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High Yield day 1: MSK, GI, cards, neuro Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the highest suspicion for malignancy in calcification morphology?

A

Fine pleomorphic morphology

This type of morphology indicates a higher risk of malignancy.

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2
Q

Where are intramammary lymph nodes located?

A

Not in the fibroglandular tissue

This is an important distinction in mammography.

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3
Q

What should happen to surgical scars over time?

A

They should get lighter

If they become denser, it may indicate recurrent cancer.

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4
Q

Can you have isolated intracapsular rupture?

A

Yes

This is a possible condition in breast implants.

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5
Q

Can you have isolated extracapsular rupture?

A

No

Extracapsular rupture always occurs with intracapsular rupture.

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6
Q

What should you recommend if you see silicone in a lymph node?

A

MRI to evaluate for extracapsular rupture

This is crucial for proper diagnosis.

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7
Q

What is the number one risk factor for implant rupture?

A

Age of the implant

Older implants have a higher risk of rupture.

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8
Q

What effect does Tamoxifen have on parenchymal uptake?

A

Causes a decrease, then a rebound

This can influence imaging results.

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9
Q

What do T2 bright things usually indicate?

A

Usually benign

Colloid cancer and Mucinous are exceptions

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10
Q

What is the most commonly biopsied malignancy that results in nondiagnostic findings?

A

Lymphoma

Samples intended for flow cytometry are placed in saline instead of formalin.

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11
Q

What does the degree of femoral head displacement predict?

A

Risk of AVN

AVN stands for avascular necrosis, a condition that occurs when blood supply to the bone is disrupted.

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12
Q

Which part of the scaphoid is at risk for AVN with fracture?

A

Proximal pole

The scaphoid is a carpal bone in the wrist, and its proximal pole is particularly vulnerable to avascular necrosis after a fracture.

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of sacral insufficiency fracture?

A

Osteoporosis in old lady

Sacral insufficiency fractures often occur in elderly women due to low bone density.

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14
Q

In patella dislocation, which direction is it nearly always?

A

Lateral

Lateral patella dislocation is common due to the anatomical structure of the knee.

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15
Q

Which type of tibial plateau fracture is more common?

A

Lateral

Tibial plateau fractures can occur medially or laterally, but lateral fractures are more frequently observed.

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16
Q

SONK favors which area of the knee?

A

Medial knee

SONK stands for spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee, which typically affects areas of maximum weight bearing.

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17
Q

What does a normal SI joint exclude?

A

Ank Spon

Ankylosing spondylitis (Ank Spon) is a type of inflammatory arthritis affecting the spine and SI joints.

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18
Q

What are Looser Zones?

A

A type of insufficiency fracture
Cortical stress fracture with poorly mineralized osteoid
Associated with osteomalacia

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19
Q

What T score marks osteoporosis?

A

-2.5

The T score is a standard deviation score that compares a person’s bone density to that of a healthy young adult.

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20
Q

What condition is associated with the first extensor compartment?

A

de Quervains

de Quervain’s tenosynovitis is an inflammation of the tendons in the first extensor compartment of the wrist.

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21
Q

Which syndrome involves the first and second compartments?

A

Intersection syndrome

Intersection syndrome occurs when the tendons of the first and second compartments cross over each other and become inflamed.

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22
Q

What is associated with the sixth extensor compartment?

A

Early RA

Early rheumatoid arthritis may affect the sixth extensor compartment, which includes the extensor carpi ulnaris tendon.

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23
Q

Which tendon goes through the carpal tunnel?

A

Flexor pollicis longus

The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for flexing the thumb and passes through the carpal tunnel.

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24
Q

Which tendon does not go through the carpal tunnel?

A

Flexor pollicis brevis

The flexor pollicis brevis is responsible for flexing the thumb but does not pass through the carpal tunnel.

