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High Yield Day 3: IR, Mammo, US, GU Flashcards

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1
Q

Which condition spares the disc space in the spine?

A

TB osteomyelitis in the spine

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2
Q

In scoliosis, the curvature points away from which condition?

A

Osteoid osteoma

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3
Q

What is the only benign skeletal tumor associated with radiation?

A

Osteochondroma

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4
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of Mixed Connective Tissue Disease?

A

Serology (Ribonucleoprotein)

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5
Q

What will a Medullary Bone Infarct have in the middle?

A

Fat

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6
Q

What type of meniscal tears are referred to as Bucket Handle tears?

A

Longitudinal tears

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7
Q

What does the Anterior Drawer Sign indicate?

A

ACL injury

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8
Q

What does the Posterior Drawer Sign indicate?

A

PCL injury

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9
Q

What does ‘McMurray’ refer to in a clinical context?

A

MCL injury

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10
Q

What is noted about grid on mag views?

A

No grid on mag views

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11
Q

What does BR-3 indicate regarding the chance of cancer?

A

< 2% chance of cancer

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12
Q

What does BR-5 indicate regarding the chance of cancer?

A

> 95% chance of cancer

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13
Q

True or False: Nipple enhancement can be normal on post contrast MRI.

A

True

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Do not call nipple enhancement Pagets on post contrast MRI - it can be _______.

A

normal

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15
Q

Which quadrant has the highest density of breast tissue?

A

Upper outer quadrant

This quadrant has the highest incidence of breast cancers.

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16
Q

What percentage of blood supply to the breast comes from the internal mammary artery?

A

60%

This is the majority of the blood supply to the breast.

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17
Q

What percentage of lymphatic drainage from the breast goes to the axilla?

A

97%

This indicates that the axilla is the primary site for lymphatic drainage.

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18
Q

On which view can the sternalis muscle be seen?

A

CC view

CC view refers to the Craniocaudal view in mammography.

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19
Q

What is the most common location for ectopic breast tissue?

A

Axilla

Ectopic breast tissue can occur in various locations, but the axilla is the most common.

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20
Q

What is the best time to have a mammogram or MRI during the menstrual cycle?

A

Follicular phase (day 7-14)

This phase is recommended for optimal imaging results.

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21
Q

When is breast tenderness at its maximum during the menstrual cycle?

A

Day 27-30

This period corresponds to the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle.

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22
Q

What is the most comprehensive risk model for breast cancer?

A

Tyrer Cuzick&raquo_space; Gail

This model evaluates various risk factors but does not include breast density.

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23
Q

What is a criterion for getting a screening MRI if you had chest radiation as a child?

A

More than 20Gy

This level of radiation exposure increases breast cancer risk.

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24
Q

Which BRCA mutation is associated with male breast cancer?

A

BRCA 2

BRCA 2 mutations can increase the risk of breast cancer in males.

