head to toe yoost Flashcards

(225 cards)

1
Q

what determines ski color and hue

A

pigment

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2
Q

what causes white pinkish skin

A

low melanin

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3
Q

absence of pigment is called

A

albinism

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4
Q

what is cyanosis

A

blue discoloration of the skin nail beds or mucous

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5
Q

what causes cyanosis

A

casoconstriction or deoxygenated hemoglobin in blood vessels newar skin

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6
Q

what is erythema

A

redness of skin

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7
Q

syoptoms of erythema

A

congestion or dialation of superficial vessels in skin,

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8
Q

what causes erythema

A

skin injury
sunburn
infection
fever

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9
Q

purpura is

A

bleeding underneath the skin

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10
Q

what does purpura indicate

A

vascular coagulation, platelet disorder

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11
Q

jaundice

A

yellow hue to skin, mucous membrain, eyes

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12
Q

causes of jaundice

A

excess bilirubin, liver failure

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13
Q

best site to check for jaundice

A

sclera, the hard palate, darker skinned people

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14
Q

pallor is

A

pale or lighetened skin tone

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15
Q

pallor causes

A

illness, emotional shock, stress, decreased exposure to sunlight, anemia, may be genetic

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16
Q

where is pallor observed

A

face, oral mucosa, nail beds, palms of hands, conjuctiva of eye

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17
Q

vitiligo is

A

loss of skin pigment

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18
Q

vitiligo causes

A

result of autoimmune response

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19
Q

skin lesions causes

A

benign, age related skin, skin tags, cherry angiomas, keratosis, warts, freckles

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20
Q

what is petechiae

A

tiny dark red spots

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21
Q

what does petechiae idicate

A

hemorrhage (blood) under skin

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22
Q

skin malignancies

A

a type of canser

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23
Q

taninng before age 35 increase the risk for

A

melanoma (deadliest skin canser)

