GU Flashcards
(121 cards)
1
Q
type of diuretic is triamterene
A
k sparing
2
Q
type of diuretic is acetazolamide
A
carbonic anyhydrase inhibitor
3
Q
type of diuretic is HCTZ
A
thiazide
4
Q
type of diuretic is bemetanide
A
loop
5
Q
type of diuretic is spironolactone
A
k sparing, aldo antag
6
Q
type of diuretic is ethacrynic acid
A
loop
7
Q
type of diuretic is mannitol
A
osmotic
8
Q
type of diuretic is metolazone
A
thiazide
9
Q
type of diuretic is chlorthalidone
A
thiazide
10
Q
type of diuretic is furosemide
A
loop
11
Q
type of diuretic is amiloride
A
K sparing
12
Q
type of diuretic is torsemide
A
loop
13
Q
diuretic used for acute pulmonary edema
A
loop
14
Q
diuretic used for idiopathic hypercalciuria
A
thiazide
15
Q
diuretic used for glaucoma
A
acetazolamide / mannitol
16
Q
diuretic used for mild to moderate CHF with expanded ECV
A
loop, aldo antag
17
Q
diuretic used for with loop or thiaziode to retain K
A
K sparing
18
Q
diuretic used for edema associated with nephrotic syndrome
A
loop
19
Q
diuretic used for increased intracranial pressure
A
acetazolamide / mannitol
20
Q
diuretic used for mild to moderate hypertension
A
thiazide
21
Q
diuretic used for hypercalcemia
A
loop
22
Q
diuretic used for altitude sickness
A
acetazolamide
23
Q
diuretic used for hyperaldosteronism
A
spironolactone, eplerenone
24
Q
bacteria causing pyelonephritis
A
e coli, saprophyticus, proteus, klebsiella, candida
25
medical management of renal stone
IV hydration, pain meds, (?) tamsulosin/ nifedipine
26
treatment for uric acid renal stones
alkalinize urine with Na citrate or sodium bicarb
27
size calcium renal stone has 50% likelihood of passing without surgical intervention
8-9 mm
28
five etiologies of temporary hematuria
UTI, trauma, nephrolithiasis, exercise, endometriosis
29
renal pathology from uncorrected severe benign prostatic hyperplasia
bilat hydronephrosis
30
cardiac abnormalities associated with ADPKD
MVP, aortic regurgq
31
biggest risk factor for renal cell carcinoma
smoking
32
patient involved in MVA has a crushed thigh. Your resident says give patient IV fluids to maimtain high urime output of 100-200. Why did she advise this?
to prevent interstitial nephropathy from increased myopathy
33
what is the most common cause of interstitial nephropathy/ nephritis?
drug
NSAID, aminoglycoside, beta lactam, sulfonamides
34
50 y/o smoker presents with flank pain, weight loss, hematuria, and polycythemia. What is the next step?
imaging of kidneys
35
renal pathology with IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition, LM: hypercellular glomeruli
post infectious
36
renal pathology with linear pattern of IgG deposition
goodpasture
37
renal pathology with anti GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis
goodpasture
38
renal pathology with nephritis, deafness, cataracts
alport
39
renal pathology with LM: crescent formation in the glomeruli
RPGN
40
renal pathology with palpable purpura on back of arms and legs, abdominal pain IgA nephropathy
HSP
41
renal pathology with positive ANCA
pauci immune RPGN, granulomatosis with polyangiitis
42
renal pathology with anti dsDNA antibodies
lupus nephritis
43
defining features of nephrotic syndrome
proteinuria > 3.5
albumin less than 3
edema
44
glomerular histology reveals multiple mesangial nodules. This lesion is indicative of what disease?
DM nephropathy
45
renal pathology with most common nephrotic syndrome in children
minimal change disease
46
renal pathology with most common nephrotic syndrome in adults
FSGS
47
renal pathology with EM: loss of epithelial foot processes
minimal change disease
48
renal pathology with nephrotic syndrome associated with hepatitis B
membranous
49
renal pathology with nephrotic syndrome associated with HIV
FSGS
50
renal pathology with EM: subendo humps and tram-track appearance
MPGN
51
renal pathology with LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis
FSGS
52
renal pathology with EM: spike and dome pattern of the basement membrane
membranous
53
renal pathology with most common nephrotic syndrome in AA males
FSGS
54
renal pathology with apple green birefringence with Congo red stain under polarized light
amyloidosis
55
patient is found to have fever, rash, elevated creatinine, and eosinophilia. Dx?
AIN
56
In prerenal acute renal failure what is the value for fractional excredtion of sodium? For BUN:creatinine ratio?
FENa less than 1
BUN: creatinine greater than 20
57
Which test is used for screening diabetic patients for kidney damage?
urine microalbumin
58
what blood pressure medications are renal protective and preferred in the treatment of HTN in patients with chronic kidney disease?
