neutral stimulus
5
Q
What does a conditioned stimulus (CS) elicit after conditioning?
A
Conditioned response (CR)
6
Q
True or False: The magnitude of a conditioned response (CR) is always greater than the unconditioned response (UR).
A
False
7
Q
What affects the magnitude of a conditioned response (CR)?
A
Number of times the CS and US are paired
8
Q
What is the most effective conditioning procedure?
A
Delay conditioning
9
Q
In delay conditioning, when is the CS presented in relation to the US?
A
Before and overlaps with the US
10
Q
What is the optimal delay between the CS and US in delay conditioning?
A
About one-half second
11
Q
In trace conditioning, when is the CS presented in relation to the US?
A
Presented and terminated just before the US
12
Q
In simultaneous conditioning, when are the CS and US presented?
A
At about the same time
13
Q
What happens in backward conditioning?
A
US is presented before the CS
14
Q
True or False: Backward conditioning is usually effective.
A
False
15
Q
What accounts for classical conditioning according to the text?
A
Contingency of stimuli
16
Q
What is classical extinction?
A
Classical extinction occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US, leading to no CR being produced.
This process demonstrates the weakening of the conditioned response over time.
17
Q
What is spontaneous recovery in classical conditioning?
A
Spontaneous recovery is the return of a CR in a reduced form after a period when the CS is presented alone post-extinction.
Pavlov referred to this return as evidence that extinction suppresses the association rather than eliminates it.
18
Q
Define stimulus generalization.
A
Stimulus generalization occurs when stimuli similar to the original CS elicit the CR without being paired with the US.
An example is Little Albert, who generalized his fear of a white rat to other white furry objects.
19
Q
What was the role of the loud noise in Little Albert’s experiment?
A
The loud noise was the US that was paired with the white rat, which was the CS, to elicit a startle response (CR) in Albert.
This experiment illustrated how phobias can be acquired through classical conditioning.
20
Q
What is stimulus discrimination?
A
Stimulus discrimination is the ability to differentiate between the CS and similar stimuli.
This is the opposite of stimulus generalization.
21
Q
How did Pavlov’s dogs demonstrate stimulus discrimination?
A
The dogs learned to salivate only in response to a 2000-Hz tone and not to a 2100-Hz tone after discrimination training.
This involved presenting the 2000-Hz tone with meat powder and the 2100-Hz tone without it.
22
Q
What is experimental neurosis?
A
Experimental neurosis refers to the unusual agitation and aggression in dogs when they faced difficult discrimination tasks.
Pavlov concluded this was due to a conflict between excitatory and inhibitory processes in the central nervous system.
23
Q
What is conditioned inhibition?
A
A method for reducing or eliminating a conditioned response by inhibiting a previously established conditioned response to a conditioned stimulus
24
Q
In Pavlov’s studies, what does CS+ refer to?
A
The conditioned stimulus that produces a conditioned response when presented alone
25
What is the role of CS- in conditioned inhibition?
It is a new neutral stimulus paired with CS+ without presenting the unconditioned stimulus, signaling that the US will not be presented
26
What happens when CS+ and CS- are presented together?
They do not produce the conditioned response of salivation
27
Define higher-order conditioning
The process of pairing a conditioned stimulus with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also becomes a conditioned stimulus
28
What is second-order conditioning?
Higher-order conditioning involving a second conditioned stimulus
29
What is compound conditioning?
Conditioning that occurs when two or more stimuli are presented together, including blocking and overshadowing
30
Describe blocking in classical conditioning
When a previously conditioned stimulus blocks the conditioning of a new neutral stimulus due to prior association with the unconditioned stimulus
31
What occurs during overshadowing?
When two neutral stimuli are presented together, the more salient stimulus elicits a conditioned response while the less salient does not
32
Fill in the blank: In blocking, the second neutral stimulus does not provide any new information about the occurrence of the _______.
[unconditioned stimulus]
33
True or False: A less salient stimulus can still become a conditioned stimulus if it is paired alone with the unconditioned stimulus.
True
34
What is the effect of the less salient stimulus being overshadowed?
It fails to become a conditioned stimulus due to being overshadowed by the more salient stimulus during conditioning trials
35
What is operant conditioning?
A theory useful for understanding factors contributing to the acquisition, maintenance, and cessation of voluntary behaviors.
36
Who conducted the puzzle box experiment with cats?