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24
Q

skin lesion types

A

macule/ patch
papule/plaque
nodule
tumor
vesicle/bulla
pustule
wheal
burrow
cyst

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25
Macule/Patch is
flat >1cm
26
papule/plaque looks
solid, raised >0.5cm
27
nodule looks like
raised with defined borders 0.5-2 cm
28
tumor looks like
solid mass undefined bordes >1-2cm
29
vesicle/bulla looks like
circumscribed raised <0.5
30
pustule
similar to vesicle, acne
31
wheal look like
hives, insect bites
32
burrow looks like
linear or circular scabies mites
33
cyst look like
encapsulated fluid/ solid mass cyst
34
Turgor
skin elasticity or ability to resist deformity after being displaced
35
edema is
swelling
36
edema cause
buildup of fluid in underlying tissue trauma to an area impairment of venous return
37
if you find hair on ___ etc it not normal
lips, palms, soles of feet, niples, labia minora, penis
38
types of skin cancer
basal cell carcinoma squamous cell carcinoma melanoma
39
basal cell carcinoma causes
sun exposure fair complexions family history weakened immune system radiation therapy age
40
what causes squamous cell carcinoma
chronic sun exposure rest as same for basal cell carcinoma
41
causes of melanoma
sun exposure fair complexions freckling light hair multiple moles male gender history of cancer in family or person immune suppression
42
ABCDE when looking for malenoma
a= asymmetry b=border c=color d=diameter e=evolving
43
assymmetry of melanoma
one half of leasion do not match other half
44
border of malenoma
irregular/ uneven
45
color of malenoma
tan, brown, black, white, red, blue
46
diamertar of malenoma
6+ cm
47
evolving in malenoma
changes in shape color size
48
Documentation of Pitting Edema size
slight pit 2mm depper pit 4mm deep pit 6mm very deep pit 8mm
49
when hair grow on lip its called
hirsutism
50
permanent or temprorary hair loss is called
alopecia
51
pruritus means
itching
52
nails are supposed to be
hard
53
Nail Shape abnormalietes
splinter hemorrhage paronychia clubbing beaus lines koilonychia muehrcke
54
what does splinter hemorrhage look like and causes
red or purple brown streak on nail bed Minor trauma, trichinosis, subacute bacterial endocarditis
55
Paronychia what does look like and why
Inflammation of the skin at the base of the nail causes: Local infection Acute: Staphylococcus aureus, herpes simplex virus Chronic: Candida albicans, Pseudomonas spp.
56
Clubbing what does look like and why
Enlargement of the fingertips, softening of the nail bed, and flattening of the nail; angle between the nail plate and the nail often greater than 180 degrees Nail injury, systemic injury, eczema, psoriasis, paronychia
57
Koilonychia what does look like and why
Concave curves of the nail, with thinning of the nail plate; also called “spoon nail” Iron deficiency anemia, repeated chemical trauma, syphilis
58
Beau’s lines what does look like and why
Transverse ridging in nails due to a temporary halt in nail growth
59
Muehrcke lines what does look like and why
Double band of white lines (leukonychia) Renal disease
60
Obtaining a health history begins with
patient interview
61
Physical examination requires
privacy
62
Equipment Used for Physical Examination
Patient gown * Scale * Height assessment tool * Sphygmomanometer with cuff * Stethoscope with bell and diaphragm * Thermometer * Wristwatch * Pulse oximeter * Disposable pads and/or examination table paper * Bath blanket or sheet * Gloves * Cotton applicators and/or cotton balls * Eye chart * Flashlight or penlight * Otoscope and ophthalmoscope * Tuning fork * Tongue depressor * Reflex hammer * Tape measure or ruler * Specimen containers, as needed
63
The following should be done with all specimen containers
Handle with gloves. * Wipe clean of debris. * Mark or label with the patient’s identification information. * Bag after collection before sending the specimen to the laboratory.
64
Patient's emotional and physical responses often depend on their level of
comfort or anxiety
65
positions required for physical assessment depends on the patient’s level of
mobility, physical strength, and comorbid conditions
66
comorbid conditions is
two or more medical conditions existing simultaneously
67
chief complaint
presenting problem
68
clinical manifestations
signs and symptoms
69
Physical Examination Positions
Supine Dorsal recumbent position fowler lithotomy prone left lateral recumbent knee chest
70
supine position is to examine
To examine the head and neck, anterior thorax and lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, abdomen, extremities, and pulses
71
Dorsal recumbent is to examine
To examine the head and neck, anterior thorax and lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, and abdomen
72
fowler is to examine
To examine the head and neck, anterior thorax and lungs, breasts, axillae, heart, abdomen, lower extremities, and pulses
