High Yield day 2: thoracic, peds, nucs Flashcards
(383 cards)
1
Q
Which condition spares the disc space in the spine?
A
TB osteomyelitis in the spine
2
Q
What is the purpose of the LMO in breast imaging?
A
For kyphosis, pectus excavatum, and to avoid a pacemaker / line
The LMO (Lateral Medial Oblique) view can help in specific anatomical situations.
3
Q
What is the imaging characteristic of a Rathke Cleft Cyst?
A
Pituitary - T2 Bright
Rathke Cleft Cysts typically appear hyperintense on T2-weighted MRI.
4
Q
What tumor is associated with calcification in the pituitary region?
A
Craniopharyngioma
Craniopharyngiomas are often calcified and can be seen on imaging.
5
Q
What condition invades the internal auditory canal at the cerebellopontine angle?
A
Schwannoma
Schwannomas are benign tumors that originate from Schwann cells and can affect the auditory pathways.
6
Q
What is the characteristic of a Schwannoma with NF2?
A
Invades Both Internal Auditory Canals
Neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas.
7
Q
What type of lesion restricts on diffusion at the cerebellopontine angle?
A
Epidermoid
Epidermoid cysts can demonstrate restricted diffusion on MRI due to their unique composition.
8
Q
What pediatric brain tumor arises from the vermis?
A
Medulloblastoma
Medulloblastomas are common malignant brain tumors in children and often arise from the cerebellar vermis.
9
Q
What pediatric tumor is described as ‘tooth paste’ coming out of the 4th ventricle?
A
Ependymoma
Ependymomas can have a characteristic appearance on imaging, resembling ‘toothpaste’ when they obstruct cerebrospinal fluid pathways.
10
Q
At what age does the adult myelination pattern show
A
shows T1 at 1 year and T2 at 2 years
Adult myelin is T1 bright and T2 dark
11
Q
Which structures are myelinated at birth?
A
Brainstem and posterior limb of the internal capsule
Early myelination of these structures is crucial for basic neurological functions.
12
Q
What is the most common TORCH infection?
A
CMV
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most prevalent infectious agent in the TORCH complex, which includes congenital infections that can affect fetal development.
13
Q
What is the most common type of craniosynostosis?
A
Scaphocephaly
This condition is characterized by a long, narrow head shape.
14
Q
What condition is associated with hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis issues?
A
Piriform aperture stenosis
This condition can affect craniofacial development and endocrine function.
15
Q
What is the most common primary petrous apex lesion?
A
Cholesterol Granuloma
This lesion can cause various neurological symptoms depending on its size and location.
16
Q
What syndrome is characterized by absence of the bony modiolus in 90% of cases?
A
Large vestibular aqueduct syndrome
This condition can lead to hearing loss and balance issues.
17
Q
What type of scan will be positive for esthesioneuroblastoma?
A
Octreotide scan
Esthesioneuroblastoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor of the nasal cavity.
18
Q
What is the main vascular supply to the posterior nose?
A
Sphenopalatine artery
This artery is a terminal branch of the internal maxillary artery.
19
Q
What type of tumors take up pertechnetate?
A
Warthins tumors
These benign tumors are typically found in the salivary glands.
20
Q
What condition is associated with salivary gland lymphoma?
A
Sjogren’s syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that can lead to lymphoproliferative complications, including lymphoma.
21
Q
What is the most common intra-ocular lesion in an adult?
A
Melanoma
Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can occur in the eye, presenting as an intra-ocular lesion.
22
Q
How long after spine surgery is enhancement of nerve roots considered normal?
A
6 weeks
Enhancement beyond 6 weeks may indicate complications such as arachnoiditis.
23
Q
What is the most important factor for outcome in a traumatic cord injury?
A
Hemorrhage in the cord
Hemorrhage can lead to increased pressure and damage to spinal cord tissue, affecting recovery.
24
Q
What are the components of Currarino Triad?
A
- Anterior Sacral Meningocele
- Anorectal malformation
- Sarcococcygeal osseous defect
Currarino Triad is a congenital condition associated with spinal and anorectal anomalies.
25
Which type of spinal arteriovenous fistula (AVF) is more common?
Type 1 Spinal AVF (dural AVF)
## Footnote
Dural AVFs are more prevalent compared to other types of spinal AVFs.
26
What brain structure does herpes spare?
Basal ganglia
## Footnote
In contrast, middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarcts typically do not spare the basal ganglia.
27
What is the most common malignant tumor of the lacrimal gland?
Adenoid cystic adenocarcinoma
## Footnote
This tumor type is known for its aggressive nature and tendency to invade surrounding tissues.
28
What is the first sign of a SNAC or SLAC wrist?
Arthritis at the radioscaphoid compartment
## Footnote
SNAC (Scaphoid Nonunion Advanced Collapse) and SLAC (Scapholunate Advanced Collapse) wrists are characterized by degenerative changes in the wrist.
29
What deformity is associated with SLAC wrist?
DISI deformity
## Footnote
DISI stands for Dorsal Intercalated Segmental Instability, often seen in SLAC wrist conditions.
30
What causes the dorsolateral dislocation in the Bennett fracture?
Pull of the Abductor pollicis longus tendon
fracture of the base of the first metacarpal, rolando is comminuted
31
What condition has an association with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Dialysis
## Footnote
Patients on dialysis may experience increased risk of carpal tunnel syndrome due to fluid retention and other factors.
32
What is the total equivalent organ dose per year?
50 rem
## Footnote
Includes skin as an organ
33
What is the total equivalent extremity dose per year?