E. L. Thorndike
37
What did Thorndike conclude from his puzzle box experiment?
Cats learned to escape through trial-and-error; behaviors are likely to recur based on their consequences.
38
What is the law of effect?
Behaviors followed by satisfying consequences are likely to occur again; those followed by dissatisfying consequences are less likely.
39
Who extended Thorndike's work with operant conditioning?
B. F. Skinner
40
What does Skinner's theory propose about voluntary behavior?
It depends on how the behavior operates on the environment, specifically whether it produces reinforcement or punishment.
41
Define positive reinforcement.
Occurs when a behavior increases because a stimulus is applied following the behavior.
42
Provide an example of positive reinforcement.
An employee works overtime because he’s paid extra.
43
Define negative reinforcement.
Occurs when a behavior increases because a stimulus is removed following the behavior.
44
Provide an example of negative reinforcement.
A child straightens her room because her parents stop nagging her.
45
Define positive punishment.
Occurs when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is applied following the behavior.
46
Provide an example of positive punishment.
A child stops teasing the dog because his parents yell at him.
47
Define negative punishment.
Occurs when a behavior decreases because a stimulus is taken away following the behavior.
48
Provide an example of negative punishment.
An adolescent stops swearing because money is deducted from his allowance.
49
What is the first step in determining if a scenario describes reinforcement or punishment?
Determine whether the behavior is increasing/maintained or decreasing.
50
What mnemonic can help remember the types of reinforcement and punishment?
Positive reinforcement = reward, negative reinforcement = relief, positive punishment = pain, negative punishment = loss.
51
Fill in the blank: Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior ______.
increases because a stimulus is applied.
52
Fill in the blank: Negative punishment occurs when a behavior ______.
decreases because a stimulus is taken away.
53
What is operant extinction?
The process of extinguishing a reinforced behavior by withholding reinforcement every time the behavior occurs.
## Footnote
This can lead to an initial increase in the behavior known as an extinction burst.
54
What is the fastest method for acquiring a behavior in operant conditioning?
Reinforcement on a continuous schedule, where the behavior is reinforced every time it occurs.
## Footnote
However, continuous reinforcement can lead to satiation and rapid extinction.
55
What is the optimal procedure for reinforcement schedules?
Start with a continuous schedule and then switch to an intermittent (partial) schedule when the behavior is at the desired level.
56
What is a fixed interval (FI) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after a fixed period of time, regardless of the number of responses during that interval.
## Footnote
Example: FI-20 schedule provides reinforcement every 20 seconds.
57
What is a variable interval (VI) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after intervals of varying and unpredictable lengths.
## Footnote
Example: VI-20 schedule averages reinforcement after 20 seconds but varies in length.
58
What is a fixed ratio (FR) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses.
## Footnote
Example: FR-10 schedule provides reinforcement after every ten lever presses.
59
What is a variable ratio (VR) schedule?
Reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses.
## Footnote
Example: VR-10 schedule averages reinforcement after ten responses but varies.
60
Which intermittent schedule produces the highest rate of responding?
Variable ratio (VR) schedule.
## Footnote
VR schedules also show the greatest resistance to extinction.
61
Fill in the blank: An extinction burst refers to _______.
a temporary increase in behavior after reinforcement is withheld.
62
True or False: A fixed interval schedule produces a high rate of responding.
False. FI schedules produce a low rate of responding.
63
What happens to behavior when reinforcement is stopped in a continuous schedule?
It leads to rapid extinction of the behavior.
64
What is thinning in the context of behavior reinforcement?
Thinning refers to reducing the amount of reinforcement for a behavior
## Footnote
Examples include switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule of reinforcement or from an FR-10 to an FR-20 schedule.
65
What is behavioral contrast?
Behavioral contrast occurs when the frequencies of two behaviors change due to an alteration in the rate of reinforcement for one of the behaviors
## Footnote
It can be negative (increased reinforcement for one behavior decreases the other) or positive (decreased reinforcement for one behavior increases the other).
66
What is negative behavioral contrast?
Negative behavioral contrast occurs when the amount of reinforcement for Behavior A is increased while Behavior B remains unaltered, resulting in an increase in Behavior A and a decrease in Behavior B
## Footnote
This highlights the relationship between reinforcement rates and behavior frequencies.
67
What is positive behavioral contrast?