73
Lithotomy is to examine
To examine the female genitalia
74
Prone is to examine
To examine the back, spine, posterior aspect of the head, neck, thorax, buttocks, and lower extremities
75
Left lateral recumbent is to examine
To examine the rectal and perineal areas
76
Knee-chest is to examine
rectal area
77
accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles of the brain is called
hydrocephalus
78
crossed eyes is called
Strabismus
79
causes of strabismus
due to muscle weakness or paralysis
80
seeing double is called
diplopia
81
The eyes are positioned on each side of the nasal bone, approximately
1 to 2 inches apart from one inner canthus to the other
82
When abnormal drooping of the eyelid occurs, the condition is known as
ptosis
83
The sclera is examined to check its
color and ensure that it is intact, without lesions
84
the cornea refracts light and accounts for approximately ______ of the eye’s total optical power
two-thirds
85
Documentation of a normal pupillary reflex examination is recorded as
PERRLA
86
PERRLA stands for
pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
87
Movement of the eyes in all directions is controlled by the combined function of three cranial nerves which are
III, oculomotor; IV, trochlear; and VI, abducens
88
rapid, shaking, involuntary movement of the eyes is called
nystagmus
89
cranial nerve II control
patency and central vision
90
if a patient cant see far what nerve Is likely the cause
cranial nerve 2
91
Cataracts are
Opacity or clouding of the eye lens
92
cataracts causes
Increasing age, female gender * Prolonged sun exposure * Cigarette smoking, alcohol or steroid use * Diet low in antioxidants
93
Glaucoma is
Optic neuropathy, usually associated with increased intraocular pressure
94
Glaucoma causes
Increased age, African or Hispanic ancestry * Migraines, diabetes, low blood pressure * Increased intraocular pressure * Family history * Eye injury
95
Macular Degeneration
* Deterioration of the macula, the area on the retina that is responsible for central vision, allowing for clear vision of fine details; Two types: dry and wet
96
Macular Degeneration causes
* Family history, white ancestry * Overactive immune system causing inflammation * Smoking, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia
97
Myopia is
Nearsightedness
98
myopia causes
Familial history
99
Hyperopia is
Farsightedness
100
Hyperopia causes
Familial history
101
Presbyopia is
age-related loss of near vision
102
Presbyopia causes
Age older than 40 years
103
Ophthalmoscope is used for
Examination of the internal structures of the eye
104
Physical examination of the ear begins with direct inspection and palpation of
outer ear
105
Inspect the external ear canal for
discharge or drainage
106
purulent means
containing pus
107
purulent can indicate
indicate infection or foreign body penetration of the middle ear
108
cerumen is
earwax
109
cerumen color should be
yellow to dark brown
110
Insert the speculum no more than 1 to
1.5 cm
111
tinnitus is ______ _______ ______ in the ears
ringing, buzzing, or roaring in the ears
112
tinntitus indicate
hearing loss, overuse of salicylates symptomatic of diseases that cause vertigo
113
whats vertigo
disequilibrium, spinning sensation
114
vertigo causes
Ménière disease
115
Hearing loss may result from
trauma, aging, heredity, disease, medication, and prolonged exposure to high-decibel sound
116
three primary types of hearing loss are
sensorineural, conductive, and mixed
117
Sensorineural hearing loss is due to
inner ear damage
118
Conductive hearing loss occurs when
something interferes with the transmission of sound via vibration to the inner ear
119
most common causes of vibration interruption
Fluid in the middle ear and cerumen accumulation
120
Mixed hearing loss results from
middle-ear and nerve damage
121
Weber Test is conducted when
patient complains of hearing loss in one ear
122
what is weber test conducted with
tuning fork
123
Rinne Test compares ______and _______ conduction
bone, air
124
Air-conducted sound should be heard _______as long as bone-conducted sound
twice
125
Patients with inner ear disorders often experience a loss of
equilibrium and vertigo.
126
Romberg Test is conducted to assess the patient’s
equilibrium
127
Inability to stay balanced with eyes closed during romberg test may indicate
vestibular disease
128
The nose and sinuses are inspected and palpated with the patient seated or standing?
seated
129
The skin on and around the nose should be
smooth, even, and consistent with the color of facial skin tones
130
excoriation means
abrasion due to rubbing or scratching
131
Ask the patient to breathe through one nostril at a time, while the opposite nostril is pressed closed with a fingertip to check for
if air passes freely through nostrils
132
epistaxis is
noesbleed
133
epistaxis causes