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25
Which BRCA mutation is more common in younger patients?
BRCA 1 ## Footnote BRCA 1 mutations are often linked to early-onset breast cancer.
26
Which BRCA mutation is more commonly seen in postmenopausal patients?
BRCA 2 ## Footnote This mutation tends to have a later onset compared to BRCA 1.
27
Which type of breast cancer is more often associated with BRCA 1?
Triple negative CA ## Footnote Triple negative breast cancer is more prevalent among BRCA 1 mutation carriers.
28
What is the purpose of the LMO in breast imaging?
For kyphosis, pectus excavatum, and to avoid a pacemaker / line ## Footnote The LMO (Lateral Medial Oblique) view can help in specific anatomical situations.
29
What is the imaging characteristic of a Rathke Cleft Cyst?
Pituitary - T2 Bright ## Footnote Rathke Cleft Cysts typically appear hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI.
30
What tumor is associated with calcification in the pituitary region?
Craniopharyngioma ## Footnote Craniopharyngiomas are often calcified and can be seen on imaging.
31
What condition invades the internal auditory canal at the cerebellopontine angle?
Schwannoma ## Footnote Schwannomas are benign tumors that originate from Schwann cells and can affect the auditory pathways.
32
What is the characteristic of a Schwannoma with NF2?
Invades Both Internal Auditory Canals ## Footnote Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas.
33
What type of lesion restricts on diffusion at the cerebellopontine angle?
Epidermoid ## Footnote Epidermoid cysts can demonstrate restricted diffusion on MRI due to their unique composition.
34
What pediatric brain tumor arises from the vermis?
Medulloblastoma ## Footnote Medulloblastomas are common malignant brain tumors in children and often arise from the cerebellar vermis.
35
What pediatric tumor is described as 'tooth paste' coming out of the 4th ventricle?
Ependymoma ## Footnote Ependymomas can have a characteristic appearance on imaging, resembling 'toothpaste' when they obstruct cerebrospinal fluid pathways.
36
At what age does the adult myelination pattern show
shows T1 at 1 year and T2 at 2 years Adult myelin is T1 bright and T2 dark
37
Which structures are myelinated at birth?
Brainstem and posterior limb of the internal capsule ## Footnote Early myelination of these structures is crucial for basic neurological functions.
38
Which cranial nerves are not found in the cavernous sinus?
CN2 and CNV3 ## Footnote The optic nerve (CN2) and mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (CNV3) do not traverse the cavernous sinus.
39
What artery increases the risk of aneurysm?
Persistent trigeminal artery (basilar to carotid) Seen with trident or tau sign
40
What complication can subfalcine herniation lead to?
ACA infarct ## Footnote Subfalcine herniation occurs when brain tissue shifts beneath the falx cerebri, potentially compromising blood supply to the anterior cerebral artery (ACA).
41
What do ADEM lesions spare?
ADEM, or Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis, typically spares the calloso-septal interface in imaging studies.
42
In Marchiafava-Bignami disease, which part of the corpus callosum is affected first?
Body ## Footnote Marchiafava-Bignami disease is characterized by degeneration of the corpus callosum, progressing from the body to the genu and then to the splenium.
43
How long is the latent period before post-radiation changes begin?
2 months ## Footnote Post-radiation changes in brain tissue can take time to manifest, starting typically around two months after exposure.
44
What is the first area to exhibit atrophy in Alzheimer Dementia?
Hippocampus ## Footnote Hippocampal atrophy is a hallmark early sign of Alzheimer’s disease, reflecting the disease's impact on memory and learning.
45
What does a beaked tectum indicate?
Chiari 2 ## Footnote A beaked tectum is a radiological finding associated with Chiari malformation type 2, which involves downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils.
46
What condition is associated with a beaked anterior inferior L1 vertebral body?
Hurler's syndrome ## Footnote Hurler's syndrome, or mucopolysaccharidosis type I Enlargedperivascular spaces Wide metacarpal with proximal tapering Wide clavicle and ribs
47
What is sometimes indicated by a beaked pons? What else can be seen
Multi-System Atrophy Hot cross bun sign Cerebellar peduncle atrophy and shrunken pons
48
What is the most common TORCH infection?
CMV ## Footnote Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most prevalent infectious agent in the TORCH complex, which includes congenital infections that can affect fetal development.
49
What kind of abscess does not typically restrict diffusion on imaging?
Toxoplasmosis abscesses typically do not restrict diffusion on MRI, which can help differentiate them from other types of lesions.
50
What can small cortical tumors be without IV contrast?
Occult ## Footnote Small cortical tumors may not be clearly visible on imaging without the use of intravenous contrast, leading to challenges in diagnosis.
51
Which tumors can enhance and are considered low grade?
JPA and Ganglioglioma ## Footnote Juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma (JPA) and gangliogliomas are both low-grade tumors that can show enhancement on imaging studies.
52
What is the most common type of fracture?
Nasal bone ## Footnote Nasal bone fractures are frequently seen in trauma cases due to the prominence and vulnerability of the nasal structure.
53
What is the Zygomaticomaxillary Complex Fracture (Tripod) pattern?
involving the zygoma, inferior orbit, and lateral orbit ## Footnote This type of fracture is often associated with facial trauma.
54
What can mimic SAH?
Supplemental oxygen or propofol FLAIR signal, not enhancement
55
Where is the typical location for hypertensive hemorrhage? What about amyloid angiopathy?
Basal ganglia (PUTAMEN) thalami, cerebellum, pons Lobar or cortical parenchymal white matter
56
What does restricted diffusion without bright signal on FLAIR suggest in stroke imaging
Hyperacute (< 6 hours) stroke ## Footnote This imaging finding is critical for early stroke diagnosis.
57
What is the Rule of 3s in stroke enhancement?
Starts at day 3, peaks at 3 weeks, gone at 3 months ## Footnote This timeline is used to evaluate the progression of stroke imaging findings.
58
What is the most common systemic vasculitis to involve the CNS?
PAN (Polyarteritis Nodosa) ## Footnote PAN can lead to significant neurological complications.
59
What is the most common type of craniosynostosis?
Scaphocephaly ## Footnote This condition is characterized by a long, narrow head shape.
60
What condition is associated with hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis issues?
Piriform aperture stenosis ## Footnote This condition can affect craniofacial development and endocrine function.
61
What is the most common primary petrous apex lesion?
Cholesterol Granuloma ## Footnote This lesion can cause various neurological symptoms depending on its size and location.
62
What syndrome is characterized by absence of the bony modiolus in 90% of cases?
Large vestibular aqueduct syndrome ## Footnote This condition can lead to hearing loss and balance issues.
63
What type of scan will be positive for esthesioneuroblastoma?
Octreotide scan ## Footnote Esthesioneuroblastoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor of the nasal cavity.
64
What is the main vascular supply to the posterior nose?
Sphenopalatine artery ## Footnote This artery is a terminal branch of the internal maxillary artery.
65
What type of tumors take up pertechnetate?
Warthins tumors ## Footnote These benign tumors are typically found in the salivary glands.
66
What condition is associated with salivary gland lymphoma?
Sjogren's syndrome ## Footnote Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that can lead to lymphoproliferative complications, including lymphoma.
67
What is the most common intra-ocular lesion in an adult?
Melanoma ## Footnote Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur in the eye, presenting as an intra-ocular lesion.
68
How long after spine surgery is enhancement of nerve roots considered normal?
6 weeks ## Footnote Enhancement beyond 6 weeks may indicate complications such as arachnoiditis.
69
What is the most important factor for outcome in a traumatic cord injury?
Hemorrhage in the cord ## Footnote Hemorrhage can lead to increased pressure and damage to spinal cord tissue, affecting recovery.
70
What are the components of Currarino Triad?
* Anterior Sacral Meningocele * Anorectal malformation * Sarcococcygeal osseous defect ## Footnote Currarino Triad is a congenital condition associated with spinal and anorectal anomalies.
71
Which type of spinal arteriovenous fistula (AVF) is more common?
Type 1 Spinal AVF (dural AVF) ## Footnote Dural AVFs are more prevalent compared to other types of spinal AVFs.
72
What brain structure does herpes spare?
Basal ganglia ## Footnote In contrast, middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarcts typically do not spare the basal ganglia.
73
What is the most common malignant tumor of the lacrimal gland?
Adenoid cystic adenocarcinoma ## Footnote This tumor type is known for its aggressive nature and tendency to invade surrounding tissues.
74
What is the first sign of a SNAC or SLAC wrist?
Arthritis at the radioscaphoid compartment ## Footnote SNAC (Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse) and SLAC (Scapholunate Advanced Collapse) wrists are characterized by degenerative changes in the wrist.
75
What deformity is associated with SLAC wrist?
DISI deformity ## Footnote DISI stands for Dorsal Intercalated Segmental Instability, often seen in SLAC wrist conditions.
76
What causes the dorsolateral dislocation in the Bennett fracture?
Pull of the Abductor pollicis longus tendon fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, rolando is comminuted
77
What condition has an association with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Dialysis ## Footnote Patients on dialysis may experience increased risk of carpal tunnel syndrome due to fluid retention and other factors.
78
What is the total equivalent organ dose per year?
50 rem ## Footnote Includes skin as an organ
79
What is the total equivalent extremity dose per year?
50 rem (500 mSv) ## Footnote Equivalent dose for extremities
80
What is the total dose to an embryo/fetus over the entire 9 months?
0.5 rem
81
What does the NRC allow for Mo per 1 mili Ci of Te?
No more than 0.15 micro Ci ## Footnote Regulatory limit during administration
82
How is chemical purity (Al in Tc) assessed?
With pH paper
83
What is the allowable amount of Al?
< 10 micrograms
84
How is radiochemical purity (looking for Free Tc) determined?
With thin layer chromatography
85
What causes Free Te to occur?
Lack of stannous ions or accidental air injection ## Footnote Air injection oxidizes the compound
86
Are prostate cancer bone metastases common with a PSA less than 10 mg/ml?
Uncommon
87
When does the Flair Phenomenon occur after therapy?
2 weeks - 3 months, increased FDG uptake Delay post treatment pet scan for 2-4 months
88
Which imaging method is superior for lytic metastases?
Skeletal Survey
89
What is the temperature characteristic of AVN in early and late stages?
COLD ## Footnote Middle stage (repairing) is HOT
90
What is the particle size range for a VQ scan?
10-100 micrometers
91
What is done first during a VQ scan?
Xenon
92
What is Amiodarone?
A classic thyroid uptake blocker
93
What condition increases the risk for lymphoma?
Hashimoto's disease
94
What does a hot nodule on Tc require to be considered benign?
Should also be hot on Il23 ## Footnote discordant nodule is when hot on T99 but cold on I123 Cold on I123 is suspicious
95
What makes I-131 treatment more difficult?
History of methimazole treatment
96
What is a side effect of Methimazole?
Neutropenia
97
What is the blocker of choice in pregnancy?
PTU
98
What factors does Sestamibi in the parathyroid depend on?
Blood flow and mitochondrial density
99
When should PET imaging be performed following therapy?
2-3 weeks for chemotherapy, 8-12 weeks for radiation ## Footnote This avoids 'stunning' and false positives
100
What is the most commonly used agent for somatostatin receptor imaging?
11 In Pentetreotide
101
What is a classic use of 11 In Pentetreotide?
Carcinoid tumors
102
What type of tumors take up octreotide?
Meningiomas
103
What types of cells does 111 bind to?
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, RBCs, and platelets ## Footnote 111 is a radiopharmaceutical used in various imaging studies
104
What does Tc99m HMPAO specifically bind to?
Neutrophils ## Footnote Tc99m HMPAO is used in brain perfusion imaging
105
For how long may WBCs accumulate at post op surgical sites?
2-3 weeks ## Footnote This accumulation is part of the normal healing process
106
What is Lugols iodine/SSKI/perchlorate used for
done to block the thyroid prior to MIBG administration This is to prevent radioactive uptake by the thyroid
107
What is the typical agent used in Scrotal Scintigraphy?
Tc-99m Pertechnetate ## Footnote This agent serves both as a flow and a pool agent
108
What can left bundle branch block cause in imaging?
A false positive defect in the ventricular septum ## Footnote This defect typically spares the apex
109
What does pulmonary uptake of Thallium indicate?
LV dysfunction ## Footnote This is used as a diagnostic tool in cardiac imaging
110
What is the mechanism of MIBG?
Analog of Norepinephrine - actively transported and stored in neurosecretory granules ## Footnote MIBG is used in imaging neuroendocrine tumors
111
What type of analog is MDP and how does it work?
Phosphate analog - works via Chemisorption ## Footnote MDP is used in bone scans
112
How does Sulfur Colloid work?
Particles are phagocytized by RES ## Footnote This mechanism is used in liver and spleen imaging
113
What is the order of tumor prevalence in NF2 according to the mnemonic MSME?
Schwannoma > Meningioma > Ependymoma ## Footnote This mnemonic helps remember the most common tumors associated with NF2
114
What is the etiology of Sturge Weber?
Maldeveloped draining veins ## Footnote Sturge Weber is a neurocutaneous syndrome
115
Which phakomatosis conditions are autosomal dominant?
NF 1, NF 2, TS, and VHL Sturge Weber is not ## Footnote Family screening is recommended for these conditions