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25
Do the pisiform recess and radiocarpal joint normally communicate?
Yes ## Footnote The pisiform recess is an anatomical structure that can communicate with the radiocarpal joint in the wrist.
26
Is the periosteum intact with Perthes lesions?
Yes ## Footnote Avulsion of anterior inferior labrum with residual attachment to the periosteum
27
What is disrupted in a true Bankart lesion?
Periosteum ## Footnote A true Bankart lesion involves a tear of the anterior labrum and disruption of the periosteum.
28
What characterizes a Buford complex?
Absent anterior/superior labrum, + thickened middle glenohumeral ligament ## Footnote The Buford complex is an anatomical variation in the shoulder that may affect joint stability.
29
How is the medial meniscus thicker?
Posteriorly ## Footnote The medial meniscus has a unique shape that is thicker at the posterior aspect compared to the anterior.
30
What is the most commonly torn ankle ligament?
Anterior talofibular ligament
31
Which condition spares the disc space in the spine?
TB osteomyelitis in the spine
32
In scoliosis, the curvature points away from which condition?
Osteoid osteoma
33
What is the only benign skeletal tumor associated with radiation?
Osteochondroma
34
What is required for the diagnosis of Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?
Serology (Ribonucleoprotein)
35
What will a Medullary Bone Infarct have in the middle?
Fat
36
What type of meniscal tears are referred to as Bucket Handle tears?
Longitudinal tears
37
What does the Anterior Drawer Sign indicate?
ACL injury
38
What does the Posterior Drawer Sign indicate?
PCL injury
39
What does 'McMurray' refer to in a clinical context?
MCL injury
40
What is noted about grid on mag views?
No grid on mag views
41
What does BR-3 indicate regarding the chance of cancer?
< 2% chance of cancer
42
What does BR-5 indicate regarding the chance of cancer?
> 95% chance of cancer
43
True or False: Nipple enhancement can be normal on post contrast MRI.
True
44
Fill in the blank: Do not call nipple enhancement Pagets on post contrast MRI - it can be _______.
normal
45
Which quadrant has the highest density of breast tissue?
Upper outer quadrant ## Footnote This quadrant has the highest incidence of breast cancers.
46
What percentage of blood supply to the breast comes from the internal mammary artery?
60% ## Footnote This is the majority of the blood supply to the breast.
47
What percentage of lymphatic drainage from the breast goes to the axilla?
97% ## Footnote This indicates that the axilla is the primary site for lymphatic drainage.
48
On which view can the sternalis muscle be seen?
CC view ## Footnote CC view refers to the Craniocaudal view in mammography.
49
What is the most common location for ectopic breast tissue?
Axilla ## Footnote Ectopic breast tissue can occur in various locations, but the axilla is the most common.
50
What is the best time to have a mammogram or MRI during the menstrual cycle?
Follicular phase (day 7-14) ## Footnote This phase is recommended for optimal imaging results.
51
When is breast tenderness at its maximum during the menstrual cycle?
Day 27-30 ## Footnote This period corresponds to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.
52
What is the most comprehensive risk model for breast cancer?
Tyrer Cuzick >> Gail ## Footnote This model evaluates various risk factors but does not include breast density.
53
What is a criterion for getting a screening MRI if you had chest radiation as a child?
More than 20Gy ## Footnote This level of radiation exposure increases breast cancer risk.
54
Which BRCA mutation is associated with male breast cancer?
BRCA 2 ## Footnote BRCA 2 mutations can increase the risk of breast cancer in males.
55
Which BRCA mutation is more common in younger patients?
BRCA 1 ## Footnote BRCA 1 mutations are often linked to early-onset breast cancer.
56
Which BRCA mutation is more commonly seen in postmenopausal patients?
BRCA 2 ## Footnote This mutation tends to have a later onset compared to BRCA 1.
57
Which type of breast cancer is more often associated with BRCA 1?
Triple negative CA ## Footnote Triple negative breast cancer is more prevalent among BRCA 1 mutation carriers.
58
What is the purpose of the LMO in breast imaging?
For kyphosis, pectus excavatum, and to avoid a pacemaker / line ## Footnote The LMO (Lateral Medial Oblique) view can help in specific anatomical situations.
59
What is the imaging characteristic of a Rathke Cleft Cyst?
Pituitary - T2 Bright ## Footnote Rathke Cleft Cysts typically appear hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI.
60
What tumor is associated with calcification in the pituitary region?
Craniopharyngioma ## Footnote Craniopharyngiomas are often calcified and can be seen on imaging.
61
What condition invades the internal auditory canal at the cerebellopontine angle?
Schwannoma ## Footnote Schwannomas are benign tumors that originate from Schwann cells and can affect the auditory pathways.
62
What is the characteristic of a Schwannoma with NF2?
Invades Both Internal Auditory Canals ## Footnote Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas.
63
What type of lesion restricts on diffusion at the cerebellopontine angle?
Epidermoid ## Footnote Epidermoid cysts can demonstrate restricted diffusion on MRI due to their unique composition.
64
What pediatric brain tumor arises from the vermis?
Medulloblastoma ## Footnote Medulloblastomas are common malignant brain tumors in children and often arise from the cerebellar vermis.
65
What pediatric tumor is described as 'tooth paste' coming out of the 4th ventricle?
Ependymoma ## Footnote Ependymomas can have a characteristic appearance on imaging, resembling 'toothpaste' when they obstruct cerebrospinal fluid pathways.
66
At what age does the adult myelination pattern show
shows T1 at 1 year and T2 at 2 years Adult myelin is T1 bright and T2 dark
67
Which structures are myelinated at birth?
Brainstem and posterior limb of the internal capsule ## Footnote Early myelination of these structures is crucial for basic neurological functions.
68
Which cranial nerves are not found in the cavernous sinus?
CN2 and CNV3 ## Footnote The optic nerve (CN2) and mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (CNV3) do not traverse the cavernous sinus.
69
What artery increases the risk of aneurysm?
Persistent trigeminal artery (basilar to carotid) Seen with trident or tau sign
70
What complication can subfalcine herniation lead to?
ACA infarct ## Footnote Subfalcine herniation occurs when brain tissue shifts beneath the falx cerebri, potentially compromising blood supply to the anterior cerebral artery (ACA).
71
What do ADEM lesions spare?
ADEM, or Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis, typically spares the calloso-septal interface in imaging studies.
72
In Marchiafava-Bignami disease, which part of the corpus callosum is affected first?
Body ## Footnote Marchiafava-Bignami disease is characterized by degeneration of the corpus callosum, progressing from the body to the genu and then to the splenium.
73
How long is the latent period before post-radiation changes begin?
2 months ## Footnote Post-radiation changes in brain tissue can take time to manifest, starting typically around two months after exposure.
74
What is the first area to exhibit atrophy in Alzheimer Dementia?
Hippocampus ## Footnote Hippocampal atrophy is a hallmark early sign of Alzheimer’s disease, reflecting the disease's impact on memory and learning.
75
What does a beaked tectum indicate?
Chiari 2 ## Footnote A beaked tectum is a radiological finding associated with Chiari malformation type 2, which involves downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils.
76
What condition is associated with a beaked anterior inferior L1 vertebral body?
Hurler's syndrome ## Footnote Hurler's syndrome, or mucopolysaccharidosis type I Enlargedperivascular spaces Wide metacarpal with proximal tapering Wide clavicle and ribs
77
What is sometimes indicated by a beaked pons? What else can be seen
Multi-System Atrophy Hot cross bun sign Cerebellar peduncle atrophy and shrunken pons
78
What is the most common TORCH infection?
CMV ## Footnote Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most prevalent infectious agent in the TORCH complex, which includes congenital infections that can affect fetal development.
79
What kind of abscess does not typically restrict diffusion on imaging?
Toxoplasmosis abscesses typically do not restrict diffusion on MRI, which can help differentiate them from other types of lesions.
80
What can small cortical tumors be without IV contrast?
Occult ## Footnote Small cortical tumors may not be clearly visible on imaging without the use of intravenous contrast, leading to challenges in diagnosis.
81
Which tumors can enhance and are considered low grade?
JPA and Ganglioglioma ## Footnote Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma (JPA) and gangliogliomas are both low-grade tumors that can show enhancement on imaging studies.
82
What is the most common type of fracture?
Nasal bone ## Footnote Nasal bone fractures are frequently seen in trauma cases due to the prominence and vulnerability of the nasal structure.
83
What is the Zygomaticomaxillary Complex Fracture (Tripod) pattern?
involving the zygoma, inferior orbit, and lateral orbit ## Footnote This type of fracture is often associated with facial trauma.
84
What can mimic SAH?
Supplemental oxygen or propofol FLAIR signal, not enhancement
85
Where is the typical location for hypertensive hemorrhage? What about amyloid angiopathy?
Basal ganglia (PUTAMEN) thalami, cerebellum, pons Lobar or cortical parenchymal white matter
86
What does restricted diffusion without bright signal on FLAIR suggest in stroke imaging
Hyperacute (< 6 hours) stroke ## Footnote This imaging finding is critical for early stroke diagnosis.
87
What is the Rule of 3s in stroke enhancement?
Starts at day 3, peaks at 3 weeks, gone at 3 months ## Footnote This timeline is used to evaluate the progression of stroke imaging findings.
88
What is the most common systemic vasculitis to involve the CNS?
PAN (Polyarteritis Nodosa) ## Footnote PAN can lead to significant neurological complications.
89
What is the most common type of craniosynostosis?
Scaphocephaly ## Footnote This condition is characterized by a long, narrow head shape.
90
What condition is associated with hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis issues?
Piriform aperture stenosis ## Footnote This condition can affect craniofacial development and endocrine function.
91
What is the most common primary petrous apex lesion?
Cholesterol Granuloma ## Footnote This lesion can cause various neurological symptoms depending on its size and location.
92
What syndrome is characterized by absence of the bony modiolus in 90% of cases?
Large vestibular aqueduct syndrome ## Footnote This condition can lead to hearing loss and balance issues.
93
What type of scan will be positive for esthesioneuroblastoma?
Octreotide scan ## Footnote Esthesioneuroblastoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor of the nasal cavity.
94
What is the main vascular supply to the posterior nose?
Sphenopalatine artery ## Footnote This artery is a terminal branch of the internal maxillary artery.
95
What type of tumors take up pertechnetate?
Warthins tumors ## Footnote These benign tumors are typically found in the salivary glands.
96
What condition is associated with salivary gland lymphoma?
Sjogren's syndrome ## Footnote Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that can lead to lymphoproliferative complications, including lymphoma.
97
What is the most common intra-ocular lesion in an adult?
Melanoma ## Footnote Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur in the eye, presenting as an intra-ocular lesion.
98
How long after spine surgery is enhancement of nerve roots considered normal?
6 weeks ## Footnote Enhancement beyond 6 weeks may indicate complications such as arachnoiditis.
99
What is the most important factor for outcome in a traumatic cord injury?
Hemorrhage in the cord ## Footnote Hemorrhage can lead to increased pressure and damage to spinal cord tissue, affecting recovery.
100
What are the components of Currarino Triad?
* Anterior Sacral Meningocele * Anorectal malformation * Sarcococcygeal osseous defect ## Footnote Currarino Triad is a congenital condition associated with spinal and anorectal anomalies.
101
Which type of spinal arteriovenous fistula (AVF) is more common?
Type 1 Spinal AVF (dural AVF) ## Footnote Dural AVFs are more prevalent compared to other types of spinal AVFs.
102
What brain structure does herpes spare?
Basal ganglia ## Footnote In contrast, middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarcts typically do not spare the basal ganglia.
103
What is the most common malignant tumor of the lacrimal gland?
Adenoid cystic adenocarcinoma ## Footnote This tumor type is known for its aggressive nature and tendency to invade surrounding tissues.
104
What is the first sign of a SNAC or SLAC wrist?
Arthritis at the radioscaphoid compartment ## Footnote SNAC (Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse) and SLAC (Scapholunate Advanced Collapse) wrists are characterized by degenerative changes in the wrist.
105
What deformity is associated with SLAC wrist?
DISI deformity ## Footnote DISI stands for Dorsal Intercalated Segmental Instability, often seen in SLAC wrist conditions.
106
What causes the dorsolateral dislocation in the Bennett fracture?
Pull of the Abductor pollicis longus tendon fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, rolando is comminuted
107
What condition has an association with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Dialysis ## Footnote Patients on dialysis may experience increased risk of carpal tunnel syndrome due to fluid retention and other factors.
108
What is the total equivalent organ dose per year?
50 rem ## Footnote Includes skin as an organ
109
What is the total equivalent extremity dose per year?
50 rem (500 mSv) ## Footnote Equivalent dose for extremities
110
What is the total dose to an embryo/fetus over the entire 9 months?
0.5 rem
111
What does the NRC allow for Mo per 1 mili Ci of Te?
No more than 0.15 micro Ci ## Footnote Regulatory limit during administration
112
How is chemical purity (Al in Tc) assessed?
With pH paper
113
What is the allowable amount of Al?
< 10 micrograms
114
How is radiochemical purity (looking for Free Tc) determined?
With thin layer chromatography
115
What causes Free Te to occur?
Lack of stannous ions or accidental air injection ## Footnote Air injection oxidizes the compound
116
Are prostate cancer bone metastases common with a PSA less than 10 mg/ml?
Uncommon
117
When does the Flair Phenomenon occur after therapy?
2 weeks - 3 months, increased FDG uptake Delay post treatment pet scan for 2-4 months
118
Which imaging method is superior for lytic metastases?