high blood pressure or diabetes.
134
Assessment of the mouth, throat, and neck provides the nurse with the opportunity to evaluate many aspects of the patient’s health status, including:
* Oral hygiene * Condition of the teeth and gums * Hydration status * Airway patency * Ability to meet nutrition needs * Patency of cerebral blood flow
135
Dry, cracked lips are called
cheilitis
136
cheilitis causes
dehydration from limited oral intake or exposure to excessive heat (hyperthermia) or cold
137
To test cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function, ask the patient to demonstrate
clenching the teeth and then smiling if they can do it that good It indicates its working normally
138
inspect the teeth for
color, irregular shape, cavities, and Loose or missing teeth
139
Using a _____ _______ and ________, inspect the buccal mucosa, teeth, gums, tongue, uvula, tonsils, and palate for color, texture, lesions, ulcers, bleeding, and patency
tongue blade, penlight
140
The superficial lymph nodes in the neck, are _______ ______ under normal circumstances
not palpable
141
lymph nodes becomes enlarged when
it receives drainage from a specific area of infection or disease
142
The jugular veins are observed for ________ and ________
distention, blood flow
143
JVD stand for
jugular vein distention
144
carotid arteries, which provide ______ supply to the _____, are assessed for _____of _____ _____
blood, head, patency, blood flow
145
bruit is
abnormal “swooshing” sound
146
Inspect the thyroid gland for ______and _______
position, enlargment
147
The thyroid gland is the _______ endocrine gland in the body
largest
148
Assessment of respiratory status begins with questioning the patient about
risks for pulmonary complications
149
Questions Respiratory System
* How far can you walk on level ground? * How many stairs are you able to climb without becoming short of breath? * Do you have a cough? If so, when did it start? * Do you cough up mucus or blood? If so, describe the color and consistency. * Can you lie flat when sleeping? * Do you snore? * Do you use oxygen or breathing machines at home? If so, how often and at what setting? * Do you ever experience shortness of breath either at rest or with exercise? * Do you have any pain with breathing? * Is the pain associated with coughing, shortness of breath, trauma, nasal congestion, or sore throat? * Does chest pain cause splinting, shallow breathing, or uneven chest expansion, or does it radiate to the back, neck, or arms? * What relieves the chest pain associated with respiration? * Do you have any recent history of trauma or infection? * Do you have a history of chronic conditions that affect respiration, including allergies, emphysema, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis, or asthma? * Do you have a history of tumors or lung cancer? * Do you use tobacco or marijuana? If so, how many years and packs per day? * Have you been exposed to dust, fumes, or smoke in the environment at work or home? * Have you traveled out of the country recently?
150
Inspection of the anterior and posterior thorax for symmetry and shape includes inspecting the following
chest hair for color, thickness, and even distribution Nipples should be centered on either side of the sternum Observe the spine (normally is midline and straight) Ribs should slope downward scapulae lie flat on either side of the spine anteroposterior (AP) measurement of the chestnormal ratios of 1:2 to 5:7.
151
Normal breathing patterns are _______, _______, and effortless
relaxed, automatic, effortless
152
normal respiratory rate
12 and 20 bpm
153
Chest pain, shortness of breath, coughing, or diaphoresis may occur when
pulmonary embolism (PE), deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is present
154
the two types of venous thromboembolism (VTE)
pulmonary embolism (PE) deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
155
Tactile fremitus is decreased or absent in patients with conditions that obstruct lung tissue, such as
pneumothorax, tumors, pleural effusion, or COPD
156
Tactile fremitus can increase with _____
pneumonia or consolidation close to the chest wall.
157
atelectasis is
collapse of all or part of the lung
158
breath sounds may be decreased or absent because of _______
atelectasis
159
normal Breath Sound tracheal pitch quality amplitude and location
Pitch high Quality harsh Amplitude loud Over the trachea
160
normal Breath Sound Bronchial pitch quality amplitude and location
Pitch high Quality hollow Amplitude loud Over the main bronchi
161
normal Breath Sound Bronchovesicular pitch quality amplitude and location
Pitch medium Quality mixed Amplitude medium Posterior between the scapulae; anterior around the upper sternum in the first two intercostal spaces
162
normal Breath Sound pitch quality amplitude and location: vesicular
Pitch low Quality blowing Amplitude soft Over most of the lung fields