116
What is the most common primary brain tumor in adults?
Astrocytoma ## Footnote Astrocytomas can vary in grade and prognosis
117
What does 'Calcifies 90% of the time' refer to?
Oligodendroglioma ## Footnote This characteristic helps in the diagnosis of this tumor type
118
What should be considered when there is restricted diffusion in the ventricle?
Choroid Plexus Xanthogranuloma ## Footnote This is a benign normal variant, not a brain tumor
119
What does a T1-weighted MRI showing 'Big and Bright' indicate in the pituitary?
Pituitary Apoplexy/Sheehan syndrome ## Footnote This condition is an emergency and requires prompt evaluation
120
What does a T1 bright signal in the pituitary indicate?
Posterior part due to storage of Vasopressin and other proteins ## Footnote This is part of normal pituitary anatomy
121
What should never be injected through a Swan Ganz catheter for a thoracic angiogram?
Contrast
122
At what size do you treat pulmonary AVMs? Why
3mm Can result in stroke due to right to left shunt
123
Is active extravasation typically seen with hemoptysis during an active bleed?
No
124
How long should gonadotropin-releasing medications be stopped before a UAE case?
3 months
125
What is the general rule for transgluteal access to avoid injury?
Access through the sacrospinous ligament medially
126
When should an abscess catheter be pulled?
When the patient is better and output is < 20 cc over 24 hours
127
How long do you have to wait to re-biopsy after a non-diagnostic thyroid biopsy?
3 months
128
What is the recommended approach for percutaneous nephrostomy?
Posterior lateral approach For brodels avascular zone
129
What is the typical ACT range for pulling a sheath?
< 150-180
130
What condition makes compression on ABI difficult due to artery calcifications?
Diabetes
131
Which type of endoleak is the most common?
Type 2
132
Which types of endoleaks are considered high pressure and need immediate fixing?
Type 1 and Type 3
133
How can venous rupture during a fistula intervention be treated?
Prolonged angioplasty
134
What does phlegmasia alba indicate?
Massive DVT without ischemia Collateral veins
135
What does phlegmasia cerulea dolens indicate?
Massive DVT with complete thrombosis of the deep venous system and collaterals
136
Who is more likely to develop Venous Thromboembolism?
Paraplegic patients
137
What is the position of the anterior and posterior circum-aortic left renal vein?
Anterior is superior, posterior is inferior
138
What is the risk of DVT with IVC filters?
Increased risk
139
What should be done if there is > 1cm3 of clot in an ivc filter?
Filter stays in
140
What is needed for acute Budd Chiari with fulminant liver failure?
TIPS
141
What technique is used for a pseudoaneurysm of the pancreaticoduodenal artery?
Sandwich technique
142
What is the first line treatment for Median Arcuate Ligament Syndrome?
Surgical release of the ligament
143
massive hemoptysis=
Bronchial artery bleed Use particles not coils bc risk of rebleed
144
What is the treatment for acalculous cholecystitis?
Percutaneous cholecystostomy
145
What are the two options for managing hepatic encephalopathy after TIPS?
1) Place a new covered stent with a loop of suture, 2) Place two new stents parallel
146
What is the treatment for recurrent variceal bleeding after placement of a constricted stent?
Balloon dilation of the constricted stent
147
When should a drain be placed for an appendiceal abscess?
For a mature (walled off) abscess
148
What should you do if there is inadvertent catheterization of the colon?
Wait 4 weeks for the tract to mature
149
What is the treatment for DVT with severe symptoms and no response to systemic anticoagulation?
Catheter Directed Thrombolysis
150
What is the maximum dose Geiger Mueller can handle?
100 mR/h
151
What activity level of Tc-99m is considered a major spill?
> 100 mCi
152
What activity level of TI-201 is considered a major spill?
> 100 mCi
153
What activity level of In-111 represents a major spill?
> 10 mCi
154
What activity level of Ga-67 is considered a major spill?
> 10 mCi
155
What activity level of I-131 is considered a major spill?
> 1 mCi
156
What is the annual dose limit to the public?
100 mrem
157
What is the maximum dose in an unrestricted area?
Not greater than 2 mrem per hour
158
What is the total body dose limit per year?
5 rem
159
Where does the Axillary Artery begin?
At the first rib
160
What does the Brachial Artery bifurcate into?
* Ulnar artery * Radial artery
161
From where does the Intraosseous Branch typically arise?
From the ulnar artery
162
What is the source of the Superficial Arch and Deep Arch?
* Superficial Arch = From the Ulna * Deep Arch = From the Radius
163
What is the 'coronary vein' referred to?
The left gastric vein
164
What condition is associated with enlarged splenorenal shunts?
Hepatic encephalopathy
165
What are Aortic Dissection and intramural hematoma primarily caused by?
Hypertension (HTN) in 70% of cases
166
What causes a Penetrating Ulcer?
Atherosclerosis
167
What is the strongest predictor of progression of dissection in intramural hematoma?
Maximum aortic diameter > 5cm
168
What are the components of the Leriche Syndrome Triad?
* Claudication * Absent/Decreased femoral pulses * Impotence Complete occlusion of aorta distal to renal arteries
169
What is the most common associated defect with aortic coarctation?
Bicuspid aorta (80%)
170
What is the most common subtype of thoracic outlet syndrome?
Neurogenic compression
171
In which condition is a splenic artery aneurysm more common?
Pregnancy
172
What increases the likelihood of splenic artery aneurysm rupture?
Pregnancy
173
When is Median Arcuate Compression worse? What does it affect
Worsens with expiration Celiac artery
174
Colonic Angiodysplasia is associated with which condition?
Aortic stenosis
175
What percentage of popliteal aneurysms are bilateral?
50-70%
176
What is the relationship between popliteal aneurysms and abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)?
* 30-50% have AAA * 10% of patients with AAA have popliteal aneurysm
177
What causes popliteal entrapment?
medial deviation of the popliteal artery secondary to medial head of the gastrocnemius
178
What type of Takayasu is most common?
Type 3 (arch + abdominal aorta)
179
What is the most common vasculitis in children?
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
180
What does Tardus Parvus infer?
Stenosis proximal to that vessel
181
What does an ICA Peak Systolic Velocity < 125 indicate?
No Significant Stenosis or < 50%
182
What ICA Peak Systolic Velocity range indicates 'Moderate' stenosis?
125-230 (50-69% Stenosis)
183
What ICA Peak Systolic Velocity indicates 'Severe' stenosis?
> 230 (>70% Stenosis)
184
What size guidewire can an 18G needle accept?
0.038 inch
185
What size guidewire can a 19G needle allow?
0.035 inch
186
What is the equivalent of 3 French in millimeters?
1 mm
187
What does French size refer to?
The OUTSIDE of a catheter and the INSIDE of a sheath
188
What type of catheters allow hand injection only?
End Hole Only Catheters Also for embolization
189
What does a Side Hole + End Hole catheter allow? What doesn’t it allow
Power Injection OK, Coils and embolization are NOT ok
190
What is the Double Flush Technique used for?
Neuro IR — no bubbles ever
191
What defines a 'Significant lesion'?
A systolic pressure gradient > 10 mm Hg at rest
192
What should you avoid sticking a drain in?
* Tumors * Acute Hematoma * Acute bowel rupture and peritonitis
193
When is renal artery stenting for renal failure not effective?
If the creatinine (Cr) is > 3
194
What is a persistent sciatic artery prone to? What does it arise from
Aneurysm Internal iliac artery and continues to popliteal artery
195
How long should a cholecystostomy tube be left in and why?
2-6 weeks until the tract matures to prevent bile leak
196
What MELD score indicates a risk of early death with TIPS?
Greater than 24
197
What is the target gradient post TIPS for esophageal bleeding?
Less than 12
198
What is an absolute contraindication for TIPS?
Severe Heart Failure (elevated right heart pressure)
199
What is the most common side effect of BRTO?
Gross hematuria
200
What is the sensitivity of a tagged RBC Scan? Compared to other studies
0.1 mL/min Angiography is 1 mL/min CTA is 4 mL/min
201
What is the sensitivity of Angiography?
1.0 mL/min
202
What should be done after embolization of the GDA for a duodenal ulcer?
Run of the SMA to look at the inferior pancreaticoduodenal
203
What is the most common cause of lower GI bleed?
Diverticulosis NOT diverticulitis
204
What is TACE's effect compared to systemic chemotherapy?
Prolongs survival better
205
What is a contraindication for TACE?
Portal Vein Thrombosis (sometimes)
206
Where should you aim for for Thoracentesis?
Above the rib
207
What is required for a Left Bundle Branch Block before a Thoracic Angiogram?
A pacer
208
What does RCA give off?
Acute marginals
209
What does LCX give off?
Obtuse marginals
210
What perfuses the sa and av nodes
Typically the RCA
211
How is dominance of coronary arteries decided?
By which vessel gives off the posterior descending artery; right dominance is 85%
212
When would you repair the coronary artery arising from the contralateral coronary cusp
Always repair LCA from right RCA from left cusp is only repaired if symptomatic
213
When is RCA repaired?
If symptoms present when it arises from the Left Coronary Cusp
214
Where is the most common location of myocardial bridging?
Mid portion of the LAD
215
What is the most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in adults?
Atherosclerosis
216
What is the most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in children?
Kawasaki disease
217
Where does the left-sided SVC empty?
Into the coronary sinus
218
What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?
Rheumatic heart disease
219
What is the most common cause of tricuspid atresia?
Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension
220
What is the most common vascular ring?
Double aortic arch
221
What is the most common congenital heart disease?
Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
222
What is the most common type of Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?
Secundum
223
What is classically shown with pulmonary edema in a newborn?
Infracardiac TAPVR
224
What type of transposition is congenitally corrected?
'L' Transposition
225
What type of transposition is considered doomed?
'D' Transposition
226
What is truncus arteriosus associated with?
CATCH-22 (DiGeorge syndrome)
227
What does rib notching from coarctation spare?
1st and 2nd ribs
228
What percentage of infarct involvement is unlikely to recover function?
> 50%
229
Is microvascular obstruction seen in chronic infarct?
No
230
What is the most common cause of restricted cardiomyopathy?
Amyloid
231
In which condition can primary amyloid be seen?
Multiple myeloma
232
What is the most common neoplasm to involve cardiac valves?
Fibroelastoma
233
What is the most common congenital absence of the pericardium?
Partial absence involving the pericardium over the left atrium and adjacent pulmonary artery
234
What is the Glenn shunt?
SVC to pulmonary artery (vein to artery) Bypass right heart
235
What is the Blalock-Taussig Shunt?
Subclavian artery to pulmonary artery (artery-artery) To increase pulmonary blood flow)
236
What does the Ross Procedure involve?
Replaces aortic valve with pulmonic, and pulmonic with a graft
237
What is a common issue with Cardiac MRI?
Aliasing
238
How can aliasing in Cardiac MRI be fixed?
By: * Opening the FOV * Oversampling the frequency encoding direction * Switching phase and frequency encoding directions
239
What is the size threshold for giant coronary artery aneurysms?
> 8mm
240
What can Wet Beriberi cause?
Dilated cardiomyopathy
241
What is the most common primary cardiac tumor in children?
Rhabdomyoma
242
What is the 2nd most common primary cardiac tumor in children?
Fibroma
243
What is the most common complication of myocardial infarction?
Myocardial remodeling
244
What is unroofed coronary sinus associated with?
Persistent left SVC
245
What is the most common source of cardiac metastasis?
Lung cancer (lymphoma is #2)
246
A-Fib is most commonly associated with which condition?
Left atrial enlargement
247
What is the most common cause of tricuspid insufficiency?
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy (RVH)
248
Where does the artery of Adamkiewicz come off?
Hairpin turn Left side (70%) between T9 - T12
249
What is the Arch of Rolan?
Middle colic branch of the SMA with the left colic of the IMA
250
What is the most common hepatic vascular variant?
Right hepatic artery replaced off the SMA
251
Where is the proper right hepatic artery in relation to the right portal vein?
Anterior to the right portal vein
252
Where is the replaced right hepatic artery in relation to the main portal vein?
Posterior to the main portal vein Normally anterior to portal vein
253
What is the most common hepatic venous variant?
Accessory right inferior hepatic vein
254
What is the first branch off the popliteal artery?
Anterior tibialis
255
At what level does the Common Femoral Artery (CFA) begin?
At the level of the inguinal ligament
256
When does the Superficial Femoral Artery (SFA) begin?
Once the CFA gives off the profunda femoris
257
When does the Popliteal Artery begin?
As the SFA exits the adductor canal
258
What does the Popliteal Artery terminate as?
Anterior tibial artery and tibioperoneal trunk
259
What are the layers of pleura in the Azygos Lobe?
4 layers of pleura
260
What is the most common pulmonary vein variant?
A separate vein draining the right middle lobe
261
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients?
Strep Pneumonia
262
What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
PCP
263
In which type of patient is Aspergilloma seen?
Normal immune patient
264
In which type of patient is Invasive Aspergillus seen?
Immune compromised patient
265
What is the minimum size thickness for Lung Cancer Screening CTs?
2.5mm (1.5mm or thinner is preferred)
266
What does AIDS + Bilateral Ground Glass Opacities + Thin Walled Cysts + Pneumothorax indicate?
PCP
267
Can Prevascular Lymph nodes be easily reached by mediastinoscopy?
No
268
Do Fleischner Society Recommendations apply to patients with known cancers?
No
269
What is the most common location for an echinococcal cyst?
Liver
270