50 rem (500 mSv)
## Footnote
Equivalent dose for extremities
34
What is the total dose to an embryo/fetus over the entire 9 months?
0.5 rem
35
What does the NRC allow for Mo per 1 mili Ci of Te?
No more than 0.15 micro Ci
## Footnote
Regulatory limit during administration
36
How is chemical purity (Al in Tc) assessed?
With pH paper
37
What is the allowable amount of Al?
< 10 micrograms
38
How is radiochemical purity (looking for Free Tc) determined?
With thin layer chromatography
39
What causes Free Te to occur?
Lack of stannous ions or accidental air injection
## Footnote
Air injection oxidizes the compound
40
Are prostate cancer bone metastases common with a PSA less than 10 mg/ml?
Uncommon
41
When does the Flair Phenomenon occur after therapy?
2 weeks - 3 months, increased FDG uptake
Delay post treatment pet scan for 2-4 months
42
Which imaging method is superior for lytic metastases?
Skeletal Survey
43
What is the temperature characteristic of AVN in early and late stages?
COLD
## Footnote
Middle stage (repairing) is HOT
44
What is the particle size range for a VQ scan?
10-100 micrometers
45
What is done first during a VQ scan?
Xenon
46
What is Amiodarone?
A classic thyroid uptake blocker
47
What condition increases the risk for lymphoma?
Hashimoto's disease
48
What does a hot nodule on Tc require to be considered benign?
Should also be hot on Il23
## Footnote
discordant nodule is when hot on T99 but cold on I123
Cold on I123 is suspicious
49
What makes I-131 treatment more difficult?
History of methimazole treatment
50
What is a side effect of Methimazole?
Neutropenia
51
What is the blocker of choice in pregnancy?
PTU
52
What factors does Sestamibi in the parathyroid depend on?
Blood flow and mitochondrial density
53
When should PET imaging be performed following therapy?
2-3 weeks for chemotherapy, 8-12 weeks for radiation
## Footnote
This avoids 'stunning' and false positives
54
What is the most commonly used agent for somatostatin receptor imaging?
11 In Pentetreotide
55
What is a classic use of 11 In Pentetreotide?
Carcinoid tumors
56
What type of tumors take up octreotide?
Meningiomas
57
What types of cells does 111 bind to?
Neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, RBCs, and platelets
## Footnote
111 is a radiopharmaceutical used in various imaging studies
58
What does Tc99m HMPAO specifically bind to?
Neutrophils
## Footnote
Tc99m HMPAO is used in brain perfusion imaging
59
For how long may WBCs accumulate at post op surgical sites?
2-3 weeks
## Footnote
This accumulation is part of the normal healing process
60
What is Lugols iodine/SSKI/perchlorate used for
done to block the thyroid prior to MIBG administration
This is to prevent radioactive uptake by the thyroid
61
What is the typical agent used in Scrotal Scintigraphy?
Tc-99m Pertechnetate
## Footnote
This agent serves both as a flow and a pool agent
62
What can left bundle branch block cause in imaging?
A false positive defect in the ventricular septum
## Footnote
This defect typically spares the apex
63
What does pulmonary uptake of Thallium indicate?
LV dysfunction
## Footnote
This is used as a diagnostic tool in cardiac imaging
64
What is the mechanism of MIBG?
Analog of Norepinephrine - actively transported and stored in neurosecretory granules
## Footnote
MIBG is used in imaging neuroendocrine tumors
65
What type of analog is MDP and how does it work?
Phosphate analog - works via Chemisorption
## Footnote
MDP is used in bone scans
66
How does Sulfur Colloid work?
Particles are phagocytized by RES
## Footnote
This mechanism is used in liver and spleen imaging
67
What is the maximum dose Geiger Mueller can handle?
100 mR/h
68
What activity level of Tc-99m is considered a major spill?
> 100 mCi
69
What activity level of TI-201 is considered a major spill?
> 100 mCi
70
What activity level of In-111 represents a major spill?
> 10 mCi
71
What activity level of Ga-67 is considered a major spill?
> 10 mCi
72
What activity level of I-131 is considered a major spill?
> 1 mCi
73
What is the annual dose limit to the public?
100 mrem
74
What is the maximum dose in an unrestricted area?
Not greater than 2 mrem per hour
75
What is the total body dose limit per year?
5 rem
76
What is the most common associated defect with aortic coarctation?
Bicuspid aorta (80%)
77
What is the most common subtype of thoracic outlet syndrome?
Neurogenic compression
78
In which condition is a splenic artery aneurysm more common?
Pregnancy
79
What increases the likelihood of splenic artery aneurysm rupture?
Pregnancy
80
When is Median Arcuate Compression worse? What does it affect
Worsens with expiration
Celiac artery
81
Colonic Angiodysplasia is associated with which condition?
Aortic stenosis
82
What percentage of popliteal aneurysms are bilateral?
50-70%
83
What is the relationship between popliteal aneurysms and abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAA)?
* 30-50% have AAA
* 10% of patients with AAA have popliteal aneurysm
84
What causes popliteal entrapment?
medial deviation of the popliteal artery secondary to medial head of the gastrocnemius
85
What type of Takayasu is most common?
Type 3 (arch + abdominal aorta)
86
What is the most common vasculitis in children?
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
87
What is required for a Left Bundle Branch Block before a Thoracic Angiogram?
A pacer
88
What does RCA give off?
Acute marginals
89
What does LCX give off?
Obtuse marginals
90
What perfuses the sa and av nodes
Typically the RCA
91
How is dominance of coronary arteries decided?