Skeletal Survey
119
What is the temperature characteristic of AVN in early and late stages?
COLD ## Footnote Middle stage (repairing) is HOT
120
What is the particle size range for a VQ scan?
10-100 micrometers
121
What is done first during a VQ scan?
Xenon
122
What is Amiodarone?
A classic thyroid uptake blocker
123
What condition increases the risk for lymphoma?
Hashimoto's disease
124
What does a hot nodule on Tc require to be considered benign?
Should also be hot on Il23 ## Footnote discordant nodule is when hot on T99 but cold on I123 Cold on I123 is suspicious
125
What makes I-131 treatment more difficult?
History of methimazole treatment
126
What is a side effect of Methimazole?
Neutropenia
127
What is the blocker of choice in pregnancy?
PTU
128
What factors does Sestamibi in the parathyroid depend on?
Blood flow and mitochondrial density
129
When should PET imaging be performed following therapy?
2-3 weeks for chemotherapy, 8-12 weeks for radiation ## Footnote This avoids 'stunning' and false positives
130
What is the most commonly used agent for somatostatin receptor imaging?
11 In Pentetreotide
131
What is a classic use of 11 In Pentetreotide?
Carcinoid tumors
132
What type of tumors take up octreotide?
Meningiomas
133
What types of cells does 111 bind to?
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, RBCs, and platelets ## Footnote 111 is a radiopharmaceutical used in various imaging studies
134
What does Tc99m HMPAO specifically bind to?
Neutrophils ## Footnote Tc99m HMPAO is used in brain perfusion imaging
135
For how long may WBCs accumulate at post op surgical sites?
2-3 weeks ## Footnote This accumulation is part of the normal healing process
136
What is Lugols iodine/SSKI/perchlorate used for
done to block the thyroid prior to MIBG administration This is to prevent radioactive uptake by the thyroid
137
What is the typical agent used in Scrotal Scintigraphy?
Tc-99m Pertechnetate ## Footnote This agent serves both as a flow and a pool agent
138
What can left bundle branch block cause in imaging?
A false positive defect in the ventricular septum ## Footnote This defect typically spares the apex
139
What does pulmonary uptake of Thallium indicate?
LV dysfunction ## Footnote This is used as a diagnostic tool in cardiac imaging
140
What is the mechanism of MIBG?
Analog of Norepinephrine - actively transported and stored in neurosecretory granules ## Footnote MIBG is used in imaging neuroendocrine tumors
141
What type of analog is MDP and how does it work?
Phosphate analog - works via Chemisorption ## Footnote MDP is used in bone scans
142
How does Sulfur Colloid work?
Particles are phagocytized by RES ## Footnote This mechanism is used in liver and spleen imaging
143
What is the order of tumor prevalence in NF2 according to the mnemonic MSME?
Schwannoma > Meningioma > Ependymoma ## Footnote This mnemonic helps remember the most common tumors associated with NF2
144
What is the etiology of Sturge Weber?
Maldeveloped draining veins ## Footnote Sturge Weber is a neurocutaneous syndrome
145
Which phakomatosis conditions are autosomal dominant?
NF 1, NF 2, TS, and VHL Sturge Weber is not ## Footnote Family screening is recommended for these conditions
146
What is the most common primary brain tumor in adults?
Astrocytoma ## Footnote Astrocytomas can vary in grade and prognosis
147
What does 'Calcifies 90% of the time' refer to?
Oligodendroglioma ## Footnote This characteristic helps in the diagnosis of this tumor type
148
What should be considered when there is restricted diffusion in the ventricle?
Choroid Plexus Xanthogranuloma ## Footnote This is a benign normal variant, not a brain tumor
149
What does a T1-weighted MRI showing 'Big and Bright' indicate in the pituitary?
Pituitary Apoplexy/Sheehan syndrome ## Footnote This condition is an emergency and requires prompt evaluation
150
What does a T1 bright signal in the pituitary indicate?
Posterior part due to storage of Vasopressin and other proteins ## Footnote This is part of normal pituitary anatomy
151
What should never be injected through a Swan Ganz catheter for a thoracic angiogram?
Contrast
152
At what size do you treat pulmonary AVMs? Why
3mm Can result in stroke due to right to left shunt
153
Is active extravasation typically seen with hemoptysis during an active bleed?
No
154
How long should gonadotropin-releasing medications be stopped before a UAE case?
3 months
155
What is the general rule for transgluteal access to avoid injury?
Access through the sacrospinous ligament medially
156
When should an abscess catheter be pulled?
When the patient is better and output is < 20 cc over 24 hours
157
How long do you have to wait to re-biopsy after a non-diagnostic thyroid biopsy?
3 months
158
What is the recommended approach for percutaneous nephrostomy?
Posterior lateral approach For brodels avascular zone
159
What is the typical ACT range for pulling a sheath?
< 150-180
160
What condition makes compression on ABI difficult due to artery calcifications?
Diabetes
161
Which type of endoleak is the most common?
Type 2
162
Which types of endoleaks are considered high pressure and need immediate fixing?
Type 1 and Type 3
163
How can venous rupture during a fistula intervention be treated?
Prolonged angioplasty
164
What does phlegmasia alba indicate?
Massive DVT without ischemia Collateral veins
165
What does phlegmasia cerulea dolens indicate?
Massive DVT with complete thrombosis of the deep venous system and collaterals
166
Who is more likely to develop Venous Thromboembolism?
Paraplegic patients
167
What is the position of the anterior and posterior circum-aortic left renal vein?
Anterior is superior, posterior is inferior
168
What is the risk of DVT with IVC filters?
Increased risk
169
What should be done if there is > 1cm3 of clot in an ivc filter?
Filter stays in
170
What is needed for acute Budd Chiari with fulminant liver failure?
TIPS
171
What technique is used for a pseudoaneurysm of the pancreaticoduodenal artery?
Sandwich technique
172
What is the first line treatment for Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome?
Surgical release of the ligament
173
massive hemoptysis=
Bronchial artery bleed Use particles not coils bc risk of rebleed
174
What is the treatment for acalculous cholecystitis?
Percutaneous cholecystostomy
175
What are the two options for managing hepatic encephalopathy after TIPS?
1) Place a new covered stent with a loop of suture, 2) Place two new stents parallel
176
What is the treatment for recurrent variceal bleeding after placement of a constricted stent?
Balloon dilation of the constricted stent
177
When should a drain be placed for an appendiceal abscess?
For a mature (walled off) abscess
178
What should you do if there is inadvertent catheterization of the colon?
Wait 4 weeks for the tract to mature
179
What is the treatment for DVT with severe symptoms and no response to systemic anticoagulation?
Catheter Directed Thrombolysis
180
What is the maximum dose Geiger Mueller can handle?
100 mR/h
181
What activity level of Tc-99m is considered a major spill?
> 100 mCi
182
What activity level of TI-201 is considered a major spill?
> 100 mCi
183
What activity level of In-111 represents a major spill?
> 10 mCi
184
What activity level of Ga-67 is considered a major spill?
> 10 mCi
185
What activity level of I-131 is considered a major spill?
> 1 mCi
186
What is the annual dose limit to the public?
100 mrem
187
What is the maximum dose in an unrestricted area?
Not greater than 2 mrem per hour
188
What is the total body dose limit per year?
5 rem
189
Where does the Axillary Artery begin?
At the first rib
190
What does the Brachial Artery bifurcate into?
* Ulnar artery * Radial artery
191
From where does the Intraosseous Branch typically arise?
From the ulnar artery
192
What is the source of the Superficial Arch and Deep Arch?
* Superficial Arch = From the Ulna * Deep Arch = From the Radius
193
What is the 'coronary vein' referred to?
The left gastric vein
194
What condition is associated with enlarged splenorenal shunts?
Hepatic encephalopathy
195
What are Aortic Dissection and intramural hematoma primarily caused by?
Hypertension (HTN) in 70% of cases
196
What causes a Penetrating Ulcer?
Atherosclerosis
197
What is the strongest predictor of progression of dissection in intramural hematoma?
Maximum aortic diameter > 5cm
198
What are the components of the Leriche Syndrome Triad?
* Claudication * Absent/Decreased femoral pulses * Impotence Complete occlusion of aorta distal to renal arteries
199
What is the most common associated defect with aortic coarctation?
Bicuspid aorta (80%)
200
What is the most common subtype of thoracic outlet syndrome?
Neurogenic compression
201
In which condition is a splenic artery aneurysm more common?
Pregnancy
202
What increases the likelihood of splenic artery aneurysm rupture?
Pregnancy
203
When is Median Arcuate Compression worse? What does it affect
Worsens with expiration Celiac artery
204
Colonic Angiodysplasia is associated with which condition?
Aortic stenosis
205
What percentage of popliteal aneurysms are bilateral?
50-70%
206
What is the relationship between popliteal aneurysms and abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)?
* 30-50% have AAA * 10% of patients with AAA have popliteal aneurysm
207
What causes popliteal entrapment?
medial deviation of the popliteal artery secondary to medial head of the gastrocnemius
208
What type of Takayasu is most common?
Type 3 (arch + abdominal aorta)
209
What is the most common vasculitis in children?
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
210
What does Tardus Parvus infer?
Stenosis proximal to that vessel
211
What does an ICA Peak Systolic Velocity < 125 indicate?
No Significant Stenosis or < 50%
212
What ICA Peak Systolic Velocity range indicates 'Moderate' stenosis?
125-230 (50-69% Stenosis)
213
What ICA Peak Systolic Velocity indicates 'Severe' stenosis?
> 230 (>70% Stenosis)
214
What size guidewire can an 18G needle accept?
0.038 inch
215
What size guidewire can a 19G needle allow?
0.035 inch
216
What is the equivalent of 3 French in millimeters?
1 mm
217
What does French size refer to?
The OUTSIDE of a catheter and the INSIDE of a sheath
218
What type of catheters allow hand injection only?
End Hole Only Catheters Also for embolization
219
What does a Side Hole + End Hole catheter allow? What doesn’t it allow
Power Injection OK, Coils and embolization are NOT ok
220
What is the Double Flush Technique used for?
Neuro IR — no bubbles ever
221
What defines a 'Significant lesion'?
A systolic pressure gradient > 10 mm Hg at rest
222
What should you avoid sticking a drain in?
* Tumors * Acute Hematoma * Acute bowel rupture and peritonitis
223
When is renal artery stenting for renal failure not effective?
If the creatinine (Cr) is > 3
224
What is a persistent sciatic artery prone to? What does it arise from
Aneurysm Internal iliac artery and continues to popliteal artery
225
How long should a cholecystostomy tube be left in and why?
2-6 weeks until the tract matures to prevent bile leak
226
What MELD score indicates a risk of early death with TIPS?
Greater than 24
227
What is the target gradient post TIPS for esophageal bleeding?
Less than 12
228
What is an absolute contraindication for TIPS?
Severe Heart Failure (elevated right heart pressure)
229
What is the most common side effect of BRTO?
Gross hematuria
230
What is the sensitivity of a tagged RBC Scan? Compared to other studies
0.1 mL/min Angiography is 1 mL/min CTA is 4 mL/min
231
What is the sensitivity of Angiography?
1.0 mL/min
232
What should be done after embolization of the GDA for a duodenal ulcer?
Run of the SMA to look at the inferior pancreaticoduodenal
233
What is the most common cause of lower GI bleed?
Diverticulosis NOT diverticulitis
234
What is TACE's effect compared to systemic chemotherapy?
Prolongs survival better
235
What is a contraindication for TACE?
Portal Vein Thrombosis (sometimes)
236
Where should you aim for for Thoracentesis?
Above the rib
237
What is required for a Left Bundle Branch Block before a Thoracic Angiogram?
A pacer
238
What does RCA give off?
Acute marginals
239
What does LCX give off?
Obtuse marginals
240
What perfuses the sa and av nodes
Typically the RCA
241
How is dominance of coronary arteries decided?
By which vessel gives off the posterior descending artery; right dominance is 85%
242
When would you repair the coronary artery arising from the contralateral coronary cusp
Always repair LCA from right RCA from left cusp is only repaired if symptomatic
243
When is RCA repaired?
If symptoms present when it arises from the Left Coronary Cusp
244
Where is the most common location of myocardial bridging?
Mid portion of the LAD
245
What is the most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in adults?
Atherosclerosis
246
What is the most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in children?
Kawasaki disease
247
Where does the left-sided SVC empty?
Into the coronary sinus
248
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic heart disease
249
What is the most common cause of tricuspid atresia?
Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension
250
What is the most common vascular ring?
Double aortic arch
251
What is the most common congenital heart disease?
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
252
What is the most common type of Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?
Secundum
253
What is classically shown with pulmonary edema in a newborn?
Infracardiac TAPVR
254
What type of transposition is congenitally corrected?
'L' Transposition
255
What type of transposition is considered doomed?
'D' Transposition
256
What is truncus arteriosus associated with?
CATCH-22 (DiGeorge syndrome)
257
What does rib notching from coarctation spare?
1st and 2nd ribs
258
What percentage of infarct involvement is unlikely to recover function?
> 50%
259
Is microvascular obstruction seen in chronic infarct?
No
260
What is the most common cause of restricted cardiomyopathy?
Amyloid
261
In which condition can primary amyloid be seen?
Multiple myeloma
262
What is the most common neoplasm to involve cardiac valves?
Fibroelastoma
263
What is the most common congenital absence of the pericardium?
Partial absence involving the pericardium over the left atrium and adjacent pulmonary artery
264
What is the Glenn shunt?
SVC to pulmonary artery (vein to artery) Bypass right heart
265
What is the Blalock-Taussig Shunt?
Subclavian artery to pulmonary artery (artery-artery) To increase pulmonary blood flow)
266
What does the Ross Procedure involve?
Replaces aortic valve with pulmonic, and pulmonic with a graft
267
What is a common issue with Cardiac MRI?
Aliasing
268
How can aliasing in Cardiac MRI be fixed?
By: * Opening the FOV * Oversampling the frequency encoding direction * Switching phase and frequency encoding directions
269
What is the size threshold for giant coronary artery aneurysms?
> 8mm
270
What can Wet Beriberi cause?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