What is the second most common site of involvement for echinococcus?
Lung
271
What pattern of calcifications in a solitary pulmonary nodule is considered most suspicious?
Eccentric calcifications
272
What is the most suspicious morphology for a pulmonary nodule?
A part solid nodule with a ground glass component
273
What is the most common early presentation of lung cancer?
Solitary nodule (right upper lobe)
274
In lung fibrosis patients, where is lung cancer more commonly found?
Lower lobe
275
What makes Stage 3B lung cancer unresectable?
Contralateral nodal involvement; ipsilateral or contralateral scalene or supraclavicular nodal involvement, tumor in different lobes
276
What is the most common cause of unilateral lymphangitic carcinomatosis?
Bronchogenic carcinoma lung cancer invading the lymphatics
277
What is the latency period between initial exposure and development of lung cancer or pleural mesothelioma?
20 years
278
What is the earliest and most common finding with asbestosis exposure?
Pleural effusion
279
How much does silicosis raise the risk of TB?
About 3 fold
280
281
What is the first finding of UIP on CXR?
Reticular pattern in the posterior costophrenic angle
282
What is the most common recurrent primary disease after lung transplant?
Sarcoidosis
283
What does pleural plaque of asbestosis typically spare?
Costophrenic angles
284
What is the most common manifestation of metastasis to the pleura?
Pleural effusion
285
What is associated with mature teratomas?
Klinefelter Syndrome
286
Injury close to the carina causes what?
Pneumomediastinum Not pneumothorax
287
How does Hodgkin Lymphoma spread?
Contiguous fashion from the mediastinum, most often unilateral
288
How does Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma typically present?
Bilateral with associated abdominal lymphadenopathy
289
What imaging modality is superior for assessing superior sulcus tumors?
MRI
290
What is the most common benign esophageal tumor?
Leiomyoma
291
What syndrome may be associated with Esophageal Leiomyomatosis?
Alport's Syndrome
292
How must bronchial/tracheal injury be evaluated?
With bronchoscopy
293
If you say COP, what else should you say?
Eosinophilic Pneumonia
294
If you say BAC, what else should you say?
Lymphoma
295
Where is Bronchial Atresia classically found?
LUL
296
What must pericardial cysts be?
Simple
297
What type of cysts don't have to be simple?
Bronchogenic cysts
298
What percentage of patients with PAP get better post-treatment?
1/3
299
What is the later presentation of Dysphagia Lusoria associated with?
Atherosclerosis development
300
How does carcinoid appear on PET?
COLD
301
What is Wegener's now called?
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
302
What defines the right atrium?
IVC
303
What defines the right ventricle?
Moderator band
304
Where do tricuspid papillary muscles insert?
On the septum
305
What can Lipomatous Hypertrophy of the Intra-Atrial Septum be?
PET Avid
306
What does the LAD give off?
Diagonals
307
What is the management approach for intraperitoneal bladder rupture?
Managed surgically ## Footnote Intraperitoneal bladder rupture is a less common condition.
308
Are uric acid stones visible on plain film?
No, they are not seen on plain film ## Footnote Uric acid stones require different imaging techniques for visualization.
309
Which type of stones are not seen on CT?
Indinavir (HIV medication) stones ## Footnote These stones are unique among renal calculi.
310
What is the risk associated with endometrial tissue in a rudimentary horn?
Increases the risk of miscarriage ## Footnote This holds true even if the horn does not communicate.
311
Does an arcuate uterus increase the risk of infertility?
No, it does not have an increased risk ## Footnote An arcuate uterus is considered a normal variant.
312
Which type of fibroids respond better to UAE?
Fibroids with higher T2 signal ## Footnote T2 signal intensity is an important factor in treatment response.
313
Where does adenomyosis typically favor in the uterus?
Favors the posterior wall, spares the cervix ## Footnote Adenomyosis involves the endometrial tissue invading the uterine muscle.
314
What is the increased risk of endometrial cancer for patients with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)?
30-50x increased risk ## Footnote HNPCC is also known as Lynch syndrome.
315
What effect does Tamoxifen have on endometrial cancer?
Increases the risk of endometrial cancer and endometrial polyps ## Footnote Tamoxifen is a medication used in breast cancer treatment.
316
How is cervical cancer with parametrial involvement (2B) treated?
Treated with chemo/radiation ## Footnote In contrast, cervical cancer without parametrial involvement (2A) is treated surgically.
317
What type of cancer is usually found in the vagina of adults?
Squamous cell carcinoma ## Footnote This is the most common form of vaginal cancer in adults.
318
First line treatment for angiomyolipomas?
Catheter embolization Typically >4cm
319
What is the PET scan appearance of premenopausal ovaries?
Can be hot, depending on the phase of the cycle ## Footnote Postmenopausal ovaries should never be hot on PET.
320
What transformation subtype is associated with an endometrioma?
Clear Cell ## Footnote This is a specific type of ovarian tumor.
321
What is the most common cause of postpartum fever?
Ovarian vein thrombophlebitis ## Footnote This condition can occur after childbirth.
322
What is the next step after seeing an endometrioma on MRI?
Look for more endometriomas in the deep pelvis and along the c-section scar ## Footnote This helps in assessing the extent of the condition.
323
What is the most common gynecological malignancy in the United States?
Endometrial carcinoma ## Footnote This type of cancer is prevalent among women.
324
What occurs in a fractured penis?
Rupture of the corpus cavernosum and the surrounding tunica albuginea ## Footnote This injury is typically due to trauma.
325
Where is prostate cancer most commonly located?
Peripheral zone ## Footnote It is usually dark on ADC imaging.
326
In which zone are BPH nodules found?
Central zone ## Footnote Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men.
327
What is the most common association with prostatic utricle?
Hypospadias ## Footnote This condition affects the urethral opening.
328
What conditions are associated with seminal vesicle cysts?
Renal agenesis and ectopic ureters ## Footnote These are developmental abnormalities.
329
What does cryptorchidism increase the risk of?
Cancer in both testicles ## Footnote The risk is not reduced by orchiopexy.
330
What type of lymphoma can immunosuppressed patients develop?
Testicular lymphoma ## Footnote This occurs due to the hiding behind the blood-testis barrier.
331
What is the most common correctable cause of infertility in men?
Varicocele ## Footnote Dilation of the pampiniform plexus
332
What is the prevalence of undescended testicles in premature children?
More common ## Footnote This condition is known as cryptorchidism.
333
What is the risk associated with membranes disrupted before 10 weeks of pregnancy?
Increased risk for amniotic bands ## Footnote This can lead to complications in fetal development.
334
What is the earliest visualization of the embryo called?
Double bleb sign ## Footnote This sign indicates early embryonic development.
335
What is the risk of abortion with a hematoma greater than 2/3 the circumference of the chorion?
2x increased risk ## Footnote Hematomas can complicate pregnancy.
336
How is biparietal diameter measured?
At the level of the thalamus from the outermost edge of the near skull to the inner table of the far skull ## Footnote This measurement is crucial in fetal assessment.
337
What does abdominal circumference measurement not include?
Subcutaneous soft tissues ## Footnote This measurement is specifically taken for fetal growth assessment.
338
At what level is abdominal circumference recorded?
At the level of the junction of the umbilical vein and left portal vein ## Footnote This is important for accurate fetal measurements.
339
What parameter is classically involved with asymmetric lUGR?
Abdominal Circumference ## Footnote Asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction (lUGR) indicates different growth patterns.
340
Does femur length measurement include the epiphysis?
No, it does not include the epiphysis ## Footnote This measurement focuses on the diaphysis.
341
What should the Umbilical Artery Systolic/Diastolic Ratio not exceed at 34 weeks?
3 ## Footnote Exceeding this ratio raises suspicion for preeclampsia and IUGR.
342
What can a full bladder mimic?
A placenta previa ## Footnote This can lead to misdiagnosis in imaging.
343
When is nuchal lucency measured?
Between 9-12 weeks It should be < 3 mm; more than 3 mm associated with Down syndrome.
344
When does the lemon sign disappear?
After 24 weeks ## Footnote This sign is related to fetal head shape changes.
345
What is the most common cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus in a neonate?
Aqueductal Stenosis ## Footnote This condition affects the flow of cerebrospinal fluid.
346
Which valve is the most anterior in the heart?
Tricuspid valve ## Footnote This valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle.
347
Which valve is the most superior in the heart?
Pulmonic valve ## Footnote This valve is located between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
348
How many lung segments are there on the right side?
10 lung segments ## Footnote The left lung has fewer segments due to the cardiac notch.
349
If it goes above the clavicles, where is it located?
In the posterior mediastinum ## Footnote This is known as the cervicothoracic sign.
350
What is the next step after finding diverticulosis with nodes?
Endoscopy ## Footnote This step is taken to evaluate the potential for cancer.
351
What does a Krukenberg Tumor indicate?
Stomach (GI) metastasis to the ovary ## Footnote This type of tumor often signifies advanced disease.
352
What part of the stomach is involved in Menetrier's disease?
Fundus ## Footnote The antrum is spared in this condition.
353
Where is the most common location for sarcoidosis in the GI tract?
Stomach ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can affect various organs, but the stomach is notably common.
354
What is the increased cancer risk associated with gastric remnants after Billroth procedure?
Years after Billroth ## Footnote Patients with gastric remnants face a heightened risk of gastric cancer.
355
What is the most common internal hernia?
Left sided paraduodenal hernia ## Footnote This type of hernia is frequently encountered in clinical practice.
356
What is the most common site of peritoneal carcinomatosis?
Retrovesical space ## Footnote This area is often involved in peritoneal metastases.
357
What can an injury to the bare area of the liver cause?
Retroperitoneal bleed ## Footnote This area is particularly vulnerable to trauma.
358
Which condition is Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis associated with?
Ulcerative Colitis ## Footnote This association is clinically significant for patient management.
359
What are the extrahepatic ducts like in Primary Biliary Cirrhosis?
Normal ## Footnote This distinguishes it from other liver conditions.
360
What antibodies are positive in primary biliary cirrhosis?
Anti-mitochondrial Antibodies ## Footnote This serological marker is crucial for diagnosis.
361
What is Mirizzi Syndrome?
Gallstone impacted in the cystic duct obstructing/compressing the CBD/CHD ## Footnote This syndrome can lead to complications such as cholangitis.
362
What is the increased risk of cancer associated with Mirizzi Syndrome?
5x increased risk of GB cancer ## Footnote Gallbladder cancer risk is notably elevated in these patients.
363
What is the most common cause of a benign bile duct stricture?
Iatrogenic trauma during a lap cholecystectomy ## Footnote This complication is important to consider during surgical planning.
364
What is the most common treatment for a benign bile duct stricture caused by iatrogenic trauma?
Endoscopic dilation ## Footnote This minimally invasive approach is often first-line.
365
What is dorsal pancreatic agenesis associated with?
Diabetes and polysplenia
366
What is the characteristic of hereditary and tropical pancreatitis?
Early age of onset, increased risk of cancer ## Footnote Recognizing these conditions can aid in early intervention.
367
What are the components of Felty's Syndrome?
Big spleen, RA, and neutropenia ## Footnote This triad is key for diagnosis.
368
What is notable about Splenic Artery Aneurysm in pregnant women?
Saccular and more likely to rupture ## Footnote This risk necessitates careful monitoring during pregnancy.
369
What is the most common islet cell tumor?
Insulinoma ## Footnote This tumor is characterized by hyperinsulinemia.
370
What is the most common islet cell tumor associated with MEN?
Gastrinoma ## Footnote This type of tumor is often part of multiple endocrine neoplasia syndromes.
371
On T2 MRI, how should a normal liver's signal compare to muscle?
Higher than muscle ## Footnote This finding is important for liver imaging interpretation.
372
What is a classic cause of fatty liver?
Chemotherapy ## Footnote This side effect is significant for patients undergoing cancer treatment.
373
In adults, what is the most common cause of persistent small bowel intussusception?
Mucosal mass ## Footnote This requires further evaluation to determine the underlying cause.
374
In children, what is the most common cause of persistent small bowel intussusception?
Lymph node hypertrophy ## Footnote This is often due to a prior viral infection.
375
How does Ulcerative Colitis affect colon cancer risk?
Increased risk if it involves colon past the splenic flexure ## Footnote UC limited to the rectum does not elevate cancer risk.
376
What is associated with improved survival in renal cancer?
Calcifications ## Footnote This finding can influence prognosis.
377
What is the characteristic of RCC bone metastases?
Always lytic ## Footnote This pattern is critical for imaging diagnosis.
378
What is the risk of malignancy associated with dialysis?
Increased risk ## Footnote Patients on dialysis require vigilant cancer screening.
379
What is a risk factor for trauma in horseshoe kidneys?
More susceptible to trauma ## Footnote This anatomical variation can complicate management.
380
What is the most common location for transitional cell carcinoma (TCC)?