By which vessel gives off the posterior descending artery; right dominance is 85%
92
When would you repair the coronary artery arising from the contralateral coronary cusp
Always repair LCA from right
RCA from left cusp is only repaired if symptomatic
93
When is RCA repaired?
If symptoms present when it arises from the Left Coronary Cusp
94
Where is the most common location of myocardial bridging?
Mid portion of the LAD
95
What is the most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in adults?
Atherosclerosis
96
What is the most common cause of coronary artery aneurysm in children?
Kawasaki disease
97
What are the layers of pleura in the Azygos Lobe?
4 layers of pleura
98
What is the most common pulmonary vein variant?
A separate vein draining the right middle lobe
99
What is the most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS patients?
Strep Pneumonia
100
What is the most common opportunistic infection in AIDS?
PCP
101
In which type of patient is Aspergilloma seen?
Normal immune patient
102
In which type of patient is Invasive Aspergillus seen?
Immune compromised patient
103
What is the minimum size thickness for Lung Cancer Screening CTs?
2.5mm (1.5mm or thinner is preferred)
104
What does AIDS + Bilateral Ground Glass Opacities + Thin Walled Cysts + Pneumothorax indicate?
PCP
105
Can Prevascular Lymph nodes be easily reached by mediastinoscopy?
No
106
Do Fleischner Society Recommendations apply to patients with known cancers?
No
107
What is the most common location for an echinococcal cyst?
Liver
108
What is the second most common site of involvement for echinococcus?
Lung
109
What pattern of calcifications in a solitary pulmonary nodule is considered most suspicious?
Eccentric calcifications
110
What is the most suspicious morphology for a pulmonary nodule?
A part solid nodule with a ground glass component
111
What is the most common early presentation of lung cancer?
Solitary nodule (right upper lobe)
112
In lung fibrosis patients, where is lung cancer more commonly found?
Lower lobe
113
What makes Stage 3B lung cancer unresectable?
Contralateral nodal involvement; ipsilateral or contralateral scalene or supraclavicular nodal involvement, tumor in different lobes
114
What is the most common cause of unilateral lymphangitic carcinomatosis?
Bronchogenic carcinoma lung cancer invading the lymphatics
115
What is the latency period between initial exposure and development of lung cancer or pleural mesothelioma?
20 years
116
What is the earliest and most common finding with asbestosis exposure?
Pleural effusion
117
How much does silicosis raise the risk of TB?
About 3 fold
118
119
What is the first finding of UIP on CXR?
Reticular pattern in the posterior costophrenic angle
120
What is the most common recurrent primary disease after lung transplant?
Sarcoidosis
121
What does pleural plaque of asbestosis typically spare?
Costophrenic angles
122
What is the most common manifestation of metastasis to the pleura?
Pleural effusion
123
What is associated with mature teratomas?
Klinefelter Syndrome
124
Injury close to the carina causes what?
Pneumomediastinum
Not pneumothorax
125
How does Hodgkin Lymphoma spread?
Contiguous fashion from the mediastinum, most often unilateral
126
How does Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma typically present?
Bilateral with associated abdominal lymphadenopathy
127
What imaging modality is superior for assessing superior sulcus tumors?
MRI
128
What is the most common benign esophageal tumor?
Leiomyoma
129
What syndrome may be associated with Esophageal Leiomyomatosis?
Alport's Syndrome
130
How must bronchial/tracheal injury be evaluated?
With bronchoscopy
131
If you say COP, what else should you say?
Eosinophilic Pneumonia
132
If you say BAC, what else should you say?
Lymphoma
133
Where is Bronchial Atresia classically found?
LUL
134
What must pericardial cysts be?
Simple
135
What type of cysts don't have to be simple?
Bronchogenic cysts
136
What percentage of patients with PAP get better post-treatment?
1/3
137
What is the later presentation of Dysphagia Lusoria associated with?
Atherosclerosis development
138
How does carcinoid appear on PET?
COLD
139
What can Lipomatous Hypertrophy of the Intra-Atrial Septum be?
PET Avid
140
What is the most common association with prostatic utricle?
Hypospadias
## Footnote
This condition affects the urethral opening.
141
What is the prevalence of undescended testicles in premature children?
More common
## Footnote
This condition is known as cryptorchidism.
142
How is biparietal diameter measured?
At the level of the thalamus from the outermost edge of the near skull to the inner table of the far skull
## Footnote
This measurement is crucial in fetal assessment.
143
What does abdominal circumference measurement not include?
Subcutaneous soft tissues
## Footnote
This measurement is specifically taken for fetal growth assessment.
144
At what level is abdominal circumference recorded?
At the level of the junction of the umbilical vein and left portal vein
## Footnote
This is important for accurate fetal measurements.
145
What parameter is classically involved with asymmetric lUGR?
Abdominal Circumference
## Footnote
Asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction (lUGR) indicates different growth patterns.
146
Does femur length measurement include the epiphysis?
No, it does not include the epiphysis
## Footnote
This measurement focuses on the diaphysis.
147
What should the Umbilical Artery Systolic/Diastolic Ratio not exceed at 34 weeks?
3
## Footnote
Exceeding this ratio raises suspicion for preeclampsia and IUGR.
148
What can a full bladder mimic?
A placenta previa
## Footnote
This can lead to misdiagnosis in imaging.
149
When is nuchal lucency measured?
Between 9-12 weeks
It should be < 3 mm; more than 3 mm associated with Down syndrome.
150
When does the lemon sign disappear?
After 24 weeks
## Footnote
This sign is related to fetal head shape changes.
151
What is the most common cause of non-communicating hydrocephalus in a neonate?