Positive behavioral contrast occurs when the amount of reinforcement for Behavior A is decreased while Behavior B remains unaltered, resulting in a decrease in Behavior A and an increase in Behavior B
## Footnote
It emphasizes how changes in reinforcement for one behavior can affect another.
68
What does the matching law state?
The matching law states that the rate of performing each behavior is proportional to the frequency of reinforcement when two or more behaviors are concurrently reinforced on different schedules
## Footnote
For example, a rat will press a lever more often if it is reinforced on a more frequent schedule.
69
How does the magnitude of reinforcement relate to the matching law?
The rate of responding will match the magnitude of the reinforcement
## Footnote
For instance, if one lever provides access to food for a longer duration, it will be pressed more often.
70
What are primary reinforcers?
Primary reinforcers are inherently reinforcing because they satisfy basic survival needs, such as food and water
## Footnote
They are essential for sustaining life.
71
What are secondary reinforcers?
Secondary reinforcers are neutral stimuli that become reinforcing due to their association with primary reinforcers
## Footnote
Examples include praise and tokens.
72
What are generalized reinforcers?
Generalized reinforcers are secondary reinforcers that are associated with a variety of primary reinforcers
## Footnote
Money is a common example as it can be exchanged for numerous goods and services.
73
What is superstitious behavior?
Superstitious behavior occurs when a behavior increases due to accidental reinforcement
## Footnote
Skinner's study with pigeons demonstrated this when they associated their actions with food delivery.
74
Fill in the blank: In behavior reinforcement, _______ is when the amount of reinforcement is reduced.
thinning
75
True or False: Positive behavioral contrast occurs when an increase in reinforcement for one behavior leads to an increase in another behavior.
False
## Footnote
Positive behavioral contrast refers to a decrease in reinforcement leading to an increase in another behavior.
76
What is stimulus control?
A behavior is brought under stimulus control when it occurs in the presence of one stimulus but not another stimulus.
## Footnote
Example: Rats learn that pressing a lever delivers food when a light is blinking but not when it is not blinking.
77
What is a positive discriminative stimulus (SD)?
A stimulus that signals reinforcement will be delivered.
## Footnote
Example: A blinking light indicating food delivery when a lever is pressed.
78
What is a negative discriminative stimulus (S-delta)?
A stimulus that signals reinforcement will not be delivered.
## Footnote
Example: A non-blinking light indicating no food delivery when a lever is pressed.
79
What is two-factor learning?
A combination of operant and classical conditioning that explains behavior performance in response to stimuli.
## Footnote
Performance is due to positive reinforcement and discrimination training.
80
What are prompts in behavior conditioning?
Cues that help initiate the performance of a behavior, including cues, instructions, or physical guidance.
## Footnote
Example: 'Finish your homework and you can play video games'.
81
What is fading in the context of prompts?
The gradual removal of a prompt once the behavior is at the desired level.
82
What is stimulus generalization?
When stimuli similar to the positive discriminative stimulus elicit the same response.
## Footnote
This concept is consistent in both operant and classical conditioning.
83
What is response generalization?
When reinforcement for a specific behavior increases the likelihood of similar behaviors occurring.
## Footnote
Example: A child praised for sharing one toy starts sharing other toys.
84
What is escape conditioning?
A behavior that occurs to escape an unpleasant stimulus.
## Footnote
Example: A dog jumps over a barrier to escape an electric shock.
85
What is avoidance conditioning?
A behavior that occurs to avoid an unpleasant stimulus when a signal indicates it is about to occur.
## Footnote
Example: A dog jumps over a barrier to avoid an electric shock after seeing a blinking light.
86
What is habituation?
The gradual decline in the frequency or magnitude of a response over time.
## Footnote
In operant conditioning, it explains why punishment becomes less effective long-term.
87
True or False: Punishment tends to become more effective over time.
False
## Footnote
Punishment often becomes less effective due to habituation.
88
What is the main goal of interventions based on classical conditioning?
To decrease or eliminate an undesirable behavior using extinction or counterconditioning.
89
Name one type of intervention that uses extinction.
Exposure with response prevention.
90
What are the two assumptions of exposure with response prevention?
* Anxiety-arousing stimuli become conditioned stimuli due to previous pairing with an unconditioned stimulus.
* The conditioned fear response does not extinguish because the person avoids the conditioned stimulus.
91
In the context of exposure with response prevention, what does CS stand for?