163
Assist the patient into a supine position or raise the head of the bed 45 degrees to inspect and palpate the ________
Cardiac function (heart)
164
Adventitious Breath Sounds
Crackles Rhonchi Wheezing Stridor Pleural friction rub
165
Crackles sounds like
Brief crackling, popping sounds
166
Rhonchi sounds like
Low-pitched, snoring sounds
167
Wheezing sounds like
High-pitched, whistling sound
168
Stridor sounds like
Intense, high-pitched, and continuous monophonic wheeze or crowing sound
169
Pleural friction rub sounds like
Low-pitched, grating, or creaking sound
170
Health Assessment Questions Cardiovascular System
Are you experiencing chest pain? If so, describe the pain. When was its onset or when did the pain begin? What is its duration or how long have you had this pain? What are the characteristics of the pain (sharp, stabbing, aching, burning, viselike)? Where is the pain? Does the pain radiate? What relieves the pain? Are there any other symptoms associated with the pain? * Do you have any palpitations or extreme fatigue? * Do you have any difficulty breathing or difficulty lying flat when sleeping? * Do you have any past medical history of cardiac surgery or hospitalizations for cardiac events or disorders? * Have you ever had acute rheumatic fever, swollen or painful joints, or inflammatory rheumatism? * Do you have any chronic illnesses such as hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, coronary artery disease, congenital heart defects, or bleeding disorders? * Do you have a family history of diabetes, heart disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, obesity, congenital or acquired heart defects, or sudden death at a young age? If so, include age at the time of diagnosis and death of first-degree relatives. * Are you on an anticoagulant? Do you have a coagulation disorder? * Does your employment include physical demands, emotional stress, or environmental hazards such as chemicals, heat, sunlight, or dust? * Do you use tobacco? If so, at what age did you start? How many packs per day? Have you stopped using it? * How often do you use alcohol or recreational drugs? If used, what type of alcohol or recreational drugs do you prefer? * What is your nutritional status? Have you lost or gained weight recently? * What do you do to relax? * Do you exercise? How much and how often? * Do you have aching, cramping, or pain in the legs while walking or exercising? If so, when did it start, how long have you had it, and what are its characteristics? Does anything relieve the pain? * Have you ever had loss of consciousness or transient syncope? If so, was the episode associated with any other symptoms? * Does shortness of breath interfere with your activities of daily living? * Do you have any tingling, numbness, or coldness in your hands or feet? * Do you have edema or swelling in your hands, feet, or ankles? If so, what makes it worse? What reduces the edema? * Have you had any recent change in hair loss or growth on your hands, feet, or ankles? * Has anything restricted blood flow to your extremities (cast, surgery, trauma, tight clothing)?
171
two distinct ______ sounds, known as S1 (“lub”) and S2 (“dub”), are heard
heart
172
An entire S1 plus S2 (“lub-dub”) cycle constitutes _______ heartbeat
one
173
Failure of the heart to beat at regular successive intervals is called
dysrhythmia
174
pulse deficit is when
patient’s radial pulse rate is slower than the apical pulse rate
175
Cardiac murmurs are
blowing or swishing sounds heard in systole or diastole
176
Cardiac murmurs cause
increased or abnormal blood flow through the valves of the heart
177
a thrill is
an abnormal vibration felt on palpation
178
a thrill is detected with a _____
murmur
179
Murmurs are graded according to intensity what are the 5 grades
Grade 1: Scarcely audible with a good stethoscope in a quiet room Grade 2: Quiet but readily audible with a stethoscope Grade 3: Easily heard with a stethoscope Grade 4: A loud, obvious murmur with a palpable thrill Grade 5: Very loud with a palpable thrill; heard over the pericardium and elsewhere in the body (radiates) Grade 6: Heard with a stethoscope off the chest; thrill palpable and visible
180
A Doppler ultrasound unit may be used to assess weak
peripheral pulses
181
tortuosity meaning
bending and twisting
182
While assessing the patient’s Peripheral pulse, the nurse notes its
intensity, rate, and rhythm, existence of blood vessel tenderness, tortuosity, nodularity
183
Intensity or volume of peripheral pulses is graded on a scale of 0 to 3:
0 Absent pulse (unable to palpate) 1 Diminished (weaker than expected; difficult to palpate) 2 Normal (able to palpate with normal pressure) 3 Bounding (may be able to see pulsation; does not disappear with palpation)
184
Femoral pulses are best assessed with the patient in the ______ or ____ ______ position.