Bladder ## Footnote TCC is frequently diagnosed in this organ.
381
What is the second most common location for TCC?
Upper urinary tract ## Footnote Awareness of this helps in differential diagnosis.
382
How commonly is Upper Tract TCC multifocal compared to bladder TCC?
12% for Upper Tract, 4% for Bladder ## Footnote This difference is important for treatment considerations.
383
What happens to cysts in acquired renal cystic disease after renal transplant?
Improve after renal transplant ## Footnote However, the risk of renal cancer remains elevated.
384
What does the Weigert Meyer Rule state?
Upper Pole inserts medial and inferior -> obstruction Lower pole inserts superior and lateral -> reflux In duplicated renal system
385
What are ectopic ureters associated with in women?
Incontinence ## Footnote This condition typically does not affect men.
386
Is leukoplakia pre-malignant?
Yes ## Footnote Malakoplakia, on the other hand, is not pre-malignant.
387
What is more common, extraperitoneal bladder rupture or intraperitoneal rupture?
Extraperitoneal bladder rupture ## Footnote Management is typically medical for this type.
388
What is the management position for Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema (PIE)?
Put the bad side down ## Footnote This technique helps minimize the affected side's impact on breathing and oxygenation.
389
What is the management position for a Bronchial Foreign Body?
Put the lucency side down ## Footnote If it stays that way, it's considered positive for the presence of a foreign body.
390
What is the risk of squamous cell carcinoma associated with Papillomatosis?
2% ## Footnote This indicates a small but significant risk for malignancy in patients with this condition.
391
What is unique about Pulmonary sling?
It goes between the esophagus and the trachea and is associated with trachea stenosis ## Footnote This anatomical variant can lead to significant respiratory issues.
392
What is Thymic Rebound and when is it seen?
Seen after stress (chemotherapy) and can be PET-Avid ## Footnote This phenomenon indicates a reactive process in the thymus post-chemotherapy.
393
What is the most common mediastinal mass in children over 10 years old?
Lymphoma ## Footnote This highlights the prevalence of lymphoma in the pediatric population in the mediastinal region.
394
What does an Anterior Mediastinal Mass with Calcification indicate?
Either treated lymphoma or Thymic Lesion ## Footnote Lymphoma does not calcify unless treated, which helps in differential diagnosis.
395
What is the most common posterior mediastinal mass in children under 2?
Neuroblastoma ## Footnote This condition is more favorable when primary thoracic compared to abdominal neuroblastoma.
396
What is the age range during which Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis can occur? And what does the caterpillar sign represent
3 weeks to 3 months Stomach peristalsis ## Footnote It is not present at birth
397
What are the criteria for diagnosing Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (HPS)?
4 mm single wall and 14 mm length ## Footnote These measurements help establish the diagnosis of HPS.
398
What does Annular Pancreas present as in children and adults?
Duodenal obstruction in children and pancreatitis in adults ## Footnote This condition can lead to significant complications due to its anatomical implications.
399
What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children over 4 years old?
Appendicitis ## Footnote Appendicitis is a leading cause for surgical intervention in this age group.
400
What age range is considered normal for Intussusception?
3 months to 3 years ## Footnote Cases outside this age range often require evaluation for a lead point.
401
Where is Gastroschisis typically located? What is it associated with
Always on the right side Young maternal age
402
Omphalocele vs gastroschisis
Omphalocele: midline wall defect and umbilical insertion, membrane covering, and malformations/anomalies ## Footnote This condition often presents with cardiac anomalies, trisomies, pentalogy of cantrell, beckwidth wiedemann
403
When is Physiologic Gut Herniation considered normal?
In first trimester
404
What is the significance of elevated AFP levels?
Elevated with Hepatoblastoma And HCC
405
What is elevated in Hemangioendothelioma?
Endothelial growth factor ## Footnote This elevation indicates angiogenic activity associated with the tumor.
406
What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in children?
Trauma (seatbelt) ## Footnote This highlights the importance of safety measures in preventing pediatric injuries.
407
What does the Weigert Meyer Rule state?
Duplicated ureter on top inserts inferior and medial ## Footnote This rule helps in understanding the anatomical variations in ureteral anatomy.
408
What is the most common tumor of the fetus or infant?
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma ## Footnote Germ cell tumor of sacrum Associated with high output cardiac failure
409
What is the most common cause of idiopathic scrotal edema?
HSP (Henoch-Schönlein purpura) ## Footnote This condition often presents with a range of symptoms, including scrotal edema.
410
What is the most common cause of acute scrotal pain in ages 7-14?
Torsion of Testicular Appendages Treated with pain management
411
What is the etiology for testicular torsion?
Bell Clapper Deformity ## Footnote Failure of tunica vaginalis and testis to connect
412
What type of Salter Harris fracture is SCFE?
Type 1 ## Footnote This classification helps in understanding the nature of the fracture.
413
When does Physiologic Periostitis of the Newborn occur?
Seen around 3 months ## Footnote This condition does not occur at birth.
414
What should the Acetabular Angle be?
< 30 ## Footnote This angle is crucial for assessing hip development.
415
What should the Alpha angle be?
> 60 ## Footnote This angle helps in evaluating hip dysplasia.
416
What is the most common benign mucosal lesion of the esophagus?
Papilloma ## Footnote This condition is often benign but requires monitoring.
417
What is the risk associated with Esophageal Webs?
Increased risk for cancer and Plummer-Vinson Syndrome ## Footnote Plummer-Vinson Syndrome includes anemia and web formation.
418
What causes Dysphagia Lusoria?
Compression by a right subclavian artery ## Footnote Most patients with aberrant rights do not exhibit symptoms.
419
What is the risk associated with Achalasia?
Increased risk of squamous cell cancer (20 years later) ## Footnote This long-term risk necessitates regular follow-up.
420
What is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the GI tract?
GIST (Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor) ## Footnote This tumor type is often associated with mutations in the KIT gene.
421
Where is the most common location for GIST?
Stomach ## Footnote This highlights the prevalence of GIST in the gastric region.
422
In which condition are abscesses almost exclusively seen?
Crohn's disease ## Footnote This differentiates it from ulcerative colitis, where abscesses are less common.
423
What is the association of nodes with UC?
Common in the setting of active disease ## Footnote This indicates a higher inflammatory response during flare-ups.
424
What is the significance of nodes larger than 1 cm with Crohn's?
Indicates cancer ## Footnote This finding necessitates further investigation for malignancy.
425
Permeative lesion in the diaphysis of a child
Ewings
426
Long lesion in a long bone
Fibrous Dysplasia
427
Large amount of edema for the size of the lesion
Osteoid Osteoma
428
Cystic bone lesion, that is NOT T2 bright
Chondroblastoma
429
Lesion in the finger of a kid
Periosteal chondroma
430
Looks like NOF in the anterior tibia with anterior bowing
Osteofibrous Dysplasia
431
RA + Pneumoconiosis
Caplan Syndrome
432
RA + Big Spleen + Neutropenia
Felty Syndrome
433
Epiphyseal Overgrowth
JRA (or hemophilia)
434
Reducible subluxations of MCP and PIP
Lupus
435
Destructive mass in a bone of a leukemia patient
Chloroma
436
Extensor compartment 1
De Quervain's (New Mothers)
437
Extensor compartment 2
Intersection Syndrome (Rowers)
438
Extensor compartment 3
Drummer's Wrist
439
Extensor compartment 3, plus trauma 3 weeks ago
Delayed tendon Rupture after Non-Displaced Distal Radial Fracture
440
Extensor compartment 4
RA / Extensor Tenosynovitis
441
Extensor compartment 5
Vaughan-Jackson Syndrome - sequential rupture starting at compartment 5, (usually secondary to RA)
442
Extensor compartment 6
Snapping ECU
443
Elbow dislocation
Fracture of the medial epicondyle
444
Post reduction film after elbow dislocation
Look for the medial epicondyle (make sure it isn't displaced)
445
Shrinking breast
ILC
446
Thick Coopers ligaments
Edema (CHF)
447
Thick fuzzy coopers ligaments - with normal skin
Blur
448
Dashes but no dots
Secretory Calcifications
449
Cigar shaped calcifications
Secretory Calcifications
450
Popcorn calcifications
Degenerated fibroadenoma
451
Breast within a breast
Hamartoma
452
Fat-fluid level
Galactocele
453
Rapid growing fibroadenoma
Phyllodes
454
Swollen red breast, not responding to antibiotics
Inflammatory breast CA
455
Lines radiating to a single point
Architectural distortion
456
Architectural distortion + Calcifications
IDC and DCIS
457
Architectural distortion without Calcifications
ILC
458
Stepladder Sign
Intracapsular rupture on US
459
Linguine Sign
Intracapsular rupture on MRI
460
Residual calcs in the Lumpectomy Bed
Local recurrence
461
No calcs in the core?
Milk of calcium (requires polarized light to be seen due to birefringence)
462
CXR with clips in the axilla of a woman
History of Breast Cancer
463
CXR with clips in the axilla of a man
History of Melanoma
464
Proximal gallstone ileus
Bouveret Syndrome Eroded into duodenum or pylorus
465
Clostridium Septicum Aoritis
Occult colonic malignancy
466
Fluid-Fluid levels in the orbit
Lymphangioma
467
Orbital lesion, worse with Valsalva
Varix
468
Pulsatile Exophthalmos
NF-1 and CC Fistula
469
Sphenoid wing dysplasia
NF-1
470
Scimitar Sacrum
Currarino Triad
471
Bilateral symmetrically increased T2 signal in dorsal columns
B12 (or HIV)
472
Owl eye appearance of spinal cord
T2 signal and diffusion restriction of anterior horns spinal cord infarct typically involving anterior spinal artery
473
Enhancement of the nerve roots of the cauda equina
Guillain Barre Ascending flaccid paralysis Associated with campylobacter
474
Subligamentous spread of infection
TB
475
Posterior elbow dislocation
capitellum fracture
476
Chondroblastoma in an adult
clear cell chondrosarcoma
477
Malignant epiphyseal lesion
clear cell chondrosarcoma
478
T2 bright lesion in the sacrum
Chordoma
479
Permeative lesion in the diaphysis of a child
Ewings
480
Lytic T2 DARK lesion
Fibrosarcoma
481
Sarcomatous transformation of an infarct
MFH
482
Epiphyseal Lesion that is NOT T2 Bright
Chondroblastoma
483
Short 4th metacarpal
pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism and Turner Syndrome
484
Band like acro-osteolysis
Hajdu-Cheney
485
Fat containing tumor in the retroperitoneum
liposarcoma
486
Sarcoma in the foot
synovial sarcoma
487
Avulsion of the lesser trochanter
pathologic fracture
488
Cross over sign
pincer type Femoroacetabular Impingement
489
Segond Fracture
ACL tear
490
Reverse Segond Fracture
PCL tear
491
Arcuate Sign
fibular head avulsion or PCL tear
492
Deep Intercondylar Notch
ACL tear
493
Bilateral Patellar Tendon Ruptures
chronic steroids
494
Wide ankle mortise
show me the proximal fibula (Maisonneuve)
495
Bilateral calcaneal fractures
associated spinal compression fx ("lover's leap")
496
Dancer with lateral foot pain
avulsion of 5th MT
497
Old lady with sudden knee pain with standing
SONK
498
Looser Zones
osteomalacia or rickets (vitamin D)
499
Unilateral RA with preserved joint spaces
RSD
500
T2 bright tumor in finger
Glomus
501
Blooming in tumor in finger
Giant Cell Tumor of Tendon Sheath (PVNS)
502
Atrophy of teres minor
Quadrilateral Space syndrome Contains axillary nerve
503
Subluxation of the Biceps Tendon
Subscapularis tear
504
Too many bow ties
Discoid Meniscus
505
Celery Stalk ACL - T2
Mucoid Degeneration
506
Drumstick ACL - T1
Mucoid Degeneration
507
Acute Flat foot
Posterior Tibial Tendon Tear
508
Boomerang shaped peroneus brevis
tear - or split tear
509
Meniscoid mass in the lateral ankle
Anterolateral Impingement Syndrome
510
Scar between 3rd and 4th metatarsals
Morton's neuroma
511
Osteomyelitis in the spine
IV drug user
512
Osteomyelitis in the spine with Kyphosis
TB (Gibbus Deformity)
513
Unilateral SI joint lysis
IV Drug User
514
Psoas muscle abscess
TB
515
Rice bodies in joint
TB - sloughed synovium
516
Calcification along the periphery
myositis ossificans
517
Calcifications more dense in the center
Osteosarcoma - reverse zoning
518
Renal transplant uptake on sulfur colloid
Rejection
519
Filtered Renal Agent
DTPA (or GH)
520
Secreted Renal Agent
MAG-3
521
PET with increased muscle uptake
insulin
522
Hashimoto looks like on US
Giraffe skin and white knights (hyperechoic regenerative nodules) Increased risk of lymphoma
523
I see the skeleton on MIBG
diffuse neuroblastoma bone mets
524
Cardiac tissue taking up FDG more intense than normal myocardium
hibernating myocardium
525
made with a generator
Tc99 and Rubidium
526
cervical kyphosis
NF-1
527
lateral thoracic meningocele
NF-1
528
bilateral optic nerve gliomas
NF-1
529
bilateral vestibular schwannoma
NF-2
530
retinal hamartoma
TS
531
retinal angioma
VHL
532
brain tumor with restricted diffusion
lymphoma
533
brain tumor crossing the midline
GBM (or lymphoma)
534
Cyst and Nodule in Child
Pilocystic Astrocytoma
535
Cyst and Nodule in Adult
Hemangioblastoma
536
multiple hemangioblastoma
Von Hippel Lindau
537
Swiss cheese tumor in ventricle
central neurocytoma
538
CN3 Palsy
posterior communicating artery aneurysm
539
CN6 Palsy
increased ICP
540
Ventricles out of size to atrophy
NPH
541
Hemorrhagic putamen
Methanol
542
Decreased FDG uptake in the lateral occipital cortex
Lewy Body Dementia
543
TORCH with Periventricular Calcification
CMV
544
TORCH with hydrocephalus
Toxoplasmosis
545
TORCH with hemorrhagic infarction
HSV
546
Neonatal infection with frontal lobe atrophy
HIV
547
Rapidly progressing dementia + Rapidly progressing atrophy
CJD
548
Expanding the cortex
Oligodendroglioma
549
Tumor acquired after trauma (LP)
Epidermoid
550
The Palate Separated from the Maxilla / Floating Palate
LeFort 1
551