271
What is the most common primary cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyoma
272
What is the 2nd most common primary cardiac tumor in children?
Fibroma
273
What is the most common complication of myocardial infarction?
Myocardial remodeling
274
What is unroofed coronary sinus associated with?
Persistent left SVC
275
What is the most common source of cardiac metastasis?
Lung cancer (lymphoma is #2)
276
A-Fib is most commonly associated with which condition?
Left atrial enlargement
277
What is the most common cause of tricuspid insufficiency?
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy (RVH)
278
Where does the artery of Adamkiewicz come off?
Hairpin turn Left side (70%) between T9 - T12
279
What is the Arch of Rolan?
Middle colic branch of the SMA with the left colic of the IMA
280
What is the most common hepatic vascular variant?
Right hepatic artery replaced off the SMA
281
Where is the proper right hepatic artery in relation to the right portal vein?
Anterior to the right portal vein
282
Where is the replaced right hepatic artery in relation to the main portal vein?
Posterior to the main portal vein Normally anterior to portal vein
283
What is the most common hepatic venous variant?
Accessory right inferior hepatic vein
284
What is the first branch off the popliteal artery?
Anterior tibialis
285
At what level does the Common Femoral Artery (CFA) begin?
At the level of the inguinal ligament
286
When does the Superficial Femoral Artery (SFA) begin?
Once the CFA gives off the profunda femoris
287
When does the Popliteal Artery begin?
As the SFA exits the adductor canal
288
What does the Popliteal Artery terminate as?
Anterior tibial artery and tibioperoneal trunk
289
What are the layers of pleura in the Azygos Lobe?
4 layers of pleura
290
What is the most common pulmonary vein variant?
A separate vein draining the right middle lobe
291
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients?
Strep Pneumonia
292
What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
PCP
293
In which type of patient is Aspergilloma seen?
Normal immune patient
294
In which type of patient is Invasive Aspergillus seen?
Immune compromised patient
295
What is the minimum size thickness for Lung Cancer Screening CTs?
2.5mm (1.5mm or thinner is preferred)
296
What does AIDS + Bilateral Ground Glass Opacities + Thin Walled Cysts + Pneumothorax indicate?
PCP
297
Can Prevascular Lymph nodes be easily reached by mediastinoscopy?
No
298
Do Fleischner Society Recommendations apply to patients with known cancers?
No
299
What is the most common location for an echinococcal cyst?
Liver
300
What is the second most common site of involvement for echinococcus?
Lung
301
What pattern of calcifications in a solitary pulmonary nodule is considered most suspicious?
Eccentric calcifications
302
What is the most suspicious morphology for a pulmonary nodule?
A part solid nodule with a ground glass component
303
What is the most common early presentation of lung cancer?
Solitary nodule (right upper lobe)
304
In lung fibrosis patients, where is lung cancer more commonly found?
Lower lobe
305
What makes Stage 3B lung cancer unresectable?
Contralateral nodal involvement; ipsilateral or contralateral scalene or supraclavicular nodal involvement, tumor in different lobes
306
What is the most common cause of unilateral lymphangitic carcinomatosis?
Bronchogenic carcinoma lung cancer invading the lymphatics
307
What is the latency period between initial exposure and development of lung cancer or pleural mesothelioma?
20 years
308
What is the earliest and most common finding with asbestosis exposure?
Pleural effusion
309
How much does silicosis raise the risk of TB?
About 3 fold
310
311
What is the first finding of UIP on CXR?
Reticular pattern in the posterior costophrenic angle
312
What is the most common recurrent primary disease after lung transplant?
Sarcoidosis
313
What does pleural plaque of asbestosis typically spare?
Costophrenic angles
314
What is the most common manifestation of metastasis to the pleura?
Pleural effusion
315
What is associated with mature teratomas?
Klinefelter Syndrome
316
Injury close to the carina causes what?
Pneumomediastinum Not pneumothorax
317
How does Hodgkin Lymphoma spread?
Contiguous fashion from the mediastinum, most often unilateral
318
How does Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma typically present?
Bilateral with associated abdominal lymphadenopathy
319
What imaging modality is superior for assessing superior sulcus tumors?
MRI
320
What is the most common benign esophageal tumor?
Leiomyoma
321
What syndrome may be associated with Esophageal Leiomyomatosis?
Alport's Syndrome
322
How must bronchial/tracheal injury be evaluated?
With bronchoscopy
323
If you say COP, what else should you say?
Eosinophilic Pneumonia
324
If you say BAC, what else should you say?
Lymphoma
325
Where is Bronchial Atresia classically found?
LUL
326
What must pericardial cysts be?
Simple
327
What type of cysts don't have to be simple?
Bronchogenic cysts
328
What percentage of patients with PAP get better post-treatment?
1/3
329
What is the later presentation of Dysphagia Lusoria associated with?
Atherosclerosis development
330
How does carcinoid appear on PET?
COLD
331
What is Wegener's now called?
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
332
What defines the right atrium?
IVC
333
What defines the right ventricle?
Moderator band
334
Where do tricuspid papillary muscles insert?
On the septum
335
What can Lipomatous Hypertrophy of the Intra-Atrial Septum be?
PET Avid
336
What does the LAD give off?
Diagonals
337
What is the management approach for intraperitoneal bladder rupture?
Managed surgically ## Footnote Intraperitoneal bladder rupture is a less common condition.
338
Are uric acid stones visible on plain film?
No, they are not seen on plain film ## Footnote Uric acid stones require different imaging techniques for visualization.
339
Which type of stones are not seen on CT?
Indinavir (HIV medication) stones ## Footnote These stones are unique among renal calculi.
340
What is the risk associated with endometrial tissue in a rudimentary horn?
Increases the risk of miscarriage ## Footnote This holds true even if the horn does not communicate.
341
Does an arcuate uterus increase the risk of infertility?
No, it does not have an increased risk ## Footnote An arcuate uterus is considered a normal variant.
342
Which type of fibroids respond better to UAE?
Fibroids with higher T2 signal ## Footnote T2 signal intensity is an important factor in treatment response.
343
Where does adenomyosis typically favor in the uterus?
Favors the posterior wall, spares the cervix ## Footnote Adenomyosis involves the endometrial tissue invading the uterine muscle.
344
What is the increased risk of endometrial cancer for patients with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)?
30-50x increased risk ## Footnote HNPCC is also known as Lynch syndrome.
345
What effect does Tamoxifen have on endometrial cancer?
Increases the risk of endometrial cancer and endometrial polyps ## Footnote Tamoxifen is a medication used in breast cancer treatment.
346
How is cervical cancer with parametrial involvement (2B) treated?
Treated with chemo/radiation ## Footnote In contrast, cervical cancer without parametrial involvement (2A) is treated surgically.
347
What type of cancer is usually found in the vagina of adults?
Squamous cell carcinoma ## Footnote This is the most common form of vaginal cancer in adults.
348
First line treatment for angiomyolipomas?
Catheter embolization Typically >4cm
349
What is the PET scan appearance of premenopausal ovaries?
Can be hot, depending on the phase of the cycle ## Footnote Postmenopausal ovaries should never be hot on PET.
350
What transformation subtype is associated with an endometrioma?
Clear Cell ## Footnote This is a specific type of ovarian tumor.
351
What is the most common cause of postpartum fever?
Ovarian vein thrombophlebitis ## Footnote This condition can occur after childbirth.
352
What is the next step after seeing an endometrioma on MRI?
Look for more endometriomas in the deep pelvis and along the c-section scar ## Footnote This helps in assessing the extent of the condition.
353
What is the most common gynecological malignancy in the United States?
Endometrial carcinoma ## Footnote This type of cancer is prevalent among women.
354
What occurs in a fractured penis?
Rupture of the corpus cavernosum and the surrounding tunica albuginea ## Footnote This injury is typically due to trauma.
355
Where is prostate cancer most commonly located?
Peripheral zone ## Footnote It is usually dark on ADC imaging.
356
In which zone are BPH nodules found?
Central zone ## Footnote Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men.
357
What is the most common association with prostatic utricle?
Hypospadias ## Footnote This condition affects the urethral opening.
358
What conditions are associated with seminal vesicle cysts?
Renal agenesis and ectopic ureters ## Footnote These are developmental abnormalities.
359
What does cryptorchidism increase the risk of?
Cancer in both testicles ## Footnote The risk is not reduced by orchiopexy.
360
What type of lymphoma can immunosuppressed patients develop?
Testicular lymphoma ## Footnote This occurs due to the hiding behind the blood-testis barrier.
361
What is the most common correctable cause of infertility in men?
Varicocele ## Footnote Dilation of the pampiniform plexus
362
What is the prevalence of undescended testicles in premature children?
More common ## Footnote This condition is known as cryptorchidism.
363
What is the risk associated with membranes disrupted before 10 weeks of pregnancy?
Increased risk for amniotic bands ## Footnote This can lead to complications in fetal development.
364
What is the earliest visualization of the embryo called?
Double bleb sign ## Footnote This sign indicates early embryonic development.
365
What is the risk of abortion with a hematoma greater than 2/3 the circumference of the chorion?
2x increased risk ## Footnote Hematomas can complicate pregnancy.
366
How is biparietal diameter measured?
At the level of the thalamus from the outermost edge of the near skull to the inner table of the far skull ## Footnote This measurement is crucial in fetal assessment.
367
What does abdominal circumference measurement not include?
Subcutaneous soft tissues ## Footnote This measurement is specifically taken for fetal growth assessment.
368
At what level is abdominal circumference recorded?
At the level of the junction of the umbilical vein and left portal vein ## Footnote This is important for accurate fetal measurements.
369
What parameter is classically involved with asymmetric lUGR?
Abdominal Circumference ## Footnote Asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction (lUGR) indicates different growth patterns.
370
Does femur length measurement include the epiphysis?
No, it does not include the epiphysis ## Footnote This measurement focuses on the diaphysis.
371
What should the Umbilical Artery Systolic/Diastolic Ratio not exceed at 34 weeks?
3 ## Footnote Exceeding this ratio raises suspicion for preeclampsia and IUGR.
372
What can a full bladder mimic?
A placenta previa ## Footnote This can lead to misdiagnosis in imaging.
373
When is nuchal lucency measured?
Between 9-12 weeks It should be < 3 mm; more than 3 mm associated with Down syndrome.
374
When does the lemon sign disappear?
After 24 weeks ## Footnote This sign is related to fetal head shape changes.
375
What is the most common cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus in a neonate?
Aqueductal Stenosis ## Footnote This condition affects the flow of cerebrospinal fluid.
376
Which valve is the most anterior in the heart?
Tricuspid valve ## Footnote This valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle.
377
Which valve is the most superior in the heart?
Pulmonic valve ## Footnote This valve is located between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
378
How many lung segments are there on the right side?
10 lung segments ## Footnote The left lung has fewer segments due to the cardiac notch.
379
If it goes above the clavicles, where is it located?
In the posterior mediastinum ## Footnote This is known as the cervicothoracic sign.
380
What is the next step after finding diverticulosis with nodes?
Endoscopy ## Footnote This step is taken to evaluate the potential for cancer.
381
What does a Krukenberg Tumor indicate?
Stomach (GI) metastasis to the ovary ## Footnote This type of tumor often signifies advanced disease.
382
What part of the stomach is involved in Menetrier's disease?
Fundus ## Footnote The antrum is spared in this condition.
383
Where is the most common location for sarcoidosis in the GI tract?
Stomach ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can affect various organs, but the stomach is notably common.
384
What is the increased cancer risk associated with gastric remnants after Billroth procedure?
Years after Billroth ## Footnote Patients with gastric remnants face a heightened risk of gastric cancer.
385
What is the most common internal hernia?
Left sided paraduodenal hernia ## Footnote This type of hernia is frequently encountered in clinical practice.
386
What is the most common site of peritoneal carcinomatosis?
Retrovesical space ## Footnote This area is often involved in peritoneal metastases.
387
What can an injury to the bare area of the liver cause?
Retroperitoneal bleed ## Footnote This area is particularly vulnerable to trauma.
388
Which condition is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis associated with?
Ulcerative Colitis ## Footnote This association is clinically significant for patient management.
389
What are the extrahepatic ducts like in Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?
Normal ## Footnote This distinguishes it from other liver conditions.
390
What antibodies are positive in primary biliary cirrhosis?
Anti-mitochondrial Antibodies ## Footnote This serological marker is crucial for diagnosis.
391
What is Mirizzi Syndrome?
Gallstone impacted in the cystic duct obstructing/compressing the CBD/CHD ## Footnote This syndrome can lead to complications such as cholangitis.
392
What is the increased risk of cancer associated with Mirizzi Syndrome?
5x increased risk of GB cancer ## Footnote Gallbladder cancer risk is notably elevated in these patients.
393
What is the most common cause of a benign bile duct stricture?
Iatrogenic trauma during a lap cholecystectomy ## Footnote This complication is important to consider during surgical planning.
394
What is the most common treatment for a benign bile duct stricture caused by iatrogenic trauma?
Endoscopic dilation ## Footnote This minimally invasive approach is often first-line.
395
What is dorsal pancreatic agenesis associated with?
Diabetes and polysplenia
396
What is the characteristic of hereditary and tropical pancreatitis?
