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HEMA Flashcards

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1
Q

Factor of hemophilia A

A. VIII
B. VI
C. X
D. XI

A

A. VIII

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2
Q

Total white cell count is the estimate of the total number of WBC’s in

A. Cubic millimeter
B. Cubic micrometer
C. Millimeter
D. None

A

A. Cubic millimeter

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3
Q

According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody

A. Is absent from the serum
B. Is present in the blood cells
C. Is present in the serum
D. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present

A

A. Is absent from the serum

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4
Q

Strong Antigen:

A. Vitamin
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Glycoprotein

A

Protein

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5
Q

Storage Temperature of platelets

A. 37C
B. 35-40C
C. 22-27C
D. -4C

A

22-27C

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6
Q

High total count is termed as

A. Leukopenia
B. Leukocytosis
C. Hypercytosis
D. Hypocytosis

A

Leukocytosis

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7
Q

What is the minimum number of bone marrow blast needed for the diagnosis of acute leukemia?

A. 29%
B. 50%
C. 5%
D. 30%

A

30%

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8
Q

Which of the following Fisher-Race phenotypes is the same as Rz

A. Dce
B. DCe
C. DcE
D. DCE

A

DCE

capital R correlates to capital D
z correlates to capital C and E

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9
Q

Insufficient centrifuge will result in:

A. A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value
B. A false decrease in Hct value
C. No effect on Hct value
D. All of these options, depending in the patient

A

A false increase in hematocrit (Hct) value

insufficient centrifugation does not pack down the red blood cells; therefore, the Hct which is the volume of packed cells, will increase

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10
Q

what is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?

A. 5-10%
B. 10-20%
C. 20-44%
D. 50-70%

A

20-44%

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11
Q

The general blood donor is

A. A blood group
B. B blood group
C. O blood group
D. AB blood group

A

O blood group

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12
Q

To what extent changes of hemoglobin in a day said to be normal?

A. 1.5 gm/dl
B. 2.5 gm/dl
C. 3 gm/dl
D. 3.5 gm/dl

A

1.5 gm/dl

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13
Q

Myeloid leukemia is

A. High Leukocyte
B. Low Leukocyte
C. Normal Leukocyte

A

High Leukocyte

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14
Q

The battlement scan pattern is employed in an eye-count differential examination of wedge blood film because:

A. Small lymphocytes will be concentrated in the feather edge
B. Large leukocytes occur more frequently in the feather edge
C. Eosinophils occur more frequently in the center of the film.
D. Leukocytes are distributed evenly throughout the film.

A

Eosinophils occur more frequently in the center of the film.

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15
Q

Pelger-Huet anomaly is neutrophil characterized by

A. Hyposegmented
B. Hypersegement
C. Toxic granules
D. All

A

Hyposegmented

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16
Q

Prolonged bleeding time commonly occurs in

A. Damage to vascular endothelium
B. Defect platelets function
C. Reduction Platelet number
D. Disorder of blood coagulation
E. All

A

All

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17
Q

Hb range in adult

A. 13.5-17.5 gm/dl
B. 12-16 gm/dl
C. 13.5-17.5 mg/dl
D. 11-15 gm/dl

A

13.5-17.5 gm/dl

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18
Q

The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the

A. Value of the cell indices
B. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
C. Size of the particle being counted
D. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell

A

Size of the particle being counted

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19
Q

The following are index sensitive and will measure iron deficiency anemia:

A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. TIBC
D. Hb Concentration
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

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20
Q

The person should not have donated blood within the previous

A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 2 months
D. 1 year

A

3 months

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21
Q

Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?

A. Hgb S
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb A2
D. Hgb A

A

Hgb A

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22
Q

Anti-Lea can react with:

A. Le (a+b+) cells
B. Le (a-b-) cells
C. Le (a+b-) cells
D. Le (a-b+) cells

A

Le (a+b+) cells
Le (a+b-) cells

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23
Q

A 7.0ml ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2.0 ml of blood. If the laboratory is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?

A. RBC count
B. Hemoglobin (Hgb)
C. Hct
D. WBC count

A

Hct

excessive anticoagulant causes shrinkage of cells, thus the Hct will be affected RBC and WBC counts remain the same as does the Hgb content.

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24
Q

The following index sensitive and will measure the total of iron deficiency anemia

A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. TIBC
D. Hb electrophoresis
E. All of the above