Aqueductal Stenosis
## Footnote
This condition affects the flow of cerebrospinal fluid.
152
Which valve is the most anterior in the heart?
Tricuspid valve
## Footnote
This valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle.
153
Which valve is the most superior in the heart?
Pulmonic valve
## Footnote
This valve is located between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
154
How many lung segments are there on the right side?
10 lung segments
## Footnote
The left lung has fewer segments due to the cardiac notch.
155
If it goes above the clavicles, where is it located?
In the posterior mediastinum
## Footnote
This is known as the cervicothoracic sign.
156
What are the components of Felty's Syndrome?
Big spleen, RA, and neutropenia
## Footnote
This triad is key for diagnosis.
157
In children, what is the most common cause of persistent small bowel intussusception?
Lymph node hypertrophy
## Footnote
This is often due to a prior viral infection.
158
What is the management position for Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema (PIE)?
Put the bad side down
## Footnote
This technique helps minimize the affected side's impact on breathing and oxygenation.
159
What is the management position for a Bronchial Foreign Body?
Put the lucency side down
## Footnote
If it stays that way, it's considered positive for the presence of a foreign body.
160
What is unique about Pulmonary sling?
It goes between the esophagus and the trachea and is associated with trachea stenosis
## Footnote
This anatomical variant can lead to significant respiratory issues.
161
What is Thymic Rebound and when is it seen?
Seen after stress (chemotherapy) and can be PET-Avid
## Footnote
This phenomenon indicates a reactive process in the thymus post-chemotherapy.
162
What is the most common mediastinal mass in children over 10 years old?
Lymphoma
## Footnote
This highlights the prevalence of lymphoma in the pediatric population in the mediastinal region.
163
What does an Anterior Mediastinal Mass with Calcification indicate?
Either treated lymphoma or Thymic Lesion
## Footnote
Lymphoma does not calcify unless treated, which helps in differential diagnosis.
164
What is the most common posterior mediastinal mass in children under 2?
Neuroblastoma
## Footnote
This condition is more favorable when primary thoracic compared to abdominal neuroblastoma.
165
What is the age range during which Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis can occur? And what does the caterpillar sign represent
3 weeks to 3 months
Stomach peristalsis
## Footnote
It is not present at birth
166
What are the criteria for diagnosing Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis (HPS)?
4 mm single wall and 14 mm length
## Footnote
These measurements help establish the diagnosis of HPS.
167
What does Annular Pancreas present as in children and adults?
Duodenal obstruction in children and pancreatitis in adults
## Footnote
This condition can lead to significant complications due to its anatomical implications.
168
What is the most common cause of bowel obstruction in children over 4 years old?
Appendicitis
## Footnote
Appendicitis is a leading cause for surgical intervention in this age group.
169
What age range is considered normal for Intussusception?
3 months to 3 years
## Footnote
Cases outside this age range often require evaluation for a lead point.
170
Where is Gastroschisis typically located?
What is it associated with
Always on the right side
Young maternal age
171
Omphalocele vs gastroschisis
Omphalocele: midline wall defect and umbilical insertion, membrane covering, and malformations/anomalies
## Footnote
This condition often presents with cardiac anomalies, trisomies, pentalogy of cantrell, beckwidth wiedemann
172
When is Physiologic Gut Herniation considered normal?
In first trimester
173
What is the significance of elevated AFP levels?
Elevated with Hepatoblastoma And HCC
174
What is elevated in Hemangioendothelioma?
Endothelial growth factor
## Footnote
This elevation indicates angiogenic activity associated with the tumor.
175
What is the most common cause of pancreatitis in children?
Trauma (seatbelt)
## Footnote
This highlights the importance of safety measures in preventing pediatric injuries.
176
What does the Weigert Meyer Rule state?
Duplicated ureter on top inserts inferior and medial
## Footnote
This rule helps in understanding the anatomical variations in ureteral anatomy.
177
What is the most common tumor of the fetus or infant?
Sacrococcygeal Teratoma
## Footnote
Germ cell tumor of sacrum
Associated with high output cardiac failure
178
What is the most common cause of idiopathic scrotal edema?
HSP (Henoch-Schönlein purpura)
## Footnote
This condition often presents with a range of symptoms, including scrotal edema.
179
What is the most common cause of acute scrotal pain in ages 7-14?
Torsion of Testicular Appendages
Treated with pain management
180
What is the etiology for testicular torsion?
Bell Clapper Deformity
## Footnote
Failure of tunica vaginalis and testis to connect
181
What type of Salter Harris fracture is SCFE?
Type 1
## Footnote
This classification helps in understanding the nature of the fracture.
182
When does Physiologic Periostitis of the Newborn occur?
Seen around 3 months
## Footnote
This condition does not occur at birth.
183
What should the Acetabular Angle be?
< 30
## Footnote
This angle is crucial for assessing hip development.
184
What should the Alpha angle be?
> 60
## Footnote
This angle helps in evaluating hip dysplasia.
185
What is the most common benign mucosal lesion of the esophagus?
Papilloma
## Footnote
This condition is often benign but requires monitoring.
186
What is the risk associated with Esophageal Webs?
Increased risk for cancer and Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
## Footnote
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome includes anemia and web formation.
187
What causes Dysphagia Lusoria?
Compression by a right subclavian artery
## Footnote
Most patients with aberrant rights do not exhibit symptoms.
188
What is the risk associated with Achalasia?
Increased risk of squamous cell cancer (20 years later)
## Footnote
This long-term risk necessitates regular follow-up.