Early age of onset, increased risk of cancer ## Footnote Recognizing these conditions can aid in early intervention.
397
What are the components of Felty's Syndrome?
Big spleen, RA, and neutropenia ## Footnote This triad is key for diagnosis.
398
What is notable about Splenic Artery Aneurysm in pregnant women?
Saccular and more likely to rupture ## Footnote This risk necessitates careful monitoring during pregnancy.
399
What is the most common islet cell tumor?
Insulinoma ## Footnote This tumor is characterized by hyperinsulinemia.
400
What is the most common islet cell tumor associated with MEN?
Gastrinoma ## Footnote This type of tumor is often part of multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes.
401
On T2 MRI, how should a normal liver's signal compare to muscle?
Higher than muscle ## Footnote This finding is important for liver imaging interpretation.
402
What is a classic cause of fatty liver?
Chemotherapy ## Footnote This side effect is significant for patients undergoing cancer treatment.
403
In adults, what is the most common cause of persistent small bowel intussusception?
Mucosal mass ## Footnote This requires further evaluation to determine the underlying cause.
404
In children, what is the most common cause of persistent small bowel intussusception?
Lymph node hypertrophy ## Footnote This is often due to a prior viral infection.
405
How does Ulcerative Colitis affect colon cancer risk?
Increased risk if it involves colon past the splenic flexure ## Footnote UC limited to the rectum does not elevate cancer risk.
406
What is associated with improved survival in renal cancer?
Calcifications ## Footnote This finding can influence prognosis.
407
What is the characteristic of RCC bone metastases?
Always lytic ## Footnote This pattern is critical for imaging diagnosis.
408
What is the risk of malignancy associated with dialysis?
Increased risk ## Footnote Patients on dialysis require vigilant cancer screening.
409
What is a risk factor for trauma in horseshoe kidneys?
More susceptible to trauma ## Footnote This anatomical variation can complicate management.
410
What is the most common location for transitional cell carcinoma (TCC)?
Bladder ## Footnote TCC is frequently diagnosed in this organ.
411
What is the second most common location for TCC?
Upper urinary tract ## Footnote Awareness of this helps in differential diagnosis.
412
How commonly is Upper Tract TCC multifocal compared to bladder TCC?
12% for Upper Tract, 4% for Bladder ## Footnote This difference is important for treatment considerations.
413
What happens to cysts in acquired renal cystic disease after renal transplant?
Improve after renal transplant ## Footnote However, the risk of renal cancer remains elevated.
414
What does the Weigert Meyer Rule state?
Upper Pole inserts medial and inferior -> obstruction Lower pole inserts superior and lateral -> reflux In duplicated renal system
415
What are ectopic ureters associated with in women?
Incontinence ## Footnote This condition typically does not affect men.
416
Is leukoplakia pre-malignant?
Yes ## Footnote Malakoplakia, on the other hand, is not pre-malignant.
417
What is more common, extraperitoneal bladder rupture or intraperitoneal rupture?
Extraperitoneal bladder rupture ## Footnote Management is typically medical for this type.
418
What is the management position for Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema (PIE)?
Put the bad side down ## Footnote This technique helps minimize the affected side's impact on breathing and oxygenation.
419
What is the management position for a Bronchial Foreign Body?
Put the lucency side down ## Footnote If it stays that way, it's considered positive for the presence of a foreign body.
420
What is the risk of squamous cell carcinoma associated with Papillomatosis?
2% ## Footnote This indicates a small but significant risk for malignancy in patients with this condition.
421
What is unique about Pulmonary sling?
It goes between the esophagus and the trachea and is associated with trachea stenosis ## Footnote This anatomical variant can lead to significant respiratory issues.
422
What is Thymic Rebound and when is it seen?
Seen after stress (chemotherapy) and can be PET-Avid ## Footnote This phenomenon indicates a reactive process in the thymus post-chemotherapy.
423
What is the most common mediastinal mass in children over 10 years old?
Lymphoma ## Footnote This highlights the prevalence of lymphoma in the pediatric population in the mediastinal region.
424
What does an Anterior Mediastinal Mass with Calcification indicate?
Either treated lymphoma or Thymic Lesion ## Footnote Lymphoma does not calcify unless treated, which helps in differential diagnosis.
425
What is the most common posterior mediastinal mass in children under 2?
Neuroblastoma ## Footnote This condition is more favorable when primary thoracic compared to abdominal neuroblastoma.
426
What is the age range during which Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis can occur? And what does the caterpillar sign represent
3 weeks to 3 months Stomach peristalsis ## Footnote It is not present at birth
427
What are the criteria for diagnosing Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (HPS)?
4 mm single wall and 14 mm length ## Footnote These measurements help establish the diagnosis of HPS.
428
What does Annular Pancreas present as in children and adults?
Duodenal obstruction in children and pancreatitis in adults ## Footnote This condition can lead to significant complications due to its anatomical implications.
429
What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children over 4 years old?
Appendicitis ## Footnote Appendicitis is a leading cause for surgical intervention in this age group.
430
What age range is considered normal for Intussusception?
3 months to 3 years ## Footnote Cases outside this age range often require evaluation for a lead point.
431
Where is Gastroschisis typically located? What is it associated with
Always on the right side Young maternal age
432
Omphalocele vs gastroschisis
Omphalocele: midline wall defect and umbilical insertion, membrane covering, and malformations/anomalies ## Footnote This condition often presents with cardiac anomalies, trisomies, pentalogy of cantrell, beckwidth wiedemann
433
When is Physiologic Gut Herniation considered normal?
In first trimester
434
What is the significance of elevated AFP levels?
Elevated with Hepatoblastoma And HCC
435
What is elevated in Hemangioendothelioma?
Endothelial growth factor ## Footnote This elevation indicates angiogenic activity associated with the tumor.
436
What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in children?
Trauma (seatbelt) ## Footnote This highlights the importance of safety measures in preventing pediatric injuries.
437
What does the Weigert Meyer Rule state?
Duplicated ureter on top inserts inferior and medial ## Footnote This rule helps in understanding the anatomical variations in ureteral anatomy.
438
What is the most common tumor of the fetus or infant?
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma ## Footnote Germ cell tumor of sacrum Associated with high output cardiac failure
439
What is the most common cause of idiopathic scrotal edema?
HSP (Henoch-Schönlein purpura) ## Footnote This condition often presents with a range of symptoms, including scrotal edema.
440
What is the most common cause of acute scrotal pain in ages 7-14?
Torsion of Testicular Appendages Treated with pain management
441
What is the etiology for testicular torsion?
Bell Clapper Deformity ## Footnote Failure of tunica vaginalis and testis to connect
442
What type of Salter Harris fracture is SCFE?
Type 1 ## Footnote This classification helps in understanding the nature of the fracture.
443
When does Physiologic Periostitis of the Newborn occur?
Seen around 3 months ## Footnote This condition does not occur at birth.
444
What should the Acetabular Angle be?
< 30 ## Footnote This angle is crucial for assessing hip development.
445
What should the Alpha angle be?
> 60 ## Footnote This angle helps in evaluating hip dysplasia.
446
What is the most common benign mucosal lesion of the esophagus?
Papilloma ## Footnote This condition is often benign but requires monitoring.
447
What is the risk associated with Esophageal Webs?
Increased risk for cancer and Plummer-Vinson Syndrome ## Footnote Plummer-Vinson Syndrome includes anemia and web formation.
448
What causes Dysphagia Lusoria?
Compression by a right subclavian artery ## Footnote Most patients with aberrant rights do not exhibit symptoms.
449
What is the risk associated with Achalasia?
Increased risk of squamous cell cancer (20 years later) ## Footnote This long-term risk necessitates regular follow-up.
450
What is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the GI tract?
GIST (Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor) ## Footnote This tumor type is often associated with mutations in the KIT gene.
451
Where is the most common location for GIST?
Stomach ## Footnote This highlights the prevalence of GIST in the gastric region.
452
In which condition are abscesses almost exclusively seen?
Crohn's disease ## Footnote This differentiates it from ulcerative colitis, where abscesses are less common.
453
What is the association of nodes with UC?
Common in the setting of active disease ## Footnote This indicates a higher inflammatory response during flare-ups.
454
What is the significance of nodes larger than 1 cm with Crohn's?
Indicates cancer ## Footnote This finding necessitates further investigation for malignancy.
455
Permeative lesion in the diaphysis of a child
Ewings
456
Long lesion in a long bone
Fibrous Dysplasia
457
Large amount of edema for the size of the lesion
Osteoid Osteoma
458
Cystic bone lesion, that is NOT T2 bright
Chondroblastoma
459
Lesion in the finger of a kid
Periosteal chondroma
460
Looks like NOF in the anterior tibia with anterior bowing
Osteofibrous Dysplasia
461
RA + Pneumoconiosis
Caplan Syndrome
462
RA + Big Spleen + Neutropenia
Felty Syndrome
463
Epiphyseal Overgrowth
JRA (or hemophilia)
464
Reducible subluxations of MCP and PIP
Lupus
465
Destructive mass in a bone of a leukemia patient
Chloroma
466
Extensor compartment 1
De Quervain's (New Mothers)
467
Extensor compartment 2
Intersection Syndrome (Rowers)
468
Extensor compartment 3
Drummer's Wrist
469
Extensor compartment 3, plus trauma 3 weeks ago
Delayed tendon Rupture after Non-Displaced Distal Radial Fracture
470
Extensor compartment 4
RA / Extensor Tenosynovitis
471
Extensor compartment 5
Vaughan-Jackson Syndrome - sequential rupture starting at compartment 5, (usually secondary to RA)
472
Extensor compartment 6
Snapping ECU
473
Elbow dislocation
Fracture of the medial epicondyle
474
Post reduction film after elbow dislocation
Look for the medial epicondyle (make sure it isn't displaced)
475
Shrinking breast
ILC
476
Thick Coopers ligaments
Edema (CHF)
477
Thick fuzzy coopers ligaments - with normal skin
Blur
478
Dashes but no dots
Secretory Calcifications
479
Cigar shaped calcifications
Secretory Calcifications
480
Popcorn calcifications
Degenerated fibroadenoma
481
Breast within a breast
Hamartoma
482
Fat-fluid level
Galactocele
483
Rapid growing fibroadenoma
Phyllodes
484
Swollen red breast, not responding to antibiotics
Inflammatory breast CA
485
Lines radiating to a single point
Architectural distortion
486
Architectural distortion + Calcifications
IDC and DCIS
487
Architectural distortion without Calcifications
ILC
488
Stepladder Sign
Intracapsular rupture on US
489
Linguine Sign
Intracapsular rupture on MRI
490
Residual calcs in the Lumpectomy Bed
Local recurrence
491
No calcs in the core?
Milk of calcium (requires polarized light to be seen due to birefringence)
492
CXR with clips in the axilla of a woman
History of Breast Cancer
493
CXR with clips in the axilla of a man
History of Melanoma
494
Proximal gallstone ileus
Bouveret Syndrome Eroded into duodenum or pylorus
495
Clostridium Septicum Aoritis
Occult colonic malignancy
496
Fluid-Fluid levels in the orbit
Lymphangioma
497
Orbital lesion, worse with Valsalva
Varix
498
Pulsatile Exophthalmos
NF-1 and CC Fistula
499
Sphenoid wing dysplasia
NF-1
500
Scimitar Sacrum
Currarino Triad
501
Bilateral symmetrically increased T2 signal in dorsal columns
B12 (or HIV)
502
Owl eye appearance of spinal cord
T2 signal and diffusion restriction of anterior horns spinal cord infarct typically involving anterior spinal artery
503
Enhancement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina
Guillain Barre Ascending flaccid paralysis Associated with campylobacter
504
Subligamentous spread of infection
TB
505
Posterior elbow dislocation
capitellum fracture
506
Chondroblastoma in an adult
clear cell chondrosarcoma
507
Malignant epiphyseal lesion
clear cell chondrosarcoma
508
T2 bright lesion in the sacrum
Chordoma
509
Permeative lesion in the diaphysis of a child
Ewings
510
Lytic T2 DARK lesion
Fibrosarcoma
511
Sarcomatous transformation of an infarct
MFH
512
Epiphyseal Lesion that is NOT T2 Bright
Chondroblastoma
513
Short 4th metacarpal
pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism and Turner Syndrome
514
Band like acro-osteolysis
Hajdu-Cheney
515
Fat containing tumor in the retroperitoneum
liposarcoma
516
Sarcoma in the foot
synovial sarcoma
517
Avulsion of the lesser trochanter
pathologic fracture
518
Cross over sign
pincer type Femoroacetabular Impingement
519
Segond Fracture
ACL tear
520
Reverse Segond Fracture
PCL tear
521
Arcuate Sign
fibular head avulsion or PCL tear
522
Deep Intercondylar Notch
ACL tear
523
Bilateral Patellar Tendon Ruptures
chronic steroids
524
Wide ankle mortise
show me the proximal fibula (Maisonneuve)
525
Bilateral calcaneal fractures
associated spinal compression fx ("lover's leap")
526
Dancer with lateral foot pain
avulsion of 5th MT
527
Old lady with sudden knee pain with standing
SONK
528
Looser Zones
osteomalacia or rickets (vitamin D)
529
Unilateral RA with preserved joint spaces
RSD
530
T2 bright tumor in finger
Glomus
531
Blooming in tumor in finger
Giant Cell Tumor of Tendon Sheath (PVNS)
532
Atrophy of teres minor
Quadrilateral Space syndrome Contains axillary nerve
533
Subluxation of the Biceps Tendon
Subscapularis tear
534
Too many bow ties
Discoid Meniscus
535
Celery Stalk ACL - T2
Mucoid Degeneration
536
Drumstick ACL - T1
Mucoid Degeneration
537
Acute Flat foot
Posterior Tibial Tendon Tear
538
Boomerang shaped peroneus brevis
tear - or split tear
539
Meniscoid mass in the lateral ankle
Anterolateral Impingement Syndrome
540
Scar between 3rd and 4th metatarsals
Morton's neuroma
541
Osteomyelitis in the spine
IV drug user
542
Osteomyelitis in the spine with Kyphosis
TB (Gibbus Deformity)
543
Unilateral SI joint lysis
IV Drug User
544
Psoas muscle abscess
TB
545
Rice bodies in joint
TB - sloughed synovium
546
Calcification along the periphery
myositis ossificans
547
Calcifications more dense in the center
Osteosarcoma - reverse zoning
548