The Maxilla Separated from the Face
LeFort 2 Involves inferior orbital rim and floor
552
The Face Separated from the Cranium
LeFort 3 Involves zygomatic arches and lateral orbital rim
553
Airless expanded sinus
mucocele
554
DVA
cavernous malformation nearby
555
Single vascular lesion in the pons
Capillary Telangiectasia
556
Elevated NAA peak
Canavans
557
Tigroid appearance
Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
558
Endolymphatic Sac Tumor
VHL
559
T1 Bright in the petrous apex
Cholesterol Granuloma
560
Restricted diffusion in the petrous apex
Cholesteatoma
561
Lateral rectus palsy + otomastoiditis
Grandenigo Syndrome
562
Cochlear and semicircular canal enhancement
Labyrinthitis
563
Conductive hearing loss in an adult
Otosclerosis
564
Noise induced vertigo
Superior Semicircular Canal dehiscence
565
Widening of the maxillary ostium
Antrochonal Polyp
566
Inverting papilloma
squamous cell CA (10%)
567
Adenoid cystic
perineural spread
568
Left sided vocal cord paralysis
look in the AP window
569
Bilateral coloboma
CHARGE syndrome
570
Retinal Detachment + Small Eye
PHPV
571
Bilateral Small Eye
Retinopathy of Prematurity
572
Calcification in the globe of a child
Retinoblastoma
573
When I say 'HOT spleen,' you say?
WBC scan or Octreotide ## Footnote Sulfur colloid will be a warm spleen.
574
When I say 'Bone Scan with Hot Skull Sutures,' you say?
renal osteodystrophy
575
When I say 'Bone Scan with Focal Breast Uptake,' you say?
breast CA
576
When I say 'Bone Scan with Renal Cortex Activity,' you say?
hemochromatosis
577
When I say 'Bone Scan with Liver Activity,' you say?
either too much Al, Amyloid, Hepatoma, or Liver Necrosis
578
When I say 'Bone Scan with Sternal Lesion,' you say?
breast CA
579
When I say 'Bone Scan with Diffusely Decreased Bone Uptake,' you say?
(1) Free Tc, or (2) Bisphosphonate Therapy
580
When I say 'Tramline along periosteum of long bones,' you say?
lung CA
581
When I say 'Super Hot Mandible in Adult,' you say?
Fibrous Dysplasia
582
When I say 'Super Hot Mandible in Child,' you say?
Caffeys
583
When I say 'Periarticular uptake on delayed scan,' you say?
RSD
584
When I say 'Focal uptake along the lesser trochanter,' you say?
Prosthesis loosening
585
When I say 'Tracer in the brain on a VQ study,' you say?
Shunt
586
When I say 'Tracer over the liver on Ventilation with Xenon,' you say?
Fatty Liver
587
When I say 'Gallium Negative, Thallium Positive,' you say?
Kaposi
588
When I say 'High T3, High T4, low TSH, - low thyroid uptake,' you say?
de Quervains (Granulomatous thyroiditis)
589
When I say 'persistent tracer in the lateral ventricles > 24 hours,' you say?
NPH
590
When I say 'Renal uptake on sulfur colloid,' you say?
CHF
591
Great saphenous vein on the wrong side of the calf - lateral side
Marginal Vein of Servelle - which is supposedly pathognomonic for Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome ## Footnote Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome is a rare congenital condition characterized by a triad of symptoms: capillary malformations, venous malformations, and lymphatic malformations.
592
Kids with vertigo and aortitis
Cogan Syndrome ## Footnote Cogan Syndrome is characterized by interstitial keratitis and vestibulo-cochlear dysfunction, often associated with systemic vasculitis.
593
Nasal perforation + Cavitary Lung Lesions
Wegeners ## Footnote Wegener's granulomatosis, now known as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, is a type of vasculitis affecting small to medium-sized vessels, leading to respiratory and renal complications.
594
Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
Microscopic Polyangitis ## Footnote Microscopic polyangiitis is a small-vessel vasculitis that can cause rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage.
595
Smoker + Hand Angiogram
Buergers ## Footnote Buerger's disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is a condition characterized by segmental vasculitis and thrombosis, primarily affecting young male smokers.
596
Construction worker + Hand Angiogram
Hypothenar Hammer ## Footnote Hypothenar hammer syndrome occurs due to repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery, leading to hand ischemia and potentially ulceration.
597
Unilateral tardus parvus in the carotid
Stenosis of the innominate ## Footnote Tardus parvus refers to a delayed and diminished pulse wave, often indicative of significant arterial stenosis.
598
Bilateral tardus parvus in the carotids
Aortic stenosis ## Footnote Aortic stenosis can lead to decreased blood flow to the carotid arteries, resulting in bilateral tardus parvus waveforms.
599
Bilateral reversal of flow in the carotids
Aortic regurgitation ## Footnote Aortic regurgitation can cause diastolic flow reversal in the carotid arteries due to the backflow of blood from the aorta.
600
IVC greater than 28 mm
Mega Cava ## Footnote Mega cava refers to an enlarged inferior vena cava, which can be associated with various cardiovascular conditions.
601
Mega Cava
Birds Nest Filter ## Footnote A Birds Nest filter is a type of inferior vena cava filter used to prevent pulmonary embolism in patients with deep vein thrombosis.
602
Hairpin turn - during bronchial angiography
Anterior medullary (spinal cord) artery ## Footnote The anterior medullary artery supplies blood to the anterior portion of the spinal cord and can be affected during bronchial angiography.
603
Fever, WBC, Nausea, and Vomiting after Uterine Artery Embolization
Post Embolization Syndrome ## Footnote Post embolization syndrome is a common complication following uterine artery embolization, characterized by fever and abdominal pain.
604
Most medial vessel in the leg
Posterior tibial artery ## Footnote The posterior tibial artery is a major artery supplying the posterior compartment of the leg and foot.
605
The source of 85% of upper GI bleeds
Left gastric artery ## Footnote The left gastric artery is a branch of the celiac trunk and is commonly involved in upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
606
The source of bleeding from a duodenal ulcer
GDA ## Footnote The gastroduodenal artery (GDA) is often eroded by duodenal ulcers, leading to significant bleeding.
607
Pulmonary AVM
HHT Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) is a genetic disorder that can cause arteriovenous malformations in the lungs, leading to pulmonary AVMs.
608
Most feared complication of bronchial artery embolization
Spinal cord infarct ## Footnote Spinal cord infarction is a rare but serious complication of bronchial artery embolization due to blood supply disruption to the spinal cord.
609
High risk of bleeding for liver transplant
Transjugular approach ## Footnote The transjugular approach is often used for liver biopsies and transplants to minimize bleeding risk associated with the hepatic vasculature.
610
Most feared complication of brachial arterial access
Compartment syndrome ## Footnote Compartment syndrome can occur due to hematoma formation following brachial arterial access, leading to increased pressure and potential muscle necrosis.
611
Cold painful fingers during dialysis
Steal syndrome ## Footnote Steal syndrome occurs when blood flow is diverted away from the distal hand during dialysis, typically with stenosis in native artery distal to fistula
612
Ulcer on medial ankle
Venous stasis ## Footnote Venous stasis ulcers are common in areas of venous insufficiency, often seen on the medial aspect of the ankle.
613
Ulcer on dorsum of foot
Ischemia or infected ulcer ## Footnote Ischemic ulcers on the dorsum of the foot can result from peripheral artery disease or infections.
614
Ulcer on plantar surface of foot
Neutropenic ulcer ## Footnote Neutropenic ulcers can occur in patients with compromised immune systems, often seen on the plantar surface of the foot.
615
Pulsatile lower limb venous doppler
Right heart failure ## Footnote Pulsatile venous flow in the lower limbs can indicate right heart failure, leading to increased venous pressure.
616
Hot clumps of signal or diffuse pulmonary activity on sulfur colloid
Too much aluminum in the Tc ## Footnote This refers to a potential imaging artifact or misinterpretation due to the presence of aluminum in technetium-labeled compounds.
617
What is the term for persistent fluid collection after pleural drain/tube placement?
Extrapleural Hematoma ## Footnote Extrapleural hematoma can occur when blood collects in the extrapleural space, often following surgical interventions.
618
What condition is indicated by displaced extrapleural fat?
Extrapleural Hematoma ## Footnote This can be a sign of underlying hematoma formation in the extrapleural space.
619
What is suggested by a massive air leak in the setting of trauma?
bronchial or tracheal injury ## Footnote Such injuries can lead to significant respiratory complications and require immediate medical attention.
620
What does 'hot on PET - around the periphery' indicate?
pulmonary infarct ## Footnote A pulmonary infarct typically shows increased metabolic activity on PET imaging.
621
What condition is indicated by multi-lobar collapse?
sarcoid ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can lead to lung involvement with multi-lobar collapse patterns on imaging.
622
What is the classic infection associated with bronchial infection?
TB ## Footnote Tuberculosis is a well-known cause of chronic bronchial infections.
623
What does panbronchiolitis present as?
tree in bud ## Footnote This imaging finding is characteristic of panbronchiolitis, indicating small airway disease.
624
What condition is represented by bronchorrhea?
Mucinous BAC ## Footnote Bronchorrhea is often seen in mucinous bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC).
625
What does ALCAPA stand for?
Steal Syndrome ## Footnote ALCAPA (Anomalous Left Coronary Artery from Pulmonary Artery) can lead to myocardial ischemia due to steal phenomenon.
626
What is the association of spontaneous coronary artery dissection with?
fibromuscular dysplasia (Rarely intracranial)
627
What condition is indicated by supra-valvular aortic stenosis?
Williams Syndrome ## Footnote Williams syndrome is associated with congenital heart defects including supra-valvular aortic stenosis.
628
What is the association of bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation?
Turners Syndrome ## Footnote Turner syndrome often presents with various cardiovascular anomalies including these conditions.
629
What condition is indicated by isolated right upper lobe edema?
Mitral Regurgitation ## Footnote Isolated edema may suggest pulmonary venous congestion due to mitral valve disease.
630
What does peripheral pulmonary stenosis indicate?
Alagille Syndrome ## Footnote Alagille syndrome is characterized by peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis among other features.
631
What is indicated by a box-shaped heart?
Ebsteins ## Footnote Ebstein's anomaly results in a distinctive shape of the heart on imaging.
632
What does right arch with mirror branching indicate?
congenital heart ## Footnote This finding is often associated with congenital cardiac anomalies.
633
What is indicated by hand/thumb defects + ASD?
Holt Oram ## Footnote Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by upper limb defects and congenital heart defects such as atrial septal defect (ASD).
634
What is the term for ostium primum ASD (or endocardial cushion defect)?
Downs ## Footnote Down syndrome is associated with various congenital heart defects including ostium primum ASD.
635
What does right sided PAPVR suggest?
Sinus Venous ASD ## Footnote Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR) can be associated with sinus venosus defects.
636
What condition is indicated by calcification in the left atrium wall?
Rheumatic Heart Disease ## Footnote Calcifications can occur in the setting of rheumatic heart disease due to chronic inflammation.
637
What is indicated by difficult to suppress myocardium?
Amyloid ## Footnote Cardiac amyloidosis can lead to characteristic imaging findings and difficulties in suppression.
638
What condition is indicated by blood pool suppression on delayed enhancement?
Amyloid ## Footnote This imaging characteristic is often seen in cases of cardiac amyloidosis.
639
What does septal bounce indicate?
constrictive pericarditis ## Footnote Septal bounce is a classic finding in echocardiography for constrictive pericarditis.
640
What is indicated by ventricular interdependence?
constrictive pericarditis ## Footnote Ventricular interdependence is a hemodynamic phenomenon seen in conditions affecting the pericardium.
641
What condition is indicated by focal thickening of the septum - but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Sarcoid ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can lead to localized septal thickening distinct from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
642
What is indicated by ballooning of the left ventricular apex?
Tako-Tsubo ## Footnote Tako-Tsubo cardiomyopathy is characterized by this specific pattern of ventricular deformation.
643
What does fat in the wall of a dilated right ventricle suggest?
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC) ## Footnote ARVC is associated with fatty infiltration of the right ventricle and aneurysm
644
What condition is indicated by a kid with dilated heart and mid-wall enhancement?
Muscular Dystrophy ## Footnote Certain types of muscular dystrophies can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy in children.
645
What is indicated by cardiac rhabdomyoma?
Tuberous Sclerosis ## Footnote Cardiac rhabdomyomas are a common finding in patients with tuberous sclerosis.
646
What does bilateral ventricular thrombus indicate?
Eosinophilic Cardiomyopathy ## Footnote Eosinophilic conditions can lead to thrombus formation in the ventricles.
647
What is indicated by diffuse circumferential LV subendocardial enhancement?
Cardiac Amyloid not restricted to a vascular distribution
648
What is the Glenn Procedure complication?
acquired pulmonary AVMs
649
What is indicated by pulmonary vein stenosis?
Ablation for A-Fib ## Footnote Pulmonary vein stenosis can be a complication following ablation procedures for atrial fibrillation.
650
What condition is associated with multiple cardiac myxomas?
Carney's Complex ## Footnote Carney's complex is a genetic syndrome characterized by multiple myxomas and other neoplasms.
651
What is indicated by prominent ventricular trabeculation?