A

All of the above

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25
Diluting fluid for Manual platelet count
1% ammonium oxalate
26
What is the effect of prolonged tourniquet application to the level of VWF in the specimen?
False increase
27
The megakaryocyte progenitor that undergoes endomitosis is A. MK-I B. BFU-Meg C. CFU-Meg D. LD-CFU-Meg
LD-CFU-Meg Both A and D performs endomitosis LD-CFU-Meg is a progenitor while MK-I is a precursor
28
Cellular Unltrastructural component unique to the platelet. Absorb albumin, fibrinogen, and other plasma protein through endocytosis
Glycocalyx
29
PAR 1 and 4 receptor Activates what ligand?
Thrombin
30
Protein that form MICROTUBULES
Tubulin
31
Protein form MICROFILAMENTS
Actin
32
Which of the following platelet granules contain coagulation factors? A. Alpha B. Dense C. Lysosome D. Nota
ALPHA GRANULES
33
Which of the eosinophil granules contain cyclooxygenase?
Lipid bodies
34
Other name of ASPIRIN
Acetylsalicylic acid
35
Ideal length of blood smear (wedge method)
2/3 to 3/4
36
Process of replacing red marrow by yellow marrow during development?
RETROGRESSION
37
M:E ratio
1.5:1 to. 3.3:1
38
Leukemia M:E ratio
10:1
39
Total mass of RBCs circulating in the peripheral blood and the bone marrow RBC precursors
Erythron
40
Erythrocytes in the circulation
RBC mass
41
A term that describes the dynamics of RBC creation and destruction
Erythrokinetics
42
Immature Hematopoietic cell that is committed to a cell line but CANNOT be identified morphologically?
Progenitor cells
43
Immature Hematopoietic cell that is morphologically INDENTIFIABLE as belonging to a given cell line
PRECURSOR CELLS
44
earliest marker of eryrhroid differentiation; transferrin receptor
CD71
45
How many days for the BFU-E to mature to an erythrocyte?
18-21 days BFU-E to CFU-E : 1week CFU-E to Rybriblast : 1 week
46
Last stage with a NUCLEOLUS First stage of HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS absence of nucleuli Gives rise to 4 rubricyte
Prorubricyte (basophilic normoblast)
47
Last stage capable of MITOSIS first stage in which the cytoplasm becomes PINK Gives rise to 2 metarubricyte Checkerboard Muddy or gray color
Rubricyte / Polychromatic normoblast
48
Nucleus is extruded at this stage, and the cells becomes a reticulocyte. Nucleus: pyknotic (dense mass of degenerated chromatin) Cytoplasm: salmon-pink Last stage with a NUCLEUS
Metarubricyte / Orthochromatic normoblast
49
Last stage of HEMOGLOBIN SYNTHESIS Spends 2 to 3 days in the bone marrow and 1 day in the peripheral blood before developing into a mature RBC. Cytoplasm: Salmon pink
RETICULOCYTE
50
Anion transporter, supports ABH antigens
Band 3
51
Glucose transporter, supports ABH antigen
GLUT-1
52
Primary cytoskeletal proteins
Alpha spectrin Beta spectrin
53
Increase MCHC (35 & 38) Autosomal Dominant Defect in protein that disturbs vertical membrane interaction between transmembrane protein and underlying cytoskeleton; loss of membrane and decreased surface area to volume ration
Hereditary Spherocytosis
54
A flow cytomertry based test Most sensitive and specific test to confirm the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis
Ema Binding test
55
Glucose penetrates the red blood cell with no energy expenditure via GLUT-1 (a transmembrane protein) Produce 2 molecule of ATP
Embden-Meyerhof Pathway
56
Most common enzyme deficiency of the EMP and is the most common form of hereditary nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia Has ACANTHOCYTES, BURR CELLS
Pyruvate kinase deficiency Pk fluorescent spot tets - recommended screening test AUTOHEMOLYSIS - screening QUANTITATIVE PK ASSAY - Confirmatory
57
Most common enzyme deficiency in the pentose Phosphate pathway and is also the most common RBC enzyme defect (prevalence of 5% of the global population, or approximately 400 M people worldwide) PBS: HEINZ BODIES, BITE CELLS
Glucose 6 Phosphate dehydrogenase G6PD FLUORESCENT SPOT TEST - recommended screening AUTOHEMOLYSIS - screening QUANTITATIVE G6PD ASSAY - Confirmatory
58
Severe, episodic acute hemolytic anemia associated with infections, certain drugs and fava beans; not self-limited and may require transfusion during hemolytic episodes Favism G6PD Mediterranean variat
G6PD TYPE II
59
Prevent the denaturation of the GLOBIN by oxidation Functionally dependent on G6PD
Hexose Monophosphate shunt
60
Maintains iron in the HEME in it's reduced state (ferrous)
Methemoglobin reductase pathway
61
Increase PH Decrease PCO2 Decrease 2,3 BPG Decrease TEMP Increase O2 AFFINITY
Shift to the left
62
Decrease PH Increase PCO2 Increase 2,3 BPG Increase TEMP Decrease O2 AFFINITY
Shift to the right
63
RBC with slit like central pallor Rh Deficiency Syndrome, alcoholism, Electrolyte imbalance, Dehydrated hereditary, syomatocytosis (a. k. a. Hereditary Xerocytosis), overhydrated hereditary
Stomatocyte / Mouth cell
64
Abetalipoproteinemia (a.k.a. Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome & Hereditary Acanthocutosis) McLeod syndrome Pyruvate kinase deficiency Hepatic hemangioma Neonatal hepatitis After heparin administration Postspkenectomy Cirrhosis RBCs with irregular spiculated surface
ACANTHOCYTES Thorn cell Spur cell
65
RBCs with regularly spiculated surface Uremia Pyruvate kinase deficiency
BURR cell Echinocyte
66
Pear-shaped or teardrop shaped RBCs Primary Myelofibrosis (a.k.a. Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia) Megaloblastic anemia, Thalassemia,
Dacrayocyte Teardrop cells
67
Fragmented RBCs Patient with artificial heart valves, Uremia, severe burns, MAHAs
Schistocyte / Schizocyte
68
Two forms of drepanocytes 1. Cresent shaped, with long projections, when reoxygenated they fragment 2. Have less pronounced projections, when reoxygenated they return to the original, biconcave disk shape
1. Irreversible sickle cell 2. Oat shaped cells

MT Q&As (7 decks)

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