Renal transplant uptake on sulfur colloid
Rejection
549
Filtered Renal Agent
DTPA (or GH)
550
Secreted Renal Agent
MAG-3
551
PET with increased muscle uptake
insulin
552
Hashimoto looks like on US
Giraffe skin and white knights (hyperechoic regenerative nodules) Increased risk of lymphoma
553
I see the skeleton on MIBG
diffuse neuroblastoma bone mets
554
Cardiac tissue taking up FDG more intense than normal myocardium
hibernating myocardium
555
made with a generator
Tc99 and Rubidium
556
cervical kyphosis
NF-1
557
lateral thoracic meningocele
NF-1
558
bilateral optic nerve gliomas
NF-1
559
bilateral vestibular schwannoma
NF-2
560
retinal hamartoma
TS
561
retinal angioma
VHL
562
brain tumor with restricted diffusion
lymphoma
563
brain tumor crossing the midline
GBM (or lymphoma)
564
Cyst and Nodule in Child
Pilocystic Astrocytoma
565
Cyst and Nodule in Adult
Hemangioblastoma
566
multiple hemangioblastoma
Von Hippel Lindau
567
Swiss cheese tumor in ventricle
central neurocytoma
568
CN3 Palsy
posterior communicating artery aneurysm
569
CN6 Palsy
increased ICP
570
Ventricles out of size to atrophy
NPH
571
Hemorrhagic putamen
Methanol
572
Decreased FDG uptake in the lateral occipital cortex
Lewy Body Dementia
573
TORCH with Periventricular Calcification
CMV
574
TORCH with hydrocephalus
Toxoplasmosis
575
TORCH with hemorrhagic infarction
HSV
576
Neonatal infection with frontal lobe atrophy
HIV
577
Rapidly progressing dementia + Rapidly progressing atrophy
CJD
578
Expanding the cortex
Oligodendroglioma
579
Tumor acquired after trauma (LP)
Epidermoid
580
The Palate Separated from the Maxilla / Floating Palate
LeFort 1
581
The Maxilla Separated from the Face
LeFort 2 Involves inferior orbital rim and floor
582
The Face Separated from the Cranium
LeFort 3 Involves zygomatic arches and lateral orbital rim
583
Airless expanded sinus
mucocele
584
DVA
cavernous malformation nearby
585
Single vascular lesion in the pons
Capillary Telangiectasia
586
Elevated NAA peak
Canavans
587
Tigroid appearance
Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
588
Endolymphatic Sac Tumor
VHL
589
T1 Bright in the petrous apex
Cholesterol Granuloma
590
Restricted diffusion in the petrous apex
Cholesteatoma
591
Lateral rectus palsy + otomastoiditis
Grandenigo Syndrome
592
Cochlear and semicircular canal enhancement
Labyrinthitis
593
Conductive hearing loss in an adult
Otosclerosis
594
Noise induced vertigo
Superior Semicircular Canal dehiscence
595
Widening of the maxillary ostium
Antrochonal Polyp
596
Inverting papilloma
squamous cell CA (10%)
597
Adenoid cystic
perineural spread
598
Left sided vocal cord paralysis
look in the AP window
599
Bilateral coloboma
CHARGE syndrome
600
Retinal Detachment + Small Eye
PHPV
601
Bilateral Small Eye
Retinopathy of Prematurity
602
Calcification in the globe of a child
Retinoblastoma
603
When I say 'HOT spleen,' you say?
WBC scan or Octreotide ## Footnote Sulfur colloid will be a warm spleen.
604
When I say 'Bone Scan with Hot Skull Sutures,' you say?
renal osteodystrophy
605
When I say 'Bone Scan with Focal Breast Uptake,' you say?
breast CA
606
When I say 'Bone Scan with Renal Cortex Activity,' you say?
hemochromatosis
607
When I say 'Bone Scan with Liver Activity,' you say?
either too much Al, Amyloid, Hepatoma, or Liver Necrosis
608
When I say 'Bone Scan with Sternal Lesion,' you say?
breast CA
609
When I say 'Bone Scan with Diffusely Decreased Bone Uptake,' you say?
(1) Free Tc, or (2) Bisphosphonate Therapy
610
When I say 'Tramline along periosteum of long bones,' you say?
lung CA
611
When I say 'Super Hot Mandible in Adult,' you say?
Fibrous Dysplasia
612
When I say 'Super Hot Mandible in Child,' you say?
Caffeys
613
When I say 'Periarticular uptake on delayed scan,' you say?
RSD
614
When I say 'Focal uptake along the lesser trochanter,' you say?
Prosthesis loosening
615
When I say 'Tracer in the brain on a VQ study,' you say?
Shunt
616
When I say 'Tracer over the liver on Ventilation with Xenon,' you say?
Fatty Liver
617
When I say 'Gallium Negative, Thallium Positive,' you say?
Kaposi
618
When I say 'High T3, High T4, low TSH, - low thyroid uptake,' you say?
de Quervains (Granulomatous thyroiditis)
619
When I say 'persistent tracer in the lateral ventricles > 24 hours,' you say?
NPH
620
When I say 'Renal uptake on sulfur colloid,' you say?
CHF
621
Great saphenous vein on the wrong side of the calf - lateral side
Marginal Vein of Servelle - which is supposedly pathognomonic for Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome ## Footnote Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome is a rare congenital condition characterized by a triad of symptoms: capillary malformations, venous malformations, and lymphatic malformations.
622
Kids with vertigo and aortitis
Cogan Syndrome ## Footnote Cogan Syndrome is characterized by interstitial keratitis and vestibulo-cochlear dysfunction, often associated with systemic vasculitis.
623
Nasal perforation + Cavitary Lung Lesions
Wegeners ## Footnote Wegener's granulomatosis, now known as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, is a type of vasculitis affecting small to medium-sized vessels, leading to respiratory and renal complications.
624
Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
Microscopic Polyangitis ## Footnote Microscopic polyangiitis is a small-vessel vasculitis that can cause rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage.
625
Smoker + Hand Angiogram
Buergers ## Footnote Buerger's disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is a condition characterized by segmental vasculitis and thrombosis, primarily affecting young male smokers.
626
Construction worker + Hand Angiogram
Hypothenar Hammer ## Footnote Hypothenar hammer syndrome occurs due to repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery, leading to hand ischemia and potentially ulceration.
627
Unilateral tardus parvus in the carotid
Stenosis of the innominate ## Footnote Tardus parvus refers to a delayed and diminished pulse wave, often indicative of significant arterial stenosis.
628
Bilateral tardus parvus in the carotids
Aortic stenosis ## Footnote Aortic stenosis can lead to decreased blood flow to the carotid arteries, resulting in bilateral tardus parvus waveforms.
629
Bilateral reversal of flow in the carotids
Aortic regurgitation ## Footnote Aortic regurgitation can cause diastolic flow reversal in the carotid arteries due to the backflow of blood from the aorta.
630
IVC greater than 28 mm
Mega Cava ## Footnote Mega cava refers to an enlarged inferior vena cava, which can be associated with various cardiovascular conditions.
631
Mega Cava
Birds Nest Filter ## Footnote A Birds Nest filter is a type of inferior vena cava filter used to prevent pulmonary embolism in patients with deep vein thrombosis.
632
Hairpin turn - during bronchial angiography
Anterior medullary (spinal cord) artery ## Footnote The anterior medullary artery supplies blood to the anterior portion of the spinal cord and can be affected during bronchial angiography.
633
Fever, WBC, Nausea, and Vomiting after Uterine Artery Embolization
Post Embolization Syndrome ## Footnote Post embolization syndrome is a common complication following uterine artery embolization, characterized by fever and abdominal pain.
634
Most medial vessel in the leg
Posterior tibial artery ## Footnote The posterior tibial artery is a major artery supplying the posterior compartment of the leg and foot.
635
The source of 85% of upper GI bleeds
Left gastric artery ## Footnote The left gastric artery is a branch of the celiac trunk and is commonly involved in upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
636
The source of bleeding from a duodenal ulcer
GDA ## Footnote The gastroduodenal artery (GDA) is often eroded by duodenal ulcers, leading to significant bleeding.
637
Pulmonary AVM
HHT Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) is a genetic disorder that can cause arteriovenous malformations in the lungs, leading to pulmonary AVMs.
638
Most feared complication of bronchial artery embolization
Spinal cord infarct ## Footnote Spinal cord infarction is a rare but serious complication of bronchial artery embolization due to blood supply disruption to the spinal cord.
639
High risk of bleeding for liver transplant
Transjugular approach ## Footnote The transjugular approach is often used for liver biopsies and transplants to minimize bleeding risk associated with the hepatic vasculature.
640
Most feared complication of brachial arterial access
Compartment syndrome ## Footnote Compartment syndrome can occur due to hematoma formation following brachial arterial access, leading to increased pressure and potential muscle necrosis.
641
Cold painful fingers during dialysis
Steal syndrome ## Footnote Steal syndrome occurs when blood flow is diverted away from the distal hand during dialysis, typically with stenosis in native artery distal to fistula
642
Ulcer on medial ankle
Venous stasis ## Footnote Venous stasis ulcers are common in areas of venous insufficiency, often seen on the medial aspect of the ankle.
643
Ulcer on dorsum of foot
Ischemia or infected ulcer ## Footnote Ischemic ulcers on the dorsum of the foot can result from peripheral artery disease or infections.
644
Ulcer on plantar surface of foot
Neutropenic ulcer ## Footnote Neutropenic ulcers can occur in patients with compromised immune systems, often seen on the plantar surface of the foot.
645
Pulsatile lower limb venous doppler
Right heart failure ## Footnote Pulsatile venous flow in the lower limbs can indicate right heart failure, leading to increased venous pressure.
646
Hot clumps of signal or diffuse pulmonary activity on sulfur colloid
Too much aluminum in the Tc ## Footnote This refers to a potential imaging artifact or misinterpretation due to the presence of aluminum in technetium-labeled compounds.
647
What is the term for persistent fluid collection after pleural drain/tube placement?
Extrapleural Hematoma ## Footnote Extrapleural hematoma can occur when blood collects in the extrapleural space, often following surgical interventions.
648
What condition is indicated by displaced extrapleural fat?
Extrapleural Hematoma ## Footnote This can be a sign of underlying hematoma formation in the extrapleural space.
649
What is suggested by a massive air leak in the setting of trauma?
bronchial or tracheal injury ## Footnote Such injuries can lead to significant respiratory complications and require immediate medical attention.
650
What does 'hot on PET - around the periphery' indicate?
pulmonary infarct ## Footnote A pulmonary infarct typically shows increased metabolic activity on PET imaging.
651
What condition is indicated by multi-lobar collapse?
sarcoid ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can lead to lung involvement with multi-lobar collapse patterns on imaging.
652
What is the classic infection associated with bronchial infection?
TB ## Footnote Tuberculosis is a well-known cause of chronic bronchial infections.
653
What does panbronchiolitis present as?
tree in bud ## Footnote This imaging finding is characteristic of panbronchiolitis, indicating small airway disease.
654
What condition is represented by bronchorrhea?
Mucinous BAC ## Footnote Bronchorrhea is often seen in mucinous bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC).
655
What does ALCAPA stand for?
Steal Syndrome ## Footnote ALCAPA (Anomalous Left Coronary Artery from Pulmonary Artery) can lead to myocardial ischemia due to steal phenomenon.
656
What is the association of spontaneous coronary artery dissection with?
fibromuscular dysplasia (Rarely intracranial)
657
What condition is indicated by supra-valvular aortic stenosis?
Williams Syndrome ## Footnote Williams syndrome is associated with congenital heart defects including supra-valvular aortic stenosis.
658
What is the association of bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation?
Turners Syndrome ## Footnote Turner syndrome often presents with various cardiovascular anomalies including these conditions.
659
What condition is indicated by isolated right upper lobe edema?
Mitral Regurgitation ## Footnote Isolated edema may suggest pulmonary venous congestion due to mitral valve disease.
660
What does peripheral pulmonary stenosis indicate?
Alagille Syndrome ## Footnote Alagille syndrome is characterized by peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis among other features.
661
What is indicated by a box-shaped heart?
Ebsteins ## Footnote Ebstein's anomaly results in a distinctive shape of the heart on imaging.
662
What does right arch with mirror branching indicate?
congenital heart ## Footnote This finding is often associated with congenital cardiac anomalies.
663
What is indicated by hand/thumb defects + ASD?
Holt Oram ## Footnote Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by upper limb defects and congenital heart defects such as atrial septal defect (ASD).
664
What is the term for ostium primum ASD (or endocardial cushion defect)?
Downs ## Footnote Down syndrome is associated with various congenital heart defects including ostium primum ASD.
665
What does right sided PAPVR suggest?
Sinus Venous ASD ## Footnote Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR) can be associated with sinus venosus defects.
666
What condition is indicated by calcification in the left atrium wall?
Rheumatic Heart Disease ## Footnote Calcifications can occur in the setting of rheumatic heart disease due to chronic inflammation.
667
What is indicated by difficult to suppress myocardium?
Amyloid ## Footnote Cardiac amyloidosis can lead to characteristic imaging findings and difficulties in suppression.
668
What condition is indicated by blood pool suppression on delayed enhancement?
Amyloid ## Footnote This imaging characteristic is often seen in cases of cardiac amyloidosis.
669
What does septal bounce indicate?
constrictive pericarditis ## Footnote Septal bounce is a classic finding in echocardiography for constrictive pericarditis.
670
What is indicated by ventricular interdependence?
constrictive pericarditis ## Footnote Ventricular interdependence is a hemodynamic phenomenon seen in conditions affecting the pericardium.
671
What condition is indicated by focal thickening of the septum - but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Sarcoid ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can lead to localized septal thickening distinct from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
672
What is indicated by ballooning of the left ventricular apex?
Tako-Tsubo ## Footnote Tako-Tsubo cardiomyopathy is characterized by this specific pattern of ventricular deformation.
673
What does fat in the wall of a dilated right ventricle suggest?
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC) ## Footnote ARVC is associated with fatty infiltration of the right ventricle and aneurysm
674
What condition is indicated by a kid with dilated heart and mid-wall enhancement?