supine, low Fowler
185
Phlebitis is the
inflammation of a vein
186
the five Ps of circulation
pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia (numbness or tingling), and paralysis
187
paresthesia is
numbness or tingling
188
Lordosis is
a condition that causes an increased lumbar curvature just above the buttocks area
189
Kyphosis is
an outward curvature of the thoracic spine
190
Scoliosis is
a sideways or S-shaped curvature of the spine and is always abnormal
191
Health Assessment Questions Musculoskeletal System
* Do you have any pain or stiffness in your joints, muscles, or back? If so, when did it begin? Where is the pain or stiffness? What is its quality? Is the pain burning, aching, shooting, constant, or intermittent? Does anything aggravate or relieve the pain? * Are you able to perform activities of daily living, such as dressing or preparing meals, without musculoskeletal discomfort? * Can you climb stairs and walk without limping? * Do you have numbness or tingling in your extremities? * Are you able to engage in strenuous activity or exercise? * Have you experienced any recent trauma to any of your bones, joints, soft tissue, or nerves? * Do you have any chronic illnesses that may affect the musculoskeletal system, including cancer, osteoporosis, arthritis, and renal or neurologic disorders? * Do you have any known skeletal deformities or a congenital history that may affect the musculoskeletal system? * Do you have any family history of arthritis (rheumatoid, osteoarthritis, ankylosing spondylitis), back problems (scoliosis, spina bifida), or genetic disorders (osteogenesis imperfecta, rickets, dwarfing syndrome)? * Does your diet include adequate calcium and vitamin D?
192
hypertonicity is
increase in muscle tone
193
hypotonicity is
decrease in muscle tone
194
Clonus is a _____ ______ ______ of the muscle
repetitive vibratory contraction
195
Clonus causes
muscle and tendon stretch
196
Reflex responses to deep tendon and cutaneous reflexes are documented using a subjective scale as follows:
4+ Very brisk, hyperactive with clonus 3+ Brisker than average, slightly hyperactive 2+ Average, normal 1+ Sluggish or diminished 0 No response
197
Reflex of muscle and normal response to Tendon Reflex Assessment: Biceps
Biceps contraction and flexion
198
Reflex of muscle and normal response to Tendon Reflex Assessment: triceps
Extension of the forearm
199
Reflex of muscle and normal response to Tendon Reflex Assessment: Achilles ankle jerk
Plantar flexion of the foot
200
Reflex of muscle and normal response to Tendon Reflex Assessment: Quadriceps or patellar knee jerk
Extension of the leg
201
Reflex of muscle and normal response to Tendon Reflex Assessment: Plantar
Adults and children: Plantar flexion of the toes and forefoot Infants: Dorsiflexion of the big toe and fanning out of the toes (positive Babinski sign)
202
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve I: Olfactory (Sensory)
Transmits the sense of smell After assessing patency of both nares, have the patient close the eyes, obstruct one naris, and inhale to identify a common scent.
203
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve II: Optic (Sensory)
Transmits visual information to the brain; located in the optic canal Check visual acuity (have the patient read newspaper print or use a Snellen chart), and test visual fields for each eye.
204
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve III: Oculomotor (Motor)
Innervates four of the six muscles that collectively execute most eye movements; responsible for pupillary constriction and dilation Assess pupil size and light reflex; note direction of gaze.
205
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve IV: Trochlear (Motor)
Innervates muscles responsible for downward and inward gaze of the eyes Ask the patient to gaze downward, temporally, and nasally.
206
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve V: Trigeminal (Sensory and Motor)
responsible for the corneal reflex; receives sensation from the face and innervates the muscles of mastication Motor: Palpate jaws and temples while patient clenches teeth. Sensory: With the patient’s eyes closed, gently touch a cotton ball to all areas of the face.
207
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve VI: Abducens (Motor)
Innervates muscles responsible for outward gaze of the eyes Assess directions of gaze.
208
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve VII: Facial (Sensory and Motor)
Provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression; receives the sense of taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue; provides innervation to the salivary glands (except parotid) and the lacrimal gland Motor: Check symmetry of the face by having the patient frown, close eyes, lift eyebrows, and puff cheeks. Sensory: Assess the patient’s ability to recognize taste (sugar, salt, lemon juice).