Noncompaction ## Footnote Noncompaction cardiomyopathy is characterized by excessive trabeculation of the myocardium.
652
What does a vessel in the fissure of the ligamentum venosum indicate?
replaced left hepatic artery ## Footnote This anatomical variant can be significant during surgical procedures involving the liver.
653
What is indicated by a vessel coursing on the pelvic brim?
Corona Mortis ## Footnote Corona mortis is an anatomical variant anastomosis between internal iliac obturator artery and external iliac
654
What condition is indicated by ascending aorta calcifications?
Syphilis and Takayasu ## Footnote These conditions can lead to vascular calcifications, particularly in the aorta.
655
What does a tulip bulb aorta suggest?
Marfans ## Footnote The characteristic appearance of the aorta in Marfan syndrome is often described as tulip bulb-shaped.
656
What is indicated by a really shitty Marfan's variant?
Loeys-Dietz ## Footnote Loeys-Dietz syndrome presents similarly to Marfan syndrome but with more severe vascular complications.
657
What does tortuous vessels indicate?
Loeys-Dietz ## Footnote Vascular tortuosity is a hallmark of Loeys-Dietz syndrome.
658
What condition is indicated by tortuosity of the ulnar artery causing a 'corkscrew' appearance?
Hypothenar Hammer ## Footnote This condition can occur due to repetitive trauma or compression affecting the ulnar artery along the hook of the hamate
659
What does renal artery stenosis with HTN in a child suggest?
NF-1 ## Footnote Neurofibromatosis type 1 can be associated with renal artery stenosis in pediatric patients.
660
What condition is indicated by a nasty looking saccular aneurysm, without intimal calcifications?
Mycotic ## Footnote Mycotic aneurysms can appear irregular and are often associated with infections.
661
What does tree bark intimal calcification indicate?
Syphilitic (Luetic) aneurysm ## Footnote This type of calcification is historically associated with syphilitic vascular disease.
662
What condition is indicated by a painful aneurysm in a smoker, sparing the posterior wall?
Inflammatory aneurysm ## Footnote Inflammatory aneurysms often present with pain and specific imaging characteristics.
663
What is indicated by a Turkish guy with pulmonary artery aneurysm?
Behcets ## Footnote Behçet's disease can lead to vascular complications including pulmonary artery aneurysms.
664
What does colonic bleed with early opacification of a dilated draining vein suggest?
Colonic Angiodysplasia ## Footnote This condition is characterized by abnormal blood vessels in the colon leading to bleeding.
665
What is indicated by spider web appearance of hepatic veins on angiogram?
Budd Chiari ## Footnote Budd-Chiari syndrome is characterized by occlusion of hepatic veins, leading to this angiographic appearance.
666
What does non-decompressible varicocele indicate?
look in the belly for badness ## Footnote Non-decompressible varicoceles can suggest underlying pathological conditions such as tumors.
667
What does right sided varicocele suggest?
look in the belly for badness ## Footnote Right-sided varicoceles may indicate inferior vena cava obstruction or other significant pathology.
668
What does swollen left leg indicate? Seen in who?
May Thurner ## Footnote May-Thurner syndrome can lead to left leg swelling due to compression and thrombosis of the left iliac vein by right iliac artery, seen in younger and middle age women
669
What is indicated by popliteal aneurysm?
look for the AAA (and the other leg) ## Footnote A popliteal aneurysm may be associated with abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA) and requires further evaluation.
670
What is the most dreaded complication of popliteal aneurysm?
distal emboli ## Footnote Distal embolization can lead to limb ischemia and is a serious concern in cases of popliteal aneurysm.
671
When I say 'mom doing cocaine,' you say _______
placenta abruption
672
When I say 'thinning of the myometrium - with turbulent doppler,' you say _______
placenta creta
673
When I say 'mass near the cord insertion, with flow pulsating at the fetal heart rate,' you say _______
placenta chorioangioma
674
When I say 'Pleural effusions, and Ascites on prenatal US,' you say _______
hydrops
675
When I say 'Complex debris filled hydrosalpinx in a women who is engaged in scandalous free spirited sexual escapades,' you say _______
Pelvic inflammatory disease / tubo-ovaritis (salpingo-oophoritis)
676
When I say 'Complex debris filled hydrosalpinx in a women who is NOT engaged in scandalous free spirited sexual escapades,' you say _______
Primary FT Carcinoma
677
When I say 'Massively enlarged bilateral kidneys,' you say _______
ARPKD
678
When I say 'Twin peak sign,' you say _______
dichorionic diamniotic
679
When I say 'obliteration of Raider's Triangle,' you say _______
aberrant right subclavian
680
When I say 'flat waist sign,' you say _______
left lower lobe collapse
681
When I say 'terrorist + mediastinal widening,' you say _______
Anthrax
682
When I say 'bulging fissure,' you say _______
Klebsiella
683
When I say 'dental procedure gone bad, now with jaw osteo and pneumonia,' you say _______
Actinomycosis
684
When I say 'culture negative pleural effusion, 3 months later with airspace opacity,' you say _______
TB
685
When I say 'hot-tub,' you say _______
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
686
When I say 'halo sign,' you say _______
Fungal Pneumonia - Invasive Aspergillus
687
When I say 'reverse halo or atoll sign,' you say _______
COP
688
When I say 'finger in glove,' you say _______
ABPA
689
When I say 'ABPA,' you say _______
Asthma
690
When I say 'septic emboli + jugular vein thrombus,' you say _______
Lemierre
691
When I say 'Lemierre,' you say _______
Fusobacterium Necrophorum
692
When I say 'Paraneoplatic syndrome with SIADH,' you say _______
Small Cell Lung CA
693
When I say 'Paraneoplatic syndrome with PTH,' you say _______
Squamous Cell CA
694
When I say 'Small Cell Lung CA + Proximal Weakness,' you say _______
Lambert Eaton
695
When I say 'cavity fills with air post pneumonectomy,' you say _______
Bronchopleural Fistula
696
When I say 'malignant bronchial tumor,' you say _______
carcinoid
697
When I say 'malignant tracheal tumor,' you say _______
Adenoid Cystic
698
When I say 'AIDS patient with lung nodules, pleural effusion, and lymphadenopathy,' you say _______
Lymphoma
699
When I say 'gallium negative,' you say _______
kaposi
700
When I say 'Thallium Negative,' you say _______
Necrosis, toxoplasma
701
When I say 'Macroscopic fat and popcorn calcifications,' you say _______
Hamartoma
702
When I say 'Bizarre shaped cysts,' you say _______
LCH
703
When I say 'Lung Cysts in a TS patient,' you say _______
LAM
704
When I say 'Panlobular Emphysema - NOT Alpha 1,' you say _______
Ritalin Lung
705
When I say 'Honeycombing,' you say _______
UIP
706
When I say 'The histology was heterogeneous,' you say _______
UIP
707
When I say 'Ground Glass with Sub pleural Sparing,' you say _______
NSIP Associated with scleroderma
708
When I say 'UIP Lungs + Parietal Pleural Thickening,' you say _______
Asbestosis
709
When I say 'Cavitation in the setting of silicosis,' you say _______
TB
710
When I say 'Air trapping seen 6 months after lung transplant,' you say _______
Chronic Rejection / Bronchiolitis Obliterans Syndrome
711
When I say 'Crazy Paving,' you say _______
PAP or COVID
712
When I say 'perivascular cysts,' you say _______
LIP
713
When I say 'History of constipation,' you say _______
Lipoid Pneumonia - inferring mineral oil use / aspiration
714
When I say 'UIP + Air trapping,' you say _______
Chronic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
715
When I say 'Dilated Esophagus + ILD,' you say _______
Scleroderma (with NSIP)
716
When I say 'Shortness of breath when sitting up,' you say _______
Hepatopulmonary syndrome
717
When I say 'Episodic hypoglycemia,' you say _______
solitary fibrous tumor of the pleura
718
When I say 'Pulmonary HTN with Normal Wedge Pressure,' you say _______
Pulmonary Veno-occlusive disease
719
When I say 'Yellow Nails,' you say _______
Edema and Chylous Pleural Effusions (Yellow Nail Syndrome)
720
What condition is associated with staghorn stone?
Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis ## Footnote Staghorn stones are large kidney stones that can fill the renal pelvis and branches of the kidney's collecting system.
721
What condition is commonly linked with Papillary Necrosis?
diabetes ## Footnote Diabetes can lead to ischemic changes and necrosis in the renal papillae.
722
What does a shrunken calcified kidney indicate?
TB (putty kidney) ## Footnote Tuberculosis can cause extensive renal damage, leading to a calcified and shrunken kidney.
723
Bilateral medullary nephrocalcinosis is associated with which condition?
Medullary Sponge Kidney ## Footnote Medullary Sponge Kidney is a congenital disorder characterized by cystic dilatation of the renal collecting tubules.
724
What is indicated by a big bright kidney with decreased renal function?
HIV ## Footnote HIV can lead to renal complications including HIV-associated nephropathy.
725
What condition is suggested by a history of lithotripsy?
Page Kidney ## Footnote Page Kidney refers to hypertension caused by a renal hematoma after lithotripsy.
726
What does the cortical rim sign indicate?
subacute renal infarct ## Footnote The cortical rim sign is a radiological sign that can indicate a subacute renal infarct.
727
What is a potential complication after a renal biopsy?
AVF ## Footnote Arteriovenous fistula can occur as a complication following renal biopsy.
728
What does reversed diastolic flow suggest?
renal vein thrombosis ## Footnote Reversed diastolic flow in renal vessels can indicate thrombosis.
729
What condition is associated with sickle cell trait?
medullary RCC ## Footnote Renal cell carcinoma can occur in patients with sickle cell trait due to renal hypoxia.
730
What is indicated by a young adult presenting with a renal mass and severe hypertension?
Juxtaglomerular Cell Tumor ## Footnote This tumor is often associated with renovascular hypertension.
731
Which condition is linked with squamous cell bladder cancer?
Schistosomiasis ## Footnote Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can lead to bladder cancer.
732
What does it mean if the entire bladder is calcified?
Schistosomiasis ## Footnote Extensive calcification of the bladder can be a result of chronic schistosomiasis.
733
What is an adenocarcinoma of the bladder associated with?
urachus ## Footnote The urachus is a remnant of the embryonic connection between the bladder and the umbilicus.
734
What does a long stricture in the urethra suggest?
Gonococcal ## Footnote Long strictures are often due to chronic infections such as gonorrhea.
735
What is indicated by a short stricture in the urethra?
Straddle Injury ## Footnote Short strictures can result from trauma, such as a straddle injury.
736
What should be investigated in a case of Unicornuate Uterus?
Look at the kidneys ## Footnote Unicornuate uterus is often associated with renal anomalies.
737
What is a T-Shaped Uterus associated with?
DES related or Vaginal Clear Cell CA ## Footnote Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure in utero is linked to T-shaped uterine malformations.
738
Marked enlargement of the uterus can indicate what condition?
Adenomyosis ## Footnote Adenomyosis results in the thickening of the uterine wall due to endometrial tissue growth.
739
What is the junctional zone thickness in Adenomyosis?
thickening of the junctional zone (> 12 mm) ## Footnote The junctional zone is the interface between the endometrium and myometrium.
740
What does a Wolffian duct remnant indicate?
Gartner Duct Cyst ## Footnote Gartner duct cysts are remnants of the Wolffian duct in females.
741
Theca Lutein Cysts are associated with which conditions?
moles and multiple gestations ## Footnote Theca lutein cysts can occur due to elevated hCG levels.
742
What condition is indicated by Theca Lutein Cysts + Pleural Effusions?
Hyperstimulation Syndrome (patient on fertility meds) ## Footnote This syndrome can result from excessive ovarian stimulation during fertility treatments.
743
What does low level internal echoes in a cyst suggest?
Endometrioma ## Footnote Endometriomas are cysts formed from endometrial tissue outside the uterus.
744
What does T2 Shortening indicate in mri pelvis
Endometrioma - Shading Sign ## Footnote The shading sign is a characteristic MRI finding in endometriomas.
745
What does a fishnet appearance suggest?
Hemorrhagic Cyst ## Footnote Hemorrhagic cysts can present with a characteristic appearance on imaging.
746
What condition is indicated by Ovarian Fibroma + Pleural Effusion?
Meigs Syndrome ## Footnote Meigs Syndrome is characterized by a triad of ovarian tumor, ascites, and hydrothorax.
747
What does a Snow Storm Uterus indicate?
Complete Mole - 1st Trimester ## Footnote A complete mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
748
What is indicated by serum B-hCG levels that rise in the 8 to 10 weeks following evacuation of molar pregnancy?
Choriocarcinoma ## Footnote Choriocarcinoma can develop after a molar pregnancy due to persistent trophoblastic disease.
749
What does a midline cystic structure near the back of the bladder in a man suggest?
Prostatic Utricle ## Footnote Prostatic utricle is a remnant of the paramesonephric ducts.
750
What does a lateral cystic structure near the back of the bladder in a man indicate?
Seminal Vesicle Cyst ## Footnote Seminal vesicle cysts are usually asymptomatic and found incidentally.
751
What condition is indicated by isolated orchitis?
mumps ## Footnote Orchitis typically progress from epidydimitis. Mumps can lead to viral orchitis, particularly in post-pubertal males.
752
What should be considered in a 20-30 year old male with enlarged retroperitoneal lymph nodes?
US his balls ## Footnote Testicular cancer should be ruled out in this demographic.
753
What does an onion skin appearance suggest?
epidermoid cyst ## Footnote Epidermoid cysts can have a characteristic appearance on imaging.
754
What does multiple hypochoic masses in the testicle indicate?
lymphoma ## Footnote Testicular lymphoma can present with multiple masses.
755
What does cystic elements and macro-calcifications in the testicle suggest?
Mixed Germ Cell Tumor ## Footnote Mixed germ cell tumors can contain various germ cell components.
756