Muscular Dystrophy ## Footnote Certain types of muscular dystrophies can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy in children.
675
What is indicated by cardiac rhabdomyoma?
Tuberous Sclerosis ## Footnote Cardiac rhabdomyomas are a common finding in patients with tuberous sclerosis.
676
What does bilateral ventricular thrombus indicate?
Eosinophilic Cardiomyopathy ## Footnote Eosinophilic conditions can lead to thrombus formation in the ventricles.
677
What is indicated by diffuse circumferential LV subendocardial enhancement?
Cardiac Amyloid not restricted to a vascular distribution
678
What is the Glenn Procedure complication?
acquired pulmonary AVMs
679
What is indicated by pulmonary vein stenosis?
Ablation for A-Fib ## Footnote Pulmonary vein stenosis can be a complication following ablation procedures for atrial fibrillation.
680
What condition is associated with multiple cardiac myxomas?
Carney's Complex ## Footnote Carney's complex is a genetic syndrome characterized by multiple myxomas and other neoplasms.
681
What is indicated by prominent ventricular trabeculation?
Noncompaction ## Footnote Noncompaction cardiomyopathy is characterized by excessive trabeculation of the myocardium.
682
What does a vessel in the fissure of the ligamentum venosum indicate?
replaced left hepatic artery ## Footnote This anatomical variant can be significant during surgical procedures involving the liver.
683
What is indicated by a vessel coursing on the pelvic brim?
Corona Mortis ## Footnote Corona mortis is an anatomical variant anastomosis between internal iliac obturator artery and external iliac
684
What condition is indicated by ascending aorta calcifications?
Syphilis and Takayasu ## Footnote These conditions can lead to vascular calcifications, particularly in the aorta.
685
What does a tulip bulb aorta suggest?
Marfans ## Footnote The characteristic appearance of the aorta in Marfan syndrome is often described as tulip bulb-shaped.
686
What is indicated by a really shitty Marfan's variant?
Loeys-Dietz ## Footnote Loeys-Dietz syndrome presents similarly to Marfan syndrome but with more severe vascular complications.
687
What does tortuous vessels indicate?
Loeys-Dietz ## Footnote Vascular tortuosity is a hallmark of Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
688
What condition is indicated by tortuosity of the ulnar artery causing a 'corkscrew' appearance?
Hypothenar Hammer ## Footnote This condition can occur due to repetitive trauma or compression affecting the ulnar artery along the hook of the hamate
689
What does renal artery stenosis with HTN in a child suggest?
NF-1 ## Footnote Neurofibromatosis type 1 can be associated with renal artery stenosis in pediatric patients.
690
What condition is indicated by a nasty looking saccular aneurysm, without intimal calcifications?
Mycotic ## Footnote Mycotic aneurysms can appear irregular and are often associated with infections.
691
What does tree bark intimal calcification indicate?
Syphilitic (Luetic) aneurysm ## Footnote This type of calcification is historically associated with syphilitic vascular disease.
692
What condition is indicated by a painful aneurysm in a smoker, sparing the posterior wall?
Inflammatory aneurysm ## Footnote Inflammatory aneurysms often present with pain and specific imaging characteristics.
693
What is indicated by a Turkish guy with pulmonary artery aneurysm?
Behcets ## Footnote Behçet's disease can lead to vascular complications including pulmonary artery aneurysms.
694
What does colonic bleed with early opacification of a dilated draining vein suggest?
Colonic Angiodysplasia ## Footnote This condition is characterized by abnormal blood vessels in the colon leading to bleeding.
695
What is indicated by spider web appearance of hepatic veins on angiogram?
Budd Chiari ## Footnote Budd-Chiari syndrome is characterized by occlusion of hepatic veins, leading to this angiographic appearance.
696
What does non-decompressible varicocele indicate?
look in the belly for badness ## Footnote Non-decompressible varicoceles can suggest underlying pathological conditions such as tumors.
697
What does right sided varicocele suggest?
look in the belly for badness ## Footnote Right-sided varicoceles may indicate inferior vena cava obstruction or other significant pathology.
698
What does swollen left leg indicate? Seen in who?
May Thurner ## Footnote May-Thurner syndrome can lead to left leg swelling due to compression and thrombosis of the left iliac vein by right iliac artery, seen in younger and middle age women
699
What is indicated by popliteal aneurysm?
look for the AAA (and the other leg) ## Footnote A popliteal aneurysm may be associated with abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) and requires further evaluation.
700
What is the most dreaded complication of popliteal aneurysm?
distal emboli ## Footnote Distal embolization can lead to limb ischemia and is a serious concern in cases of popliteal aneurysm.
701
When I say 'mom doing cocaine,' you say _______
placenta abruption
702
When I say 'thinning of the myometrium - with turbulent doppler,' you say _______
placenta creta
703
When I say 'mass near the cord insertion, with flow pulsating at the fetal heart rate,' you say _______
placenta chorioangioma
704
When I say 'Pleural effusions, and Ascites on prenatal US,' you say _______
hydrops
705
When I say 'Complex debris filled hydrosalpinx in a women who is engaged in scandalous free spirited sexual escapades,' you say _______
Pelvic inflammatory disease / tubo-ovaritis (salpingo-oophoritis)
706
When I say 'Complex debris filled hydrosalpinx in a women who is NOT engaged in scandalous free spirited sexual escapades,' you say _______
Primary FT Carcinoma
707
When I say 'Massively enlarged bilateral kidneys,' you say _______
ARPKD
708
When I say 'Twin peak sign,' you say _______
dichorionic diamniotic
709
When I say 'obliteration of Raider's Triangle,' you say _______
aberrant right subclavian
710
When I say 'flat waist sign,' you say _______
left lower lobe collapse
711
When I say 'terrorist + mediastinal widening,' you say _______
Anthrax
712
When I say 'bulging fissure,' you say _______
Klebsiella
713
When I say 'dental procedure gone bad, now with jaw osteo and pneumonia,' you say _______
Actinomycosis
714
When I say 'culture negative pleural effusion, 3 months later with airspace opacity,' you say _______
TB
715
When I say 'hot-tub,' you say _______
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
716
When I say 'halo sign,' you say _______
Fungal Pneumonia - Invasive Aspergillus
717
When I say 'reverse halo or atoll sign,' you say _______
COP
718
When I say 'finger in glove,' you say _______
ABPA
719
When I say 'ABPA,' you say _______
Asthma
720
When I say 'septic emboli + jugular vein thrombus,' you say _______
Lemierre
721
When I say 'Lemierre,' you say _______
Fusobacterium Necrophorum
722
When I say 'Paraneoplatic syndrome with SIADH,' you say _______
Small Cell Lung CA
723
When I say 'Paraneoplatic syndrome with PTH,' you say _______
Squamous Cell CA
724
When I say 'Small Cell Lung CA + Proximal Weakness,' you say _______
Lambert Eaton
725
When I say 'cavity fills with air post pneumonectomy,' you say _______
Bronchopleural Fistula
726
When I say 'malignant bronchial tumor,' you say _______
carcinoid
727
When I say 'malignant tracheal tumor,' you say _______
Adenoid Cystic
728
When I say 'AIDS patient with lung nodules, pleural effusion, and lymphadenopathy,' you say _______
Lymphoma
729
When I say 'gallium negative,' you say _______
kaposi
730
When I say 'Thallium Negative,' you say _______
Necrosis, toxoplasma
731
When I say 'Macroscopic fat and popcorn calcifications,' you say _______
Hamartoma
732
When I say 'Bizarre shaped cysts,' you say _______
LCH
733
When I say 'Lung Cysts in a TS patient,' you say _______
LAM
734
When I say 'Panlobular Emphysema - NOT Alpha 1,' you say _______
Ritalin Lung
735
When I say 'Honeycombing,' you say _______
UIP
736
When I say 'The histology was heterogeneous,' you say _______
UIP
737
When I say 'Ground Glass with Sub pleural Sparing,' you say _______
NSIP Associated with scleroderma
738
When I say 'UIP Lungs + Parietal Pleural Thickening,' you say _______
Asbestosis
739
When I say 'Cavitation in the setting of silicosis,' you say _______
TB
740
When I say 'Air trapping seen 6 months after lung transplant,' you say _______
Chronic Rejection / Bronchiolitis Obliterans Syndrome
741
When I say 'Crazy Paving,' you say _______
PAP or COVID
742
When I say 'perivascular cysts,' you say _______
LIP
743
When I say 'History of constipation,' you say _______
Lipoid Pneumonia - inferring mineral oil use / aspiration
744
When I say 'UIP + Air trapping,' you say _______
Chronic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
745
When I say 'Dilated Esophagus + ILD,' you say _______
Scleroderma (with NSIP)
746
When I say 'Shortness of breath when sitting up,' you say _______
Hepatopulmonary syndrome
747
When I say 'Episodic hypoglycemia,' you say _______
solitary fibrous tumor of the pleura
748
When I say 'Pulmonary HTN with Normal Wedge Pressure,' you say _______
Pulmonary Veno-occlusive disease
749
When I say 'Yellow Nails,' you say _______
Edema and Chylous Pleural Effusions (Yellow Nail Syndrome)
750
What condition is associated with staghorn stone?
Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis ## Footnote Staghorn stones are large kidney stones that can fill the renal pelvis and branches of the kidney's collecting system.
751
What condition is commonly linked with Papillary Necrosis?
diabetes ## Footnote Diabetes can lead to ischemic changes and necrosis in the renal papillae.
752
What does a shrunken calcified kidney indicate?
TB (putty kidney) ## Footnote Tuberculosis can cause extensive renal damage, leading to a calcified and shrunken kidney.
753
Bilateral medullary nephrocalcinosis is associated with which condition?
Medullary Sponge Kidney ## Footnote Medullary Sponge Kidney is a congenital disorder characterized by cystic dilatation of the renal collecting tubules.
754
What is indicated by a big bright kidney with decreased renal function?
HIV ## Footnote HIV can lead to renal complications including HIV-associated nephropathy.
755
What condition is suggested by a history of lithotripsy?
Page Kidney ## Footnote Page Kidney refers to hypertension caused by a renal hematoma after lithotripsy.
756
What does the cortical rim sign indicate?
subacute renal infarct ## Footnote The cortical rim sign is a radiological sign that can indicate a subacute renal infarct.
757
What is a potential complication after a renal biopsy?
AVF ## Footnote Arteriovenous fistula can occur as a complication following renal biopsy.
758
What does reversed diastolic flow suggest?
renal vein thrombosis ## Footnote Reversed diastolic flow in renal vessels can indicate thrombosis.
759
What condition is associated with sickle cell trait?
medullary RCC ## Footnote Renal cell carcinoma can occur in patients with sickle cell trait due to renal hypoxia.
760
What is indicated by a young adult presenting with a renal mass and severe hypertension?
Juxtaglomerular Cell Tumor ## Footnote This tumor is often associated with renovascular hypertension.
761
Which condition is linked with squamous cell bladder cancer?
Schistosomiasis ## Footnote Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can lead to bladder cancer.
762
What does it mean if the entire bladder is calcified?
Schistosomiasis ## Footnote Extensive calcification of the bladder can be a result of chronic schistosomiasis.
763
What is an adenocarcinoma of the bladder associated with?
urachus ## Footnote The urachus is a remnant of the embryonic connection between the bladder and the umbilicus.
764
What does a long stricture in the urethra suggest?
Gonococcal ## Footnote Long strictures are often due to chronic infections such as gonorrhea.
765
What is indicated by a short stricture in the urethra?
Straddle Injury ## Footnote Short strictures can result from trauma, such as a straddle injury.
766
What should be investigated in a case of Unicornuate Uterus?
Look at the kidneys ## Footnote Unicornuate uterus is often associated with renal anomalies.
767
What is a T-Shaped Uterus associated with?
DES related or Vaginal Clear Cell CA ## Footnote Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in utero is linked to T-shaped uterine malformations.
768
Marked enlargement of the uterus can indicate what condition?
Adenomyosis ## Footnote Adenomyosis results in the thickening of the uterine wall due to endometrial tissue growth.
769
What is the junctional zone thickness in Adenomyosis?
thickening of the junctional zone (> 12 mm) ## Footnote The junctional zone is the interface between the endometrium and myometrium.
770
What does a Wolffian duct remnant indicate?
Gartner Duct Cyst ## Footnote Gartner duct cysts are remnants of the Wolffian duct in females.
771
Theca Lutein Cysts are associated with which conditions?
moles and multiple gestations ## Footnote Theca lutein cysts can occur due to elevated hCG levels.
772
What condition is indicated by Theca Lutein Cysts + Pleural Effusions?
Hyperstimulation Syndrome (patient on fertility meds) ## Footnote This syndrome can result from excessive ovarian stimulation during fertility treatments.
773
What does low level internal echoes in a cyst suggest?
Endometrioma ## Footnote Endometriomas are cysts formed from endometrial tissue outside the uterus.
774
What does T2 Shortening indicate in mri pelvis
Endometrioma - Shading Sign ## Footnote The shading sign is a characteristic MRI finding in endometriomas.
775
What does a fishnet appearance suggest?
Hemorrhagic Cyst ## Footnote Hemorrhagic cysts can present with a characteristic appearance on imaging.
776
What condition is indicated by Ovarian Fibroma + Pleural Effusion?
Meigs Syndrome ## Footnote Meigs Syndrome is characterized by a triad of ovarian tumor, ascites, and hydrothorax.
777
What does a Snow Storm Uterus indicate?
Complete Mole - 1st Trimester ## Footnote A complete mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
778
What is indicated by serum B-hCG levels that rise in the 8 to 10 weeks following evacuation of molar pregnancy?
Choriocarcinoma ## Footnote Choriocarcinoma can develop after a molar pregnancy due to persistent trophoblastic disease.
779
What does a midline cystic structure near the back of the bladder in a man suggest?
Prostatic Utricle ## Footnote Prostatic utricle is a remnant of the paramesonephric ducts.
780
What does a lateral cystic structure near the back of the bladder in a man indicate?
Seminal Vesicle Cyst ## Footnote Seminal vesicle cysts are usually asymptomatic and found incidentally.
781
What condition is indicated by isolated orchitis?
mumps ## Footnote Orchitis typically progress from epidydimitis. Mumps can lead to viral orchitis, particularly in post-pubertal males.
782
What should be considered in a 20-30 year old male with enlarged retroperitoneal lymph nodes?