189
Lesion in the finger of a kid
Periosteal chondroma
190
Renal transplant uptake on sulfur colloid
Rejection
191
Filtered Renal Agent
DTPA (or GH)
192
Secreted Renal Agent
MAG-3
193
PET with increased muscle uptake
insulin
194
Hashimoto looks like on US
Giraffe skin and white knights (hyperechoic regenerative nodules)
Increased risk of lymphoma
195
I see the skeleton on MIBG
diffuse neuroblastoma bone mets
196
Cardiac tissue taking up FDG more intense than normal myocardium
hibernating myocardium
197
made with a generator
Tc99 and Rubidium
198
Bilateral coloboma
CHARGE syndrome
199
When I say 'HOT spleen,' you say?
WBC scan or Octreotide
## Footnote
Sulfur colloid will be a warm spleen.
200
When I say 'Bone Scan with Hot Skull Sutures,' you say?
renal osteodystrophy
201
When I say 'Bone Scan with Focal Breast Uptake,' you say?
breast CA
202
When I say 'Bone Scan with Renal Cortex Activity,' you say?
hemochromatosis
203
When I say 'Bone Scan with Liver Activity,' you say?
either too much Al, Amyloid, Hepatoma, or Liver Necrosis
204
When I say 'Bone Scan with Sternal Lesion,' you say?
breast CA
205
When I say 'Bone Scan with Diffusely Decreased Bone Uptake,' you say?
(1) Free Tc, or (2) Bisphosphonate Therapy
206
When I say 'Tramline along periosteum of long bones,' you say?
lung CA
207
When I say 'Super Hot Mandible in Adult,' you say?
Fibrous Dysplasia
208
When I say 'Super Hot Mandible in Child,' you say?
Caffeys
209
When I say 'Periarticular uptake on delayed scan,' you say?
RSD
210
When I say 'Focal uptake along the lesser trochanter,' you say?
Prosthesis loosening
211
When I say 'Tracer in the brain on a VQ study,' you say?
Shunt
212
When I say 'Tracer over the liver on Ventilation with Xenon,' you say?
Fatty Liver
213
When I say 'Gallium Negative, Thallium Positive,' you say?
Kaposi
214
When I say 'High T3, High T4, low TSH, - low thyroid uptake,' you say?
de Quervains (Granulomatous thyroiditis)
215
When I say 'persistent tracer in the lateral ventricles > 24 hours,' you say?
NPH
216
When I say 'Renal uptake on sulfur colloid,' you say?
CHF
217
Great saphenous vein on the wrong side of the calf - lateral side
Marginal Vein of Servelle - which is supposedly pathognomonic for Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome
## Footnote
Klippel-Trenaunay Syndrome is a rare congenital condition characterized by a triad of symptoms: capillary malformations, venous malformations, and lymphatic malformations.
218
Kids with vertigo and aortitis
Cogan Syndrome
## Footnote
Cogan Syndrome is characterized by interstitial keratitis and vestibulo-cochlear dysfunction, often associated with systemic vasculitis.
219
Nasal perforation + Cavitary Lung Lesions
Wegeners
## Footnote
Wegener's granulomatosis, now known as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, is a type of vasculitis affecting small to medium-sized vessels, leading to respiratory and renal complications.
220
Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhage
Microscopic Polyangitis
## Footnote
Microscopic polyangiitis is a small-vessel vasculitis that can cause rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage.
221
Smoker + Hand Angiogram
Buergers
## Footnote
Buerger's disease, or thromboangiitis obliterans, is a condition characterized by segmental vasculitis and thrombosis, primarily affecting young male smokers.
222
Construction worker + Hand Angiogram
Hypothenar Hammer
## Footnote
Hypothenar hammer syndrome occurs due to repetitive trauma to the ulnar artery, leading to hand ischemia and potentially ulceration.
223
Unilateral tardus parvus in the carotid
Stenosis of the innominate
## Footnote
Tardus parvus refers to a delayed and diminished pulse wave, often indicative of significant arterial stenosis.
224
Bilateral tardus parvus in the carotids
Aortic stenosis
## Footnote
Aortic stenosis can lead to decreased blood flow to the carotid arteries, resulting in bilateral tardus parvus waveforms.
225
Bilateral reversal of flow in the carotids
Aortic regurgitation
## Footnote
Aortic regurgitation can cause diastolic flow reversal in the carotid arteries due to the backflow of blood from the aorta.
226
Most medial vessel in the leg
Posterior tibial artery
## Footnote
The posterior tibial artery is a major artery supplying the posterior compartment of the leg and foot.
227
The source of 85% of upper GI bleeds
Left gastric artery
## Footnote
The left gastric artery is a branch of the celiac trunk and is commonly involved in upper gastrointestinal bleeding.
228
The source of bleeding from a duodenal ulcer
GDA
## Footnote
The gastroduodenal artery (GDA) is often eroded by duodenal ulcers, leading to significant bleeding.
229
Pulmonary AVM
HHT
Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT) is a genetic disorder that can cause arteriovenous malformations in the lungs, leading to pulmonary AVMs.
230
Most feared complication of bronchial artery embolization
Spinal cord infarct
## Footnote
Spinal cord infarction is a rare but serious complication of bronchial artery embolization due to blood supply disruption to the spinal cord.
231
High risk of bleeding for liver transplant
Transjugular approach
## Footnote
The transjugular approach is often used for liver biopsies and transplants to minimize bleeding risk associated with the hepatic vasculature.
232
Most feared complication of brachial arterial access
Compartment syndrome
## Footnote
Compartment syndrome can occur due to hematoma formation following brachial arterial access, leading to increased pressure and potential muscle necrosis.