Conditioned Stimulus.
92
In the context of exposure with response prevention, what does US stand for?
Unconditioned Stimulus.
93
What is an example of a conditioned stimulus in the case of a person afraid of elevators?
Elevators.
94
What is an example of an unconditioned stimulus in the case of a person afraid of elevators?
Earthquake.
95
What does 'in vivo' refer to in exposure with response prevention?
Real life settings.
96
What is the difference between flooding and graded exposure?
* Flooding involves sustained exposure to the most intense anxiety stimuli.
* Graded exposure involves progressive exposure starting with the least anxiety-arousing stimulus.
97
True or False: Graded exposure is more acceptable to clients who resist experiencing high levels of anxiety.
True.
98
What is the importance of ending an exposure session?
It should not end until the client has experienced a substantial decrease in anxiety.
99
What are safety behaviors in the context of anxiety disorders?
Behaviors that act as conditioned inhibitors and signal that anxiety or fear will not occur.
100
Give an example of a safety behavior.
Carrying a water bottle or cell phone.
101
What is one argument against the effectiveness of safety behaviors?
Patients may attribute the non-occurrence of anxiety to safety behaviors rather than to treatment.
102
What is one argument in favor of safety behaviors during treatment?
They can make exposure less threatening and more tolerable to patients.
103
Fill in the blank: Exposure with response prevention can take the form of _______ or graded exposure.
flooding.
104
What is Cue Exposure Therapy (CET)?
A type of exposure with response prevention used to treat substance use disorders.
105
What does Cue Exposure Therapy involve?
Exposing a client to cues associated with a substance while prohibiting substance use.
106
What are cues in the context of CET?
Conditioned stimuli including internal and external triggers for substance use, such as craving and interpersonal conflicts.
107
How does CET weaken the relationship between cues and substance use?
Through extinction or habituation.
108
What is the effect of combining CET with coping strategies?
Increases the effectiveness of CET.
109
What are examples of coping strategies used in CET?
* Reminding oneself about the negative consequences of substance use
* Engaging in alternative activities
110
What is Implosive Therapy?
A type of exposure conducted in imagination that incorporates psychodynamic elements.
111
What does a therapist do in Implosive Therapy?
Encourages the client to exaggerate their image of the feared object or event.
112
What elements are incorporated in the imagined scene during Implosive Therapy?
Psychodynamic conflicts believed to underlie the client’s anxiety.
113
What was Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) originally developed for?
An intervention for PTSD.
114
What does the Adaptive Information Processing (AIP) model propose?
* Pathology results from traumatic experiences not being fully processed
* EMDR facilitates adaptive resolution of traumatic memories
115
What techniques does EMDR combine?
* Rapid eye movements
* Exposure to trauma-related imagery
* Exposure to negative cognitions
* Rehearsal of adaptive cognitions
116
Is EMDR superior to cognitive-behavioral therapy for treating PTSD?
No, research confirms EMDR is effective but not superior.
117
What conclusion did Davidson and Parker reach regarding eye movements in EMDR?
Eye movements do not add to the effectiveness of EMDR.
118
What did Lee and Cuijpers conclude about eye movements in EMDR?
Eye movements contribute to the effectiveness of EMDR.
119
True or False: The precise mechanisms of effectiveness in EMDR are well understood.
False.
120
What are the two types of interventions that use counterconditioning?
Systematic desensitization and aversion therapy
121
Who developed systematic desensitization?
Joseph Wolpe
122
What are the three steps involved in systematic desensitization?
* Learn deep muscle relaxation
* Create an anxiety hierarchy
* Imagine stimuli and use relaxation
123
What is an anxiety hierarchy?
A list of stimuli that cause low to high levels of anxiety
124
What is the primary goal of systematic desensitization?
Replace an undesirable anxiety response with a desirable relaxation response
125
In systematic desensitization, what is the conditioned stimulus (CS)?
The anxiety-arousing stimulus
126
In systematic desensitization, what is the unconditioned stimulus (US)?
The procedure that naturally produces relaxation
127
What does the dismantling strategy in research involve?
Comparing the individual components of a treatment
128
What is the role of classical extinction in systematic desensitization?
Extinguishes the anxiety response by repeatedly presenting CS without US
129
What is aversion therapy also known as?
Aversive counterconditioning
130
What is the purpose of aversion therapy?
To treat addictions and self-reinforcing behaviors
131
How does aversion therapy work?