What is indicated by homogenous and microcalcifications in the testicle?
seminoma ## Footnote Seminomas are a type of germ cell tumor with specific imaging characteristics.
757
What condition is indicated by gynecomastia + testicular tumor?
Sertoli Leydig ## Footnote Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors can produce estrogen leading to gynecomastia.
758
What is indicated by bilateral solid testicular masses + congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
Adrenal Rests ## Footnote Adrenal rests can occur in patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to hormone production.
759
What does bilateral solid testicular & epididymis masses suggest?
Testicular Sarcoid ## Footnote Sarcoidosis can affect the testis and epididymis presenting with masses.
760
What is indicated by bilateral small, hyperechoic, avascular masses + Cowden Syndrome?
Focal Lipomatosis ## Footnote Cowden syndrome is a genetic condition associated with multiple benign tumors.
761
What does fetal macrosomia indicate?
Maternal Diabetes ## Footnote High maternal blood sugar levels can lead to increased fetal growth.
762
What does one artery adjacent to the bladder suggest?
two vessel cord ## Footnote A two vessel cord can indicate potential developmental anomalies.
763
What does painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester suggest?
placenta previa ## Footnote Placenta previa occurs when the placenta is located over the cervix.
764
Clover Leaf Sign - Duodenum
healed peptic ulcer
765
Sand Like Nodules in the Jejunum
Whipples
766
Sand Like Nodules in the Jejunum + CD4 <100
MAI
767
Ribbon-like bowel
Graft vs Host
768
Ribbon like Jejunum
Long Standing Celiac
769
Moulage Pattern
Celiac (moulage = loss of jejunal folds)
770
Fold Reversal - of jejunum and ileum
Celiac
771
Cavitary (low density) Lymph nodes
Celiac
772
hide bound or Stack of coins
Scleroderma
773
Megaduodenum
Scleroderma
774
Duodenal obstruction, with recent weight loss
SMA Syndrome
775
Coned shaped cecum
Amebiasis
776
Lead Pipe
Ulcerative Colitis
777
String Sign
Crohns
778
Massive circumferential thickening, without obstruction
Lymphoma
779
Multiple small bowel target signs
Melanoma
780
Obstructing Old Lady Hernia
Femoral Hernia
781
sac of bowel
Paraduodenal hernia
782
scalloped appearance of the liver
Pseudomyxoma Peritonei
783
HCC without cirrhosis
Hepatitis B (or Fibrolamellar HCC)
784
Capsular retraction
Cholangiocarcinoma
785
Periportal hypochoic infiltration + AIDS
Kaposi's
786
sparing of the caudate lobe
Budd Chiari
787
large T2 bright nodes + Budd Chiari
Hyperplastic nodules
788
liver high signal in phase, low signal out phase
fatty liver
789
liver low signal in phase, and high signal out phase
hemochromatosis
790
multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary stricture
PSC
791
multifocal intrahepatic and extrahepatic biliary strictures + papillary stenosis
AIDS Cholangiopathy
792
When I say 'bile ducts full of stones,' you say _______
Recurrent Pyogenic Cholangitis ## Footnote This condition is characterized by repeated infections due to obstruction in bile ducts caused by stones.
793
When I say 'Gallbladder Comet Tail Artifact,' you say _______
Adenomyomatosis Thickening of wall with cholesterol deposition in rokitansky aschoff sinuses
794
When I say 'lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas,' you say _______
CF ## Footnote Cystic Fibrosis can lead to changes in pancreatic morphology, including lipomatous pseudohypertrophy.
795
When I say 'sausage shaped pancreas,' you say _______
autoimmune pancreatitis ## Footnote IgG4 No duct dilation of calcs
796
When I say 'autoimmune pancreatitis,' you say _______
IgG4 ## Footnote A subtype of autoimmune pancreatitis is associated with elevated levels of IgG4 antibodies.
797
When I say 'IgG4,' you say _______
RP Fibrosis, Sclerosing Cholangitis, Fibrosing Mediastinitis, Inflammatory Pseudotumor ## Footnote These conditions are associated with IgG4-related diseases.
798
When I say 'Wide duodenal sweep,' you say _______
Pancreatic Cancer ## Footnote This radiological finding can be indicative of pancreatic malignancy.
799
When I say 'Grandmother Pancreatic Cyst,' you say _______
Serous Cystadenoma ## Footnote This type of pancreatic cyst is typically benign and often found in older women.
800
When I say 'Mother Pancreatic Cyst,' you say _______
Mucinous ## Footnote Mucinous cysts can be premalignant and are often associated with a higher risk of cancer.
801
When I say 'Daughter Pancreatic Cyst,' you say _______
Solid Pseudopapillary ## Footnote This type of cystic tumor is rare and usually occurs in young women.
802
When I say 'bladder stones,' you say _______
neurogenic bladder ## Footnote A neurogenic bladder can lead to urinary retention and stone formation.
803
When I say 'pine cone appearance,' you say _______
neurogenic bladder ## Footnote This imaging appearance can be associated with conditions affecting bladder function.
804
When I say 'urethra cancer,' you say _______
squamous cell CA ## Footnote Squamous cell carcinoma is one of the most common types of urethral cancer.
805
When I say 'urethra cancer - prostatic portion,' you say _______
transitional cell CA ## Footnote Transitional cell carcinoma is a common type of cancer found in the prostatic urethra.
806
When I say 'urethra cancer - in a diverticulum,' you say _______
adenocarcinoma ## Footnote Adenocarcinoma can occur in diverticula of the urethra.
807
When I say 'long term supra-pubic catheter,' you say _______
squamous Bladder CA ## Footnote Long-term use of catheters can increase the risk of squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder.
808
When I say 'E. coli infection,' you say _______
Malakoplakia ## Footnote Malakoplakia is a rare inflammatory condition often associated with chronic E. coli infections.
809
When I say 'vas deferens calcifications,' you say _______
diabetes ## Footnote Calcifications in the vas deferens can be a sign of diabetes mellitus.
810
When I say 'calcifications in a fatty renal mass,' you say _______
RCC ## Footnote Renal Cell Carcinoma may present with calcifications within a fatty renal mass.
811
When I say 'protrude into the renal pelvis,' you say _______
Multilocular cystic nephroma ## Footnote This tumor can present with multilocular cysts that may extend into the renal pelvis.
812
When I say 'no functional renal tissue,' you say _______
Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney ## Footnote This condition is due to fetal obstructive uropathy
813
When I say 'Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney,' you say _______
contralateral renal issues (50%) ## Footnote Patients with multicystic dysplastic kidney often have issues with the contralateral kidney.
814
When I say 'Emphysematous Pyelonephritis,' you say _______
diabetic ## Footnote This severe kidney infection is commonly associated with diabetes mellitus.
815
When I say 'Elevated AFP, with mass in the liver of a newborn,' you say _____
Hepatoblastoma
816
When I say 'Common Bile Duct measures more than 10 mm,' you say _____
Choledochal Cyst
817
When I say 'Lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas,' you say _____
CF
818
When I say 'Unilateral Renal Agenesis,' you say _____
unicornuate uterus
819
When I say 'Neonatal Renal Vein Thrombosis,' you say _____
maternal diabetes
820
When I say 'Neonatal Renal Artery Thrombosis,' you say _____
Misplaced Umbilical Artery Catheter
821
When I say 'Hydro on Fetal MRI,' you say _____
Posterior Urethral Valve
822
When I say 'Urachus,' you say _____
bladder Adenocarcinoma
823
When I say 'Nephroblastomatosis with Necrosis,' you say _____
Wilms
824
When I say 'Solid Renal Tumor of Infancy,' you say _____
Mesoblastic Nephroma
825
When I say 'Solid Renal Tumor of Childhood,' you say _____
Wilms
826
When I say 'Most common Renal Cell CA subtype in kids,' you say _____
Translocation Subtype
827
When I say 'Translocation Subtype Renal Cell CA,' you say _____
prior exposure to cytotoxic chemotherapy
828
When I say 'Midline pelvic mass, in a female,' you say _____
Hydrometrocolpos
829
When I say 'Right sided varicocele,' you say _____
abdominal pathology
830
When I say 'Blue Dot Sign,' you say _____
Torsion of the Testicular Appendage
831
When I say 'Hand or Foot Pain / Swelling in an Infant,' you say _____
sickle cell with hand foot syndrome
832
When I say 'Extratesticular scrotal mass,' you say _____
embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
833
When I say 'Narrowing of the interpedicular distance,' you say _____
Achondroplasia
834
When I say 'Platyspondyly (flat vertebral bodies),' you say _____
Thanatophoric
835
When I say 'Absent Tonsils after 6 months,' you say _____
Immune Deficiency
836
When I say 'episodic hypertension,' you say _____
check urinary metanephrines (pheochromocytoma)
837
When I say 'Enlarged Tonsils well after childhood (like 12-15),' you say _____
Cancer - probably lymphatic
838
When I say 'Mystery Liver Abscess in Kid,' you say _____
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
839
When I say 'Narrowed B Ring,' you say _____
Schatzi (Schat'B' ki Ring)
840
When I say 'Esophageal concentric rings,' you say _____
Eosinophilic Esophagitis
841
When I say 'shaggy' or 'plaque like' esophagus, you say _____
Candidiasis
842
When I say 'looks like candida, but an asymptomatic old lady,' you say _____
Glycogen Acanthosis
843
When I say 'Reticular mucosal pattern,' you say _____
Barretts
844
When I say 'high stricture with an associated hiatal hernia,' you say _____
Barretts
845
When I say 'abrupt shoulders,' you say _____
cancer
846
When I say 'Killian Dehiscence,' you say _____
Zenker Diverticulum
847
When I say 'transient, fine transverse folds across the esophagus,' you say _____
Feline Esophagus
848
When I say 'bird's beak,' you say _____
Achalasia
849
When I say 'solitary esophageal ulcer,' you say _____
CMV or AIDS
850
When I say 'ulcers at the level of the arch or distal esophagus,' you say _____
Medication induced
851
When I say 'Breast Cancer + Bowel Hamartomas,' you say _____
Cowdens
852
When I say 'Desmoid Tumors + Bowel Polyps,' you say _____
Gardners
853
When I say 'Brain Tumors + Bowel Polyps,' you say _____
Turcots Medulloblastoma and GBM
854
When I say 'enlarged left supraclavicular node,' you say _____
Virchow Node (GI Cancer)
855
When I say 'crosses the pylorus,' you say _____
Gastric Lymphoma
856
When I say 'isolated gastric varices,' you say _____
splenic vein thrombus
857
When I say 'multiple gastric ulcers,' you say _____
Chronic Aspirin Therapy
858
When I say 'multiple duodenal (or jejunal) ulcers,' you say _____
Zollinger-Ellsion
859
When I say 'pancreatitis after Billroth 2,' you say _____
Afferent Loop Syndrome
860
When I say 'Weight gain years after Roux-en-Y,' you say _____
Gastro-Gastro Fistula
861
When I say 'Subglottic Hemangioma,' you say _______
PHACES Syndrome
862
When I say 'Ropy Appearance,' you say _______
Meconium Aspiration
863
When I say 'Post Term Delivery,' you say _______
Meconium Aspiration
864
When I say 'Fluid in the Fissures,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
865
When I say 'History of c-section,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
866
When I say 'Maternal sedation,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
867
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Premature,' you say _______
RDS
868
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Term + High Lung Volume,' you say _______
Pneumonia
869
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Term + Low Lung Volume,' you say _______
B-Hemolytic Strep
870
When I say 'Band Like Opacities,' you say _______
Chronic Lung Disease (BPD)
871
When I say 'Linear Lucencies,' you say _______
Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema
872
When I say 'Pulmonary Hypoplasia,' you say _______
diaphragmatic hernia
873
When I say 'Lung Cysts and Nodules,' you say _______
LCH or Papillomatosis
874
When I say 'Lower lobe bronchiectasis,' you say _______
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia
875
When I say 'Upper lobe bronchiectasis,' you say _______
CF
876
When I say 'Posterior mediastinal mass (under 2),' you say _______
Neuroblastoma
877
When I say 'No air in the stomach,' you say _______
Esophageal Atresia With polyhydramnios
878
When I say 'Excessive air in the stomach,' you say _______
'H' Type TE fistula
879
When I say 'Anterior Esophageal Impression,' you say _______
pulmonary sling
880
When I say 'Pulmonary Sling,' You say _______
tracheal stenosis
881
When I say 'Single Bubble,' You say _______
Gastric (antral or pyloric) atresia
882
When I say 'Double Bubble,' You say _______
duodenal atresia and downs
883
When I say 'Duodenal Atresia', You say _______
Downs
884
When I say 'Single Bubble with Distal Gas,' You say _______
maybe Mid Gut Volvulus
885
When I say 'Non-bilious vomiting', You say _______
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
886
When I say 'Paradoxial aciduria' You say _______
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
887
When I say 'Bilious vomiting - in an infant', You say _______
Mid Gut Volvulus
888
When I say 'Corkscrew Duodenum' You say _______
Mid Gut Volvulus
889
When I say 'Reversed SMA and SMV' You say _______
Malrotation SMA to the right of SMV
890
When I say 'Absent Gallbladder' You say _______
biliary atresia
891
When I say 'Triangle Cord Sign' You say _______
biliary atresia
892
When I say 'Asplenia', You say _______
cyanotic heart disease
893
When I say 'Infarcted Spleen,' You say _______
Sickle Cell
894
When I say 'Gall Stones,' You say _______
Sickle Cell
895
When I say 'Short Microcolon,' You say _______
Colonic Atresia
896
When I say 'Long Microcolon,' You say _______
Meconium ileus (to the ileum) or distal ileal atresia
897
When I say 'Saw tooth colon,' You say _______
Hirschsprung Absence of the distal ganglion cells
898
When I say 'Calcified mass in the mid abdomen of a newborn', you say _______
Meconium Peritonitis 2/2 bowel perforation and meconium spillage into peritoneal cavity
899
When I say 'Meconium ileus equivalent,' you say _______
Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome (CF)
900
When I say 'Abrupt caliber change of the aorta below the celiac axis', You say _______
Hepatic Hemangioendothelioma
901
When I say 'Cystic mass in the liver of a newborn,' you say _______
Mesenchymal Hamartoma

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