233
Cold painful fingers during dialysis
Steal syndrome
## Footnote
Steal syndrome occurs when blood flow is diverted away from the distal hand during dialysis, typically with stenosis in native artery distal to fistula
234
Ulcer on medial ankle
Venous stasis
## Footnote
Venous stasis ulcers are common in areas of venous insufficiency, often seen on the medial aspect of the ankle.
235
Ulcer on dorsum of foot
Ischemia or infected ulcer
## Footnote
Ischemic ulcers on the dorsum of the foot can result from peripheral artery disease or infections.
236
Ulcer on plantar surface of foot
Neutropenic ulcer
## Footnote
Neutropenic ulcers can occur in patients with compromised immune systems, often seen on the plantar surface of the foot.
237
Pulsatile lower limb venous doppler
Right heart failure
## Footnote
Pulsatile venous flow in the lower limbs can indicate right heart failure, leading to increased venous pressure.
238
Hot clumps of signal or diffuse pulmonary activity on sulfur colloid
Too much aluminum in the Tc
## Footnote
This refers to a potential imaging artifact or misinterpretation due to the presence of aluminum in technetium-labeled compounds.
239
What is the term for persistent fluid collection after pleural drain/tube placement?
Extrapleural Hematoma
## Footnote
Extrapleural hematoma can occur when blood collects in the extrapleural space, often following surgical interventions.
240
What condition is indicated by displaced extrapleural fat?
Extrapleural Hematoma
## Footnote
This can be a sign of underlying hematoma formation in the extrapleural space.
241
What is suggested by a massive air leak in the setting of trauma?
bronchial or tracheal injury
## Footnote
Such injuries can lead to significant respiratory complications and require immediate medical attention.
242
What does 'hot on PET - around the periphery' indicate?
pulmonary infarct
## Footnote
A pulmonary infarct typically shows increased metabolic activity on PET imaging.
243
What condition is indicated by multi-lobar collapse?
sarcoid
## Footnote
Sarcoidosis can lead to lung involvement with multi-lobar collapse patterns on imaging.
244
What is the classic infection associated with bronchial infection?
TB
## Footnote
Tuberculosis is a well-known cause of chronic bronchial infections.
245
What does panbronchiolitis present as?
tree in bud
## Footnote
This imaging finding is characteristic of panbronchiolitis, indicating small airway disease.
246
What condition is represented by bronchorrhea?
Mucinous BAC
## Footnote
Bronchorrhea is often seen in mucinous bronchioloalveolar carcinoma (BAC).
247
What does ALCAPA stand for?
Steal Syndrome
## Footnote
ALCAPA (Anomalous Left Coronary Artery from Pulmonary Artery) can lead to myocardial ischemia due to steal phenomenon.
248
What is the association of spontaneous coronary artery dissection with?
fibromuscular dysplasia
(Rarely intracranial)
249
What condition is indicated by supra-valvular aortic stenosis?
Williams Syndrome
## Footnote
Williams syndrome is associated with congenital heart defects including supra-valvular aortic stenosis.
250
What is the association of bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation?
Turners Syndrome
## Footnote
Turner syndrome often presents with various cardiovascular anomalies including these conditions.
251
What condition is indicated by isolated right upper lobe edema?
Mitral Regurgitation
## Footnote
Isolated edema may suggest pulmonary venous congestion due to mitral valve disease.
252
What does peripheral pulmonary stenosis indicate?
Alagille Syndrome
## Footnote
Alagille syndrome is characterized by peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis among other features.
253
What is indicated by a box-shaped heart?
Ebsteins
## Footnote
Ebstein's anomaly results in a distinctive shape of the heart on imaging.
254
What does right arch with mirror branching indicate?
congenital heart
## Footnote
This finding is often associated with congenital cardiac anomalies.
255
What is indicated by hand/thumb defects + ASD?
Holt Oram
## Footnote
Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by upper limb defects and congenital heart defects such as atrial septal defect (ASD).
256
What is the term for ostium primum ASD (or endocardial cushion defect)?
Downs
## Footnote
Down syndrome is associated with various congenital heart defects including ostium primum ASD.
257
What does right sided PAPVR suggest?
Sinus Venous ASD
## Footnote
Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return (PAPVR) can be associated with sinus venosus defects.
258
What condition is indicated by calcification in the left atrium wall?
Rheumatic Heart Disease
## Footnote
Calcifications can occur in the setting of rheumatic heart disease due to chronic inflammation.
259
What is indicated by difficult to suppress myocardium?
Amyloid
## Footnote
Cardiac amyloidosis can lead to characteristic imaging findings and difficulties in suppression.
260
What condition is indicated by blood pool suppression on delayed enhancement?
Amyloid
## Footnote
This imaging characteristic is often seen in cases of cardiac amyloidosis.
261
What does septal bounce indicate?
constrictive pericarditis
## Footnote
Septal bounce is a classic finding in echocardiography for constrictive pericarditis.
262
What is indicated by ventricular interdependence?
constrictive pericarditis
## Footnote
Ventricular interdependence is a hemodynamic phenomenon seen in conditions affecting the pericardium.
263
What condition is indicated by focal thickening of the septum - but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Sarcoid
## Footnote
Sarcoidosis can lead to localized septal thickening distinct from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
264
What is indicated by ballooning of the left ventricular apex?
Tako-Tsubo
## Footnote
Tako-Tsubo cardiomyopathy is characterized by this specific pattern of ventricular deformation.
265
What does fat in the wall of a dilated right ventricle suggest?