ACEI/ARB
59
RTA Type 1: urine pH, serum K, serum HCO3
urine pH > 5.3
serum K decr
serum HCO3 decr
60
RTA Type 2: urine pH, serum K, serum HCO3
urine pH less than 5.3
serum k decr
serum hco3 decr
61
RTA Type 4: urine pH, serum K, serum HCO3
urine pH less than 5.3
serum k incr
serum hco3 nl
62
treatment of Type I RTA
sodium bicarb, K, thiazide
63
treatment of Type II RTA
sodium bicarb, K, thiazide
64
treatment of Type IV RTA
fludrocortisone, restrict K
65
Common cause of metabolic alkalosis
vomiting, diuretics, hyperaldo, cushing
66
common cause of respiratory alkalosis
hyperventilation
| - high altitude, asthma, aspirin tox, PE
67
common cause of respiratory acidosis
COPD, resp depression, NM disease
68
common cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis
MUDPILES
```
methanol
uremia
DKA
propylene glycol
INH/iron
lactic acidosis
ethylene glycol
salicylates
```
69
common cause of nongap metabolic acidosis
diarrhea, hypoaldo, RTA, TPN
70
What is the consequence of correcting hyponatremia too rapidly? How rapidly can it safely be corrected?
central pontine myelinolysis
71
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from thiazide
hypovolemic
72
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from SIADH
euvolemic
73
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from cirrhosis
hypervolemic
74
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from addison disease
hypovolemic
75
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from hypothyroidism
euvolemic
76
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from renal failure
hypervolemic
77
volume status in patient with hyponatremia from psychogenic polydipsia
euvolemic
78
most common causes of SIADH
CNS disease, pulmonary disease, drugs, HIV/AIDS, abdominal surgery
79
consequence of correcting hypernatremia too rapidly? how rapidly can it safely be corrected?
cerebral edema
80
next step in the management of a patient with peaked T waves on EKG due to hyperkalemia
IV ca gluconate/ CaCl
81
medications used to rapidly correct hyperkalemia by shifting potassium into cells
insulin and glucose
sodium bicarb
albuterol
82
treatment for nephrogenic DI
increased H20, salt restriction, thiazide, indomethacin
Li induced nephrogenic DI - amiloride
83
medications are known for causing hyperkalemia? hypokalemia?
K sparing diuretics, ACEI, ARB, beta blocker, dig
diuretics, albumin, insulin
84
which electrolyte abnormality causes QT prolongation on EKG? which electrolyte abnormality causes QT shortening?
hypocalcemia
hypercalcemia
85
which type of RTA is associated with abnormal HCO3 and rickets
RTA 2
86
risk factors for developing bladder cancer
smoking, schistosomiasis, aniline dyes, recurrent UTIs, male, cyclophosphamide
87
what are the three types of urinary incontinence
urge, stress, overflow
88
diagnostic tests will confirm diagnosis of overflow incontinence
bladder US
post void cath
89
first step in treating bladder outlet obstruction
decompress bladder with foley
90
diagnostic test differentiates normal central DI from nephrogenic DI
ADH test
91
what is the treatment for urethritis in men
cef, doxy/azithro
92
classic symptoms of BPH
weakened urinary stream, urinary retention, frequency, nocturia, urgency
93
two classes of medications are used most often to treat BPH
alpha 1 antagonist
5alpha reductase inhibitor
94
hormonal medicatioins are often given to patients with metastastatic prostate cancer
GnRH agonist
| - leuprolide, geserelin
95
treatment for epididymitis
under 35 cef, doxy/azi
over 35 fluoroquinolones
96
most common germ cell tumor of the testis
seminoma
97
lab work included in the workup for erectile dysfunction
total testosterone
prolactin
TSH
+/- PSA
98
what is the most common physical finding/presenting symptom of a child with wilms tumor
renal flank mass
99
4 year old boy diagnosed with a UTI. What study should be performed next?
voiding cystourethrogram
100
recommended therapies for nocturanl enuresis?
toilet training, motivation, fluid restriction, enuresis alarm, DDAVP
101
male newborn with distended palpable baldder and oliguria. What is the most common cause of congenital urethral obstruction
posterior urethral valves
102
25 y/o male with solitary testicular mass by ultrasound. Next step?
surgical excision
103
signs and symptoms of pyelonephritis?
```
dysuria/frequency/urgency
flank pain
fever/chills
N/V
CVAT
```
104
test used to rule out urethral injury?
retrograde cystourethrogram
105
Patient has palpable flank mass and hematuria and renal ultrasound shows bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts. What brain anomaly is associated with this condition?
Berry aneurysms
106
Patient has eosinophilic casts found in the urine. Dx?
AIN, drug reaction
107
Man presents with acute onset flank pain and hematuria. What is the most likely etiology?
kidney stone
108
Postop patient has poor urine output, BUN 85, creatinine of 3 and clear lungs. What is the next step in management of this patient?
IV fluids
109
Patient with glomerulonphritis plus bilateral sensorineural deafness. What is the diagnosis?
alport syndrome
110
Post op patient with significant pain presents with hyponatremia and normal volume status. What is the diagnosis?
SIADH
111
glomerular disease with IF granular pattern of immune complex deposition; LM: hypercellular glomeruli
acute post strep GN
112
glomerular disease with IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition
goodpasture
113
glomerular disease with EM: loss of epithelial foot processes
minimal change disease
114
glomerular disease with EM: subendothelial humps and "tram track" appearance
MPGN
115
glomerular disease with nephritis, deafness, cataracts
alport syndrome
116
glomerular disease with purpura on the back of hte arms and legs, abd pain, IgA nephropathy
HSP
117
glomerular disease with anti-dsDNA antibodies
lupus nephritis
118
What is the classic presentation of poststrep glomerulonephritis?
child with brown urine and HTN
strep 1-3 weeks prior
high ASO titer
119
30 year old female african immigrant presents with hematuria. What do you suspect in this patient?
schistosoma haematobia
120
treatment for epididymitis?
cef and doxy/azi
121
medications used in the treatment of wegener's granulomatosis?
steroids
| cyclophosphamide