US his balls ## Footnote Testicular cancer should be ruled out in this demographic.
783
What does an onion skin appearance suggest?
epidermoid cyst ## Footnote Epidermoid cysts can have a characteristic appearance on imaging.
784
What does multiple hypochoic masses in the testicle indicate?
lymphoma ## Footnote Testicular lymphoma can present with multiple masses.
785
What does cystic elements and macro-calcifications in the testicle suggest?
Mixed Germ Cell Tumor ## Footnote Mixed germ cell tumors can contain various germ cell components.
786
What is indicated by homogenous and microcalcifications in the testicle?
seminoma ## Footnote Seminomas are a type of germ cell tumor with specific imaging characteristics.
787
What condition is indicated by gynecomastia + testicular tumor?
Sertoli Leydig ## Footnote Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors can produce estrogen leading to gynecomastia.
788
What is indicated by bilateral solid testicular masses + congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Adrenal Rests ## Footnote Adrenal rests can occur in patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to hormone production.
789
What does bilateral solid testicular & epididymis masses suggest?
Testicular Sarcoid ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can affect the testis and epididymis presenting with masses.
790
What is indicated by bilateral small, hyperechoic, avascular masses + Cowden Syndrome?
Focal Lipomatosis ## Footnote Cowden syndrome is a genetic condition associated with multiple benign tumors.
791
What does fetal macrosomia indicate?
Maternal Diabetes ## Footnote High maternal blood sugar levels can lead to increased fetal growth.
792
What does one artery adjacent to the bladder suggest?
two vessel cord ## Footnote A two vessel cord can indicate potential developmental anomalies.
793
What does painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester suggest?
placenta previa ## Footnote Placenta previa occurs when the placenta is located over the cervix.
794
Clover Leaf Sign - Duodenum
healed peptic ulcer
795
Sand Like Nodules in the Jejunum
Whipples
796
Sand Like Nodules in the Jejunum + CD4 <100
MAI
797
Ribbon-like bowel
Graft vs Host
798
Ribbon like Jejunum
Long Standing Celiac
799
Moulage Pattern
Celiac (moulage = loss of jejunal folds)
800
Fold Reversal - of jejunum and ileum
Celiac
801
Cavitary (low density) Lymph nodes
Celiac
802
hide bound or Stack of coins
Scleroderma
803
Megaduodenum
Scleroderma
804
Duodenal obstruction, with recent weight loss
SMA Syndrome
805
Coned shaped cecum
Amebiasis
806
Lead Pipe
Ulcerative Colitis
807
String Sign
Crohns
808
Massive circumferential thickening, without obstruction
Lymphoma
809
Multiple small bowel target signs
Melanoma
810
Obstructing Old Lady Hernia
Femoral Hernia
811
sac of bowel
Paraduodenal hernia
812
scalloped appearance of the liver
Pseudomyxoma Peritonei
813
HCC without cirrhosis
Hepatitis B (or Fibrolamellar HCC)
814
Capsular retraction
Cholangiocarcinoma
815
Periportal hypochoic infiltration + AIDS
Kaposi's
816
sparing of the caudate lobe
Budd Chiari
817
large T2 bright nodes + Budd Chiari
Hyperplastic nodules
818
liver high signal in phase, low signal out phase
fatty liver
819
liver low signal in phase, and high signal out phase
hemochromatosis
820
multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary stricture
PSC
821
multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary strictures + papillary stenosis
AIDS Cholangiopathy
822
When I say 'bile ducts full of stones,' you say _______
Recurrent Pyogenic Cholangitis ## Footnote This condition is characterized by repeated infections due to obstruction in bile ducts caused by stones.
823
When I say 'Gallbladder Comet Tail Artifact,' you say _______
Adenomyomatosis Thickening of wall with cholesterol deposition in rokitansky aschoff sinuses
824
When I say 'lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas,' you say _______
CF ## Footnote Cystic Fibrosis can lead to changes in pancreatic morphology, including lipomatous pseudohypertrophy.
825
When I say 'sausage shaped pancreas,' you say _______
autoimmune pancreatitis ## Footnote IgG4 No duct dilation of calcs
826
When I say 'autoimmune pancreatitis,' you say _______
IgG4 ## Footnote A subtype of autoimmune pancreatitis is associated with elevated levels of IgG4 antibodies.
827
When I say 'IgG4,' you say _______
RP Fibrosis, Sclerosing Cholangitis, Fibrosing Mediastinitis, Inflammatory Pseudotumor ## Footnote These conditions are associated with IgG4-related diseases.
828
When I say 'Wide duodenal sweep,' you say _______
Pancreatic Cancer ## Footnote This radiological finding can be indicative of pancreatic malignancy.
829
When I say 'Grandmother Pancreatic Cyst,' you say _______
Serous Cystadenoma ## Footnote This type of pancreatic cyst is typically benign and often found in older women.
830
When I say 'Mother Pancreatic Cyst,' you say _______
Mucinous ## Footnote Mucinous cysts can be premalignant and are often associated with a higher risk of cancer.
831
When I say 'Daughter Pancreatic Cyst,' you say _______
Solid Pseudopapillary ## Footnote This type of cystic tumor is rare and usually occurs in young women.
832
When I say 'bladder stones,' you say _______
neurogenic bladder ## Footnote A neurogenic bladder can lead to urinary retention and stone formation.
833
When I say 'pine cone appearance,' you say _______
neurogenic bladder ## Footnote This imaging appearance can be associated with conditions affecting bladder function.
834
When I say 'urethra cancer,' you say _______
squamous cell CA ## Footnote Squamous cell carcinoma is one of the most common types of urethral cancer.
835
When I say 'urethra cancer - prostatic portion,' you say _______
transitional cell CA ## Footnote Transitional cell carcinoma is a common type of cancer found in the prostatic urethra.
836
When I say 'urethra cancer - in a diverticulum,' you say _______
adenocarcinoma ## Footnote Adenocarcinoma can occur in diverticula of the urethra.
837
When I say 'long term supra-pubic catheter,' you say _______
squamous Bladder CA ## Footnote Long-term use of catheters can increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder.
838
When I say 'E. coli infection,' you say _______
Malakoplakia ## Footnote Malakoplakia is a rare inflammatory condition often associated with chronic E. coli infections.
839
When I say 'vas deferens calcifications,' you say _______
diabetes ## Footnote Calcifications in the vas deferens can be a sign of diabetes mellitus.
840
When I say 'calcifications in a fatty renal mass,' you say _______
RCC ## Footnote Renal Cell Carcinoma may present with calcifications within a fatty renal mass.
841
When I say 'protrude into the renal pelvis,' you say _______
Multilocular cystic nephroma ## Footnote This tumor can present with multilocular cysts that may extend into the renal pelvis.
842
When I say 'no functional renal tissue,' you say _______
Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney ## Footnote This condition is due to fetal obstructive uropathy
843
When I say 'Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney,' you say _______
contralateral renal issues (50%) ## Footnote Patients with multicystic dysplastic kidney often have issues with the contralateral kidney.
844
When I say 'Emphysematous Pyelonephritis,' you say _______
diabetic ## Footnote This severe kidney infection is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus.
845
When I say 'Elevated AFP, with mass in the liver of a newborn,' you say _____
Hepatoblastoma
846
When I say 'Common Bile Duct measures more than 10 mm,' you say _____
Choledochal Cyst
847
When I say 'Lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas,' you say _____
CF
848
When I say 'Unilateral Renal Agenesis,' you say _____
unicornuate uterus
849
When I say 'Neonatal Renal Vein Thrombosis,' you say _____
maternal diabetes
850
When I say 'Neonatal Renal Artery Thrombosis,' you say _____
Misplaced Umbilical Artery Catheter
851
When I say 'Hydro on Fetal MRI,' you say _____
Posterior Urethral Valve
852
When I say 'Urachus,' you say _____
bladder Adenocarcinoma
853
When I say 'Nephroblastomatosis with Necrosis,' you say _____
Wilms
854
When I say 'Solid Renal Tumor of Infancy,' you say _____
Mesoblastic Nephroma
855
When I say 'Solid Renal Tumor of Childhood,' you say _____
Wilms
856
When I say 'Most common Renal Cell CA subtype in kids,' you say _____
Translocation Subtype
857
When I say 'Translocation Subtype Renal Cell CA,' you say _____
prior exposure to cytotoxic chemotherapy
858
When I say 'Midline pelvic mass, in a female,' you say _____
Hydrometrocolpos
859
When I say 'Right sided varicocele,' you say _____
abdominal pathology
860
When I say 'Blue Dot Sign,' you say _____
Torsion of the Testicular Appendage
861
When I say 'Hand or Foot Pain / Swelling in an Infant,' you say _____
sickle cell with hand foot syndrome
862
When I say 'Extratesticular scrotal mass,' you say _____
embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
863
When I say 'Narrowing of the interpedicular distance,' you say _____
Achondroplasia
864
When I say 'Platyspondyly (flat vertebral bodies),' you say _____
Thanatophoric
865
When I say 'Absent Tonsils after 6 months,' you say _____
Immune Deficiency
866
When I say 'episodic hypertension,' you say _____
check urinary metanephrines (pheochromocytoma)
867
When I say 'Enlarged Tonsils well after childhood (like 12-15),' you say _____
Cancer - probably lymphatic
868
When I say 'Mystery Liver Abscess in Kid,' you say _____
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
869
When I say 'Narrowed B Ring,' you say _____
Schatzi (Schat'B' ki Ring)
870
When I say 'Esophageal concentric rings,' you say _____
Eosinophilic Esophagitis
871
When I say 'shaggy' or 'plaque like' esophagus, you say _____
Candidiasis
872
When I say 'looks like candida, but an asymptomatic old lady,' you say _____
Glycogen Acanthosis
873
When I say 'Reticular mucosal pattern,' you say _____
Barretts
874
When I say 'high stricture with an associated hiatal hernia,' you say _____
Barretts
875
When I say 'abrupt shoulders,' you say _____
cancer
876
When I say 'Killian Dehiscence,' you say _____
Zenker Diverticulum
877
When I say 'transient, fine transverse folds across the esophagus,' you say _____
Feline Esophagus
878
When I say 'bird's beak,' you say _____
Achalasia
879
When I say 'solitary esophageal ulcer,' you say _____
CMV or AIDS
880
When I say 'ulcers at the level of the arch or distal esophagus,' you say _____
Medication induced
881
When I say 'Breast Cancer + Bowel Hamartomas,' you say _____
Cowdens
882
When I say 'Desmoid Tumors + Bowel Polyps,' you say _____
Gardners
883
When I say 'Brain Tumors + Bowel Polyps,' you say _____
Turcots Medulloblastoma and GBM
884
When I say 'enlarged left supraclavicular node,' you say _____
Virchow Node (GI Cancer)
885
When I say 'crosses the pylorus,' you say _____
Gastric Lymphoma
886
When I say 'isolated gastric varices,' you say _____
splenic vein thrombus
887
When I say 'multiple gastric ulcers,' you say _____
Chronic Aspirin Therapy
888
When I say 'multiple duodenal (or jejunal) ulcers,' you say _____
Zollinger-Ellsion
889
When I say 'pancreatitis after Billroth 2,' you say _____
Afferent Loop Syndrome
890
When I say 'Weight gain years after Roux-en-Y,' you say _____
Gastro-Gastro Fistula
891
When I say 'Subglottic Hemangioma,' you say _______
PHACES Syndrome
892
When I say 'Ropy Appearance,' you say _______
Meconium Aspiration
893
When I say 'Post Term Delivery,' you say _______
Meconium Aspiration
894
When I say 'Fluid in the Fissures,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
895
When I say 'History of c-section,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
896
When I say 'Maternal sedation,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
897
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Premature,' you say _______
RDS
898
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Term + High Lung Volume,' you say _______
Pneumonia
899
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Term + Low Lung Volume,' you say _______
B-Hemolytic Strep
900
When I say 'Band Like Opacities,' you say _______
Chronic Lung Disease (BPD)
901
When I say 'Linear Lucencies,' you say _______
Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema
902
When I say 'Pulmonary Hypoplasia,' you say _______
diaphragmatic hernia
903
When I say 'Lung Cysts and Nodules,' you say _______
LCH or Papillomatosis
904
When I say 'Lower lobe bronchiectasis,' you say _______
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia
905
When I say 'Upper lobe bronchiectasis,' you say _______
CF
906
When I say 'Posterior mediastinal mass (under 2),' you say _______
Neuroblastoma
907
When I say 'No air in the stomach,' you say _______
Esophageal Atresia With polyhydramnios
908
When I say 'Excessive air in the stomach,' you say _______
'H' Type TE fistula
909
When I say 'Anterior Esophageal Impression,' you say _______
pulmonary sling
910
When I say 'Pulmonary Sling,' You say _______
tracheal stenosis
911
When I say 'Single Bubble,' You say _______
Gastric (antral or pyloric) atresia
912
When I say 'Double Bubble,' You say _______
duodenal atresia and downs
913
When I say 'Duodenal Atresia', You say _______
Downs
914
When I say 'Single Bubble with Distal Gas,' You say _______
maybe Mid Gut Volvulus
915
When I say 'Non-bilious vomiting', You say _______
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
916
When I say 'Paradoxial aciduria' You say _______
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
917
When I say 'Bilious vomiting - in an infant', You say _______
Mid Gut Volvulus
918
When I say 'Corkscrew Duodenum' You say _______
Mid Gut Volvulus
919
When I say 'Reversed SMA and SMV' You say _______
Malrotation SMA to the right of SMV
920
When I say 'Absent Gallbladder' You say _______
biliary atresia
921
When I say 'Triangle Cord Sign' You say _______
biliary atresia
922
When I say 'Asplenia', You say _______
cyanotic heart disease
923
When I say 'Infarcted Spleen,' You say _______
Sickle Cell
924
When I say 'Gall Stones,' You say _______
Sickle Cell
925
When I say 'Short Microcolon,' You say _______
Colonic Atresia
926
When I say 'Long Microcolon,' You say _______
Meconium ileus (to the ileum) or distal ileal atresia
927
When I say 'Saw tooth colon,' You say _______
Hirschsprung Absence of the distal ganglion cells
928
When I say 'Calcified mass in the mid abdomen of a newborn', you say _______
Meconium Peritonitis 2/2 bowel perforation and meconium spillage into peritoneal cavity
929
When I say 'Meconium ileus equivalent,' you say _______
Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome (CF)
930
When I say 'Abrupt caliber change of the aorta below the celiac axis', You say _______
Hepatic Hemangioendothelioma
931
When I say 'Cystic mass in the liver of a newborn,' you say _______
Mesenchymal Hamartoma

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