Arrhythmogenic Right Ventricular Cardiomyopathy (ARVC)
## Footnote
ARVC is associated with fatty infiltration of the right ventricle and aneurysm
266
What condition is indicated by a kid with dilated heart and mid-wall enhancement?
Muscular Dystrophy
## Footnote
Certain types of muscular dystrophies can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy in children.
267
When I say 'Cystic mass in the posterior neck -antenatal period,' you say _______
cystic hygroma
Associated with Turner’s syndrome + coarctation
268
When I say 'Pleural effusions, and Ascites on prenatal US,' you say _______
hydrops
269
When I say 'Massively enlarged bilateral kidneys,' you say _______
ARPKD
270
When I say 'obliteration of Raider's Triangle,' you say _______
aberrant right subclavian
271
When I say 'flat waist sign,' you say _______
left lower lobe collapse
272
When I say 'terrorist + mediastinal widening,' you say _______
Anthrax
273
When I say 'bulging fissure,' you say _______
Klebsiella
274
When I say 'dental procedure gone bad, now with jaw osteo and pneumonia,' you say _______
Actinomycosis
275
When I say 'culture negative pleural effusion, 3 months later with airspace opacity,' you say _______
TB
276
When I say 'hot-tub,' you say _______
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis
277
When I say 'halo sign,' you say _______
Fungal Pneumonia - Invasive Aspergillus
278
When I say 'reverse halo or atoll sign,' you say _______
COP
279
When I say 'finger in glove,' you say _______
ABPA
280
When I say 'ABPA,' you say _______
Asthma
281
When I say 'septic emboli + jugular vein thrombus,' you say _______
Lemierre
282
When I say 'Lemierre,' you say _______
Fusobacterium Necrophorum
283
When I say 'Paraneoplatic syndrome with SIADH,' you say _______
Small Cell Lung CA
284
When I say 'Paraneoplatic syndrome with PTH,' you say _______
Squamous Cell CA
285
When I say 'Small Cell Lung CA + Proximal Weakness,' you say _______
Lambert Eaton
286
When I say 'cavity fills with air post pneumonectomy,' you say _______
Bronchopleural Fistula
287
When I say 'malignant bronchial tumor,' you say _______
carcinoid
288
When I say 'malignant tracheal tumor,' you say _______
Adenoid Cystic
289
When I say 'AIDS patient with lung nodules, pleural effusion, and lymphadenopathy,' you say _______
Lymphoma
290
When I say 'gallium negative,' you say _______
kaposi
291
When I say 'Thallium Negative,' you say _______
Necrosis, toxoplasma
292
When I say 'Macroscopic fat and popcorn calcifications,' you say _______
Hamartoma
293
When I say 'Bizarre shaped cysts,' you say _______
LCH
294
When I say 'Lung Cysts in a TS patient,' you say _______
LAM
295
When I say 'Panlobular Emphysema - NOT Alpha 1,' you say _______
Ritalin Lung
296
When I say 'Honeycombing,' you say _______
UIP
297
When I say 'The histology was heterogeneous,' you say _______
UIP
298
When I say 'Ground Glass with Sub pleural Sparing,' you say _______
NSIP
Associated with scleroderma
299
When I say 'UIP Lungs + Parietal Pleural Thickening,' you say _______
Asbestosis
300
When I say 'Cavitation in the setting of silicosis,' you say _______
TB
301
When I say 'Air trapping seen 6 months after lung transplant,' you say _______
Chronic Rejection / Bronchiolitis Obliterans Syndrome
302
When I say 'Crazy Paving,' you say _______
PAP or COVID
303
When I say 'perivascular cysts,' you say _______
LIP
304
What does fetal macrosomia indicate?
Maternal Diabetes
## Footnote
High maternal blood sugar levels can lead to increased fetal growth.
305
What does one artery adjacent to the bladder suggest?
two vessel cord
## Footnote
A two vessel cord can indicate potential developmental anomalies.
306
When I say 'calcifications in a fatty renal mass,' you say _______
RCC
## Footnote
Renal Cell Carcinoma may present with calcifications within a fatty renal mass.
307
When I say 'protrude into the renal pelvis,' you say _______
Multilocular cystic nephroma
## Footnote
This tumor can present with multilocular cysts that may extend into the renal pelvis.
308
When I say 'no functional renal tissue,' you say _______
Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney
## Footnote
This condition is due to fetal obstructive uropathy
309
When I say 'Multicystic Dysplastic Kidney,' you say _______
contralateral renal issues (50%)
## Footnote
Patients with multicystic dysplastic kidney often have issues with the contralateral kidney.