Pairs stimuli associated with problem behavior with an unpleasant unconditioned stimulus
132
In the context of aversion therapy, what is the CS when treating a fetish?
The fetish object
133
What is the US in aversion therapy when treating a fetish?
Electric shock
134
What is the UR caused by the electric shock in aversion therapy?
Pain
135
What is the conditioned response (CR) when using aversion therapy for a fetish?
Pain rather than sexual arousal
136
What is covert sensitization?
Aversion therapy conducted in imagination rather than in vivo
137
What typically concludes a session of covert sensitization?
Imagining a relief scene
138
Fill in the blank: Systematic desensitization uses _______ to replace anxiety with relaxation.
counterconditioning
139
True or False: In aversion therapy, the goal is to reinforce the problem behavior.
False
140
What are the main components of interventions based on operant conditioning?
Positive reinforcement, punishment, extinction
## Footnote
Interventions use these components to modify behavior.
141
What is the first step in a functional behavioral assessment (FBA)?
Collect information about the target behavior using direct and indirect methods
## Footnote
Direct methods include observation; indirect methods include family member reports.
142
What is the purpose of collecting information about antecedents and consequences in an FBA?
To develop hypotheses about the function of the behavior
143
What is shaping in operant conditioning?
Reinforcing successive approximations to the desired behavior
## Footnote
Example: Teaching imitative speech to children with autism.
144
What is chaining in the context of operant conditioning?
Establishing a complex behavior that consists of separate responses
## Footnote
Involves task analysis and can be forward or backward.
145
What is the difference between forward chaining and backward chaining?
Forward chaining starts with the first response; backward chaining starts with the last response.
146
Define the Premack principle.
A high frequency behavior is used as reinforcement for a low frequency behavior
## Footnote
Example: Playing video games after completing homework.
147
What is overcorrection?
A type of positive punishment involving a penalty following an undesirable behavior
## Footnote
Includes restitution and positive practice.
148
What is response cost?
A type of negative punishment involving removing a specific reinforcer after a behavior occurs
149
What is time out in behavioral interventions?
Removing all sources of reinforcement for a brief period after an undesirable behavior
## Footnote
It should be applied immediately and consistently.
150
What does operant extinction involve?
Withholding reinforcement from a behavior that has been reinforced
151
What is differential reinforcement?
Combines extinction and positive reinforcement to weaken a target behavior and increase an alternative behavior
152
What does differential reinforcement of incompatible behavior (DRI) involve?
Reinforcing an individual when engaging in a specified desirable behavior incompatible with the undesirable behavior
153
What is differential reinforcement of alternative behavior (DRA)?
Reinforcing an individual for engaging in specified alternative behaviors rather than the undesirable behavior
154
What is differential reinforcement of other behavior (DRO)?
Reinforcing the individual for engaging in any behaviors other than the undesirable behavior
155
How does differential reinforcement of low rates of behavior (DRL) work?
Reinforcing the individual when engaging in the target behavior at or less than a specified low rate
156
What does the multi-store model of memory consist of?
Sensory memory, short-term memory, long-term memory
## Footnote
The model was proposed by Atkinson & Shiffrin in 1968.
157
What is the duration of information in iconic sensory memory?
About one-half second
158
What is the duration of information in echoic sensory memory?
About two seconds
159
What happens to sensory information when we pay attention to it?
It is transferred to short-term memory
160
What is the capacity of short-term memory according to Miller (1956)?
Between 7 + 2 units of information
161
What is 'chunking' in the context of short-term memory?
Grouping information to expand memory capacity
162
What is the primary function of working memory?
Processing and manipulating information in short-term memory
163
How is information transferred from short-term memory to long-term memory?
By encoding it
164
What are the two types of long-term memory?
Recent (secondary) memory and remote (tertiary) memory
165
What type of long-term memory is most adversely affected by increasing age?
Recent long-term memory
166
What are the two classifications of declarative memory?
Semantic memory and episodic memory
167
What are procedural memories also known as?
Nondeclarative memories
168
What is the difference between retrospective and prospective memories?
Retrospective memories are for past events, while prospective memories are for future events
169
What is the definition of explicit memory?
Memories that require conscious effort to retrieve
170
What is implicit memory?
Memories recalled without conscious effort
171
What is priming?
A phenomenon where exposure to a stimulus facilitates or inhibits response to a similar stimulus
172
What are the types of priming?