209
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve VIII: Vestibulocochlear or Auditory-Vestibular (Sensory)
Vestibular branch: Carries impulses for equilibrium Cochlear branch: Carries impulses for hearing Assess the patient’s ability to hear a spoken and whispered word.
210
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve IX: Glossopharyngeal (Sensory and Motor)
Receives taste from the posterior third of the tongue; provides innervation to the parotid gland; and provides motor innervation for swallowing Sensory: Assess the patient’s ability to taste sour or sweet on last two-thirds of tongue. Motor: Check for presence of the gag reflex by inserting a tongue blade two-thirds into the pharynx.
211
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve X: Vagus (Sensory and Motor)
Supplies innervation to the larynx and soft palate responsible for speech and swallowing; provides parasympathetic fibers to nearly all thoracic and abdominal smooth muscles Depress the tongue with a tongue blade and have the patient say “ah” or yawn. The uvula and soft palate should rise and be symmetric. Assess speech for hoarseness.
212
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve XI: Spinal Accessory (Motor)
Cranial root: Works with vagus nerve to control the muscles of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx Spinal root: Innervates muscles of the neck and back Have the patient rotate the head and shrug the shoulders against passive resistance.
213
Cranial Nerve Function and Assessment: Cranial Nerve XII: Hypoglossal (Motor)
Provides motor innervation to muscles of the tongue not innervated by the vagus nerve and to other glossal muscles; is important for swallowing and speech articulation Assess tongue control (e.g., have the patient stick out the tongue and move it from side to side).
214
Level of orientation and mental status are assessed by determining the patient’s ability to identify _____, _______,________,______
person, place, time, and situation
215
Glasgow Coma Scale
Eye opening: Spontaneous 4 To verbal command 3 To pain 2 None 1 Verbal: Oriented 5 Confused but able to answer questions 4 Inappropriate responses 3  Incomprehensible speech 2 None 1  Motor: Obeys commands 6  Purposeful movement to painful stimulus 5 Withdraws from pain 4 Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture 3 Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture 2 None 1 Possible total score range 3–15
216
Health Assessment Questions Abdomen (Gastrointestinal tract)
* Do you have any pain or difficulty with swallowing? * Have you experienced difficulty eating, weight change, or lack of appetite? * Do you have nausea, vomiting, regurgitation of food, frequent burping, heartburn, indigestion, or bloating? If so, what do you do to relieve the symptoms? * Are you experiencing abdominal pain? If so, what are the characteristics of the pain? Are there any associated symptoms? Does anything relieve the pain? * What is your typical 24-hour food intake? * Have you experienced any changes in bowel habits: diarrhea, constipation, incontinence, or frequent passing of gas? * Have you noticed any blood in your stool? * Do you have problems with hemorrhoids? * Have you ever had abdominal surgery? * Do you or any family members have a history of abdominal illnesses such as gallbladder disease, cancer, or irritable bowel syndrome?
217
Health Assessment Questions urinary tract
* Are you experiencing any difficulty with urination: Frequency, urgency, or difficulty starting or stopping your stream of urine? * Do you have a history of urinary tract or kidney infections or kidney stones? * Is there pain or burning when you urinate? * Have you noticed a change in your frequency of urination: Less often or more often than previously? * Do you feel that you empty your bladder when you urinate? * Do you have to get up at night to urinate? If so, how many times?
218
striae meaning
stretch marks resulting from pregnancy or from weight loss or gain
219
The nurse visually inspects the skin over the abdomen, noting
color, tone, scars, bruises, lesions, venous patterns, striae, drains, tubes, and stomas
220
peristalsis is
progressive wave action causing movement of contents through the gastrointestinal system
221
borborygmi is heard as
loud grumbling
222
stenosis means
narrowing
223
Assessment of the Male Genitalia include
size and shape of the penis and testes distribution of pubic hair across the perineal area (Before puberty, in preadolescents, pubic hair is absent in the groin area) enlargement and darkening of the testicles, appearance of pubic hair, and lengthening of the penis pubic area should be free of rashes, lesions, masses, and obvious deformity Observe for smegma
224
smegma is
a whitish substance under the foreskin of penis
225
prostate cancer screening is recomended to start at age
45