310
When I say 'Elevated AFP, with mass in the liver of a newborn,' you say _____
Hepatoblastoma
311
When I say 'Common Bile Duct measures more than 10 mm,' you say _____
Choledochal Cyst
312
When I say 'Lipomatous pseudohypertrophy of the pancreas,' you say _____
CF
313
When I say 'Unilateral Renal Agenesis,' you say _____
unicornuate uterus
314
When I say 'Neonatal Renal Vein Thrombosis,' you say _____
maternal diabetes
315
When I say 'Neonatal Renal Artery Thrombosis,' you say _____
Misplaced Umbilical Artery Catheter
316
When I say 'Hydro on Fetal MRI,' you say _____
Posterior Urethral Valve
317
When I say 'Urachus,' you say _____
bladder Adenocarcinoma
318
When I say 'Nephroblastomatosis with Necrosis,' you say _____
Wilms
319
When I say 'Solid Renal Tumor of Infancy,' you say _____
Mesoblastic Nephroma
320
When I say 'Solid Renal Tumor of Childhood,' you say _____
Wilms
321
When I say 'Most common Renal Cell CA subtype in kids,' you say _____
Translocation Subtype
322
When I say 'Translocation Subtype Renal Cell CA,' you say _____
prior exposure to cytotoxic chemotherapy
323
When I say 'Midline pelvic mass, in a female,' you say _____
Hydrometrocolpos
324
When I say 'Right sided varicocele,' you say _____
abdominal pathology
325
When I say 'Blue Dot Sign,' you say _____
Torsion of the Testicular Appendage
326
When I say 'Hand or Foot Pain / Swelling in an Infant,' you say _____
sickle cell with hand foot syndrome
327
When I say 'Extratesticular scrotal mass,' you say _____
embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma
328
When I say 'Narrowing of the interpedicular distance,' you say _____
Achondroplasia
329
When I say 'Platyspondyly (flat vertebral bodies),' you say _____
Thanatophoric
330
When I say 'Enlarged Tonsils well after childhood (like 12-15),' you say _____
Cancer - probably lymphatic
331
When I say 'Mystery Liver Abscess in Kid,' you say _____
Chronic Granulomatous Disease
332
When I say 'Narrowed B Ring,' you say _____
Schatzi (Schat'B' ki Ring)
333
When I say 'Esophageal concentric rings,' you say _____
Eosinophilic Esophagitis
334
When I say 'shaggy' or 'plaque like' esophagus, you say _____
Candidiasis
335
When I say 'looks like candida, but an asymptomatic old lady,' you say _____
Glycogen Acanthosis
336
When I say 'Reticular mucosal pattern,' you say _____
Barretts
337
When I say 'high stricture with an associated hiatal hernia,' you say _____
Barretts
338
When I say 'abrupt shoulders,' you say _____
cancer
339
When I say 'Killian Dehiscence,' you say _____
Zenker Diverticulum
340
When I say 'transient, fine transverse folds across the esophagus,' you say _____
Feline Esophagus
341
When I say 'bird's beak,' you say _____
Achalasia
342
When I say 'solitary esophageal ulcer,' you say _____
CMV or AIDS
343
When I say 'enlarged left supraclavicular node,' you say _____
Virchow Node (GI Cancer)
344
When I say 'Subglottic Hemangioma,' you say _______
PHACES Syndrome
345
When I say 'Ropy Appearance,' you say _______
Meconium Aspiration
346
When I say 'Post Term Delivery,' you say _______
Meconium Aspiration
347
When I say 'Fluid in the Fissures,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
348
When I say 'History of c-section,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
349
When I say 'Maternal sedation,' you say _______
Transient Tachypnea
350
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Premature,' you say _______
RDS
351
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Term + High Lung Volume,' you say _______
Pneumonia
352
When I say 'Granular Opacities + Term + Low Lung Volume,' you say _______
B-Hemolytic Strep
353
When I say 'Band Like Opacities,' you say _______
Chronic Lung Disease (BPD)
354
When I say 'Linear Lucencies,' you say _______
Pulmonary Interstitial Emphysema
355
When I say 'Pulmonary Hypoplasia,' you say _______
diaphragmatic hernia
356
When I say 'Lung Cysts and Nodules,' you say _______
LCH or Papillomatosis
357
When I say 'Lower lobe bronchiectasis,' you say _______
Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia
358
When I say 'Upper lobe bronchiectasis,' you say _______
CF
359
When I say 'Posterior mediastinal mass (under 2),' you say _______
Neuroblastoma
360
When I say 'No air in the stomach,' you say _______
Esophageal Atresia
With polyhydramnios
361
When I say 'Excessive air in the stomach,' you say _______
'H' Type TE fistula
362
When I say 'Anterior Esophageal Impression,' you say _______
pulmonary sling
363
When I say 'Pulmonary Sling,' You say _______
tracheal stenosis
364
When I say 'Single Bubble,' You say _______
Gastric (antral or pyloric) atresia
365
When I say 'Double Bubble,' You say _______
duodenal atresia and downs
366
When I say 'Duodenal Atresia', You say _______
Downs
367
When I say 'Single Bubble with Distal Gas,' You say _______
maybe Mid Gut Volvulus
368
When I say 'Non-bilious vomiting', You say _______
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
369
When I say 'Paradoxial aciduria' You say _______
Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
370
When I say 'Bilious vomiting - in an infant', You say _______
Mid Gut Volvulus
371
When I say 'Corkscrew Duodenum' You say _______
Mid Gut Volvulus
372
When I say 'Reversed SMA and SMV' You say _______
Malrotation
SMA to the right of SMV
373
When I say 'Absent Gallbladder' You say _______
biliary atresia
374
When I say 'Triangle Cord Sign' You say _______
biliary atresia
375
When I say 'Asplenia', You say _______
cyanotic heart disease
376
When I say 'Infarcted Spleen,' You say _______
Sickle Cell
377
When I say 'Gall Stones,' You say _______
Sickle Cell
378
When I say 'Short Microcolon,' You say _______
Colonic Atresia
379
When I say 'Long Microcolon,' You say _______
Meconium ileus (to the ileum) or distal ileal atresia
380
When I say 'Saw tooth colon,' You say _______
Hirschsprung
Absence of the distal ganglion cells
381
When I say 'Calcified mass in the mid abdomen of a newborn', you say _______
Meconium Peritonitis
2/2 bowel perforation and meconium spillage into peritoneal cavity
382
When I say 'Meconium ileus equivalent,' you say _______
Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome (CF)
383
When I say 'Cystic mass in the liver of a newborn,' you say _______
Mesenchymal Hamartoma