* Perceptual priming
* Conceptual priming
* Affective/evaluative priming
* Masked priming
* Semantic priming
* Associative priming
* Repetition priming
173
What is the method used to assess repetition priming?
Word-stem and word-fragment completion
174
What are false memories also known as?
Illusory memories
175
What is the DRM procedure used for?
Studying false memories by recalling semantically related words
176
What happens when subjects are asked to recall words from the DRM list?
They often recall a critical lure that was not presented
177
What is false memory induction?
Inducing a false memory by suggesting an event that did not occur
178
What is imagination inflation?
Inducing a false memory by having subjects repeatedly imagine an event that did not occur
179
True or False: Implicit memory is synonymous with procedural memory.
True
180
Fill in the blank: Long-term memories can be classified as _______ or prospective.
retrospective
181
What does trace decay theory explain about forgetting?
Memories create physical changes in the brain that deteriorate over time when not rehearsed or recalled.
## Footnote
Trace decay theory has not been well-supported by research.
182
What is interference theory?
Forgetting is attributed to the disruption of memories by previously or more recently acquired information.
## Footnote
Interference theory has received consistent research support.
183
What is proactive interference?
Occurs when previously learned information interferes with the ability to learn or recall new information.
## Footnote
Example: Memorizing a new list of words interfered by an old list.
184
What is retroactive interference?
Occurs when newly acquired information interferes with the ability to recall previously acquired information.
## Footnote
Example: Forgetting the first list of words after memorizing a second list.
185
When are proactive and retroactive interference most likely to occur?
When previously and more recently acquired information are similar.
## Footnote
Example: Learning different methods for solving similar math problems.
186
What is elaborative rehearsal?
Involves making new information meaningful by relating it to something already known or generating personally meaningful examples.
187
What is semantic encoding?
Encoding information by making it meaningful, considered the best way to ensure information is transferred to and retrieved from long-term memory.
188
What are verbal mnemonics?
Acronyms and acrostics used for memorizing a list of words.
189
How is an acronym formed?
Using the first letter of each word to create a word or pronounceable non-word.
190
Provide an example of an acronym.
OCEAN for the Big Five personality traits: openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism.
191
What is an acrostic?
A phrase or sentence created with each word beginning with the first letter of the words to be memorized.
192
Provide an example of an acrostic.
PLEASE EXCUSE MY DEAR AUNT SALLY for the order of operations: parentheses, exponents, multiplication, division, addition, subtraction.
193
What are visual imagery mnemonics?
Mnemonics that use visual imagery, such as the keyword method and method of loci.
194
What is the keyword method?
Useful for paired associate learning, involving creating an image linking a foreign word to a familiar word.
195
What is the method of loci?
Links an image of each word to a specific object in a familiar location for memorization.
196
What is the encoding specificity hypothesis?
Retrieval from long-term memory is maximized when learning conditions match recall conditions.
197
What is context-dependent learning?
Learning and retrieving information in the same environment.
198
What is state-dependent learning?
Learning and retrieving information while in the same psychological or physiological state.
199
What is practice testing?
Practicing recalling information from long-term memory during learning.
200
What is the testing effect?
The positive impact of practice testing on memory, confirmed by numerous studies.
201
What is latent learning according to Tolman?
Learning that occurs without reinforcement and is not immediately demonstrated in observable behaviors.
202
What was the main finding of Tolman's study with rats?
Group 3 rats formed cognitive maps of the maze without reinforcement, allowing them to perform well once reinforcement was introduced.
203
What is insight learning according to Kohler?
A type of learning characterized by a sudden realization of a solution to a problem.
204
What did Kohler's study with Sultan the chimpanzee demonstrate?
Sultan had an 'a-ha' experience when solving the problem of reaching a banana.
205
What does Bandura's social cognitive theory focus on?
Observational learning and the processes involved in acquiring new behaviors.
206
What are the four mediational processes in Bandura's theory?
* Attention
* Retention
* Production
* Motivation
207
What is participant modeling in the context of treating phobias?
A technique where the client observes a model approach the feared stimulus gradually with assistance.
208
True or False: Boys acted more aggressively than girls in Bandura's studies.
True
209
What is the role of reinforcement in Bandura's social cognitive theory?
Increases motivation and can take forms such as self-reinforcement, external reinforcement, or vicarious reinforcement.
