Human A&P Flashcards
(218 cards)
1
Q
[…] is formed from the effect of ultraviolet radiation on a cholesterol derivative in skin.
A
Vitamin D3 / Cholecalciferol
2
Q
[…] is derived from plants or from pills.
A
Vitamin D2 / Ergocalciferol
3
Q
Hydroxylation of vitamin D2 or D3 produces […] which stimulates intestinal absorption of calcium.
A
Calcitriol
4
Q
The vascular junction between the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary.
A
Median Eminence
5
Q
The stalk that contains the axons and blood vessels connecting the hypothalamus and posterior pituitary.
A
Infundibulum
6
Q
Inhibits Growth Hormone.
A
Somatostatin
7
Q
Inhibits Prolactin.
A
Dopamine
8
Q
Converts Testosterone to Estradiol.
A
Aromatase
9
Q
The innermost layer of the adrenal cortex ; secretes androgens and estrogens
A
Zona Reticularis
10
Q
The middle layer of the adrenal cortex ; secretes glucocorticoids (cortisol)
A
Zona Fasciculata
11
Q
The outermost layer of the adrenal cortex ; secretes mineralcorticoids (aldosterone)
A
Zona Glomerulosa
12
Q
Wasting disorder that has symptoms linked Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone receptors
A
Cachexia
13
Q
This amino acid is the derivative from which serotonin and melatonin form
A
Tryptophan
14
Q
Stimulated by FSH and produce inhibin to regulate release of FSH
A
Sertoli cells
15
Q
Produces testosterone in males, stimulated by LH
A
Leydig cells
16
Q
The derivative from which beta-lipotropin, beta-endorphin, and ACTH form
A
POMC
17
Q
The enzyme that converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II
A
ACE
18
Q
What does renin cleave?
A
Angiotensinogen
19
Q
This hormone inhibits aldosterone, decreases Na+ reabsorption, decreases BP, decreases water volume
A
ANP
20
Q
The functional cells of the thyroid gland
A
Follicles
21
Q
The protein-rich core found at the center of follicles in the thyroid gland
A
Colloid
22
Q
The process of Na+ / I- cotransporters that bring iodine into the epithelial cells
A
Iodide
23
Q
The I- / Cl- cotransporter that allows transportation of iodide into the colloid
A
Pendrin
24
Q
The main protein within colloids that contains tyrosine residues attached to iodine
A
Thyroglobulin
25
The catecholamines and thyroid hormone are all derivatives of what amino acid?
Tyrosine
26
The creation of MIT and DIT is catalyzed by what enzyme?
Thyroid Peroxidase
27
Synthesized by attachment of two DITs, contains 4 iodine atoms, thyroid prohormone
T4
28
Synthesized by the attachment of an MIT and DIT, contains 3 iodine atoms, metabolically acitve & shortlived thyroid hormone
T3
29
This hormone has permissiveness that allows the function of epinephrine
Thyroid Hormone
30
This hormone has permissiveness that allows the function of epinephrine AND ADH
Cortisol
31
Stunted growth relating to hypothyroidism during development
Cretinism
32
Fast-adapting, surface level skin receptors that measure low frequency vibrations
Meissner's corpuscle
33
Slow-adapting, surface level skin receptors that respond to light touch
Merkel's corpuscle
34
The second deepest, slowly adaptive skin receptor monitoring vibrations & deeper pressure
Pacinian corpuscle
35
The deepest, slowly adaptive skin receptor monitoring stretch
Ruffini corpuscle
36
Monitor strength and rate of muscle stretch (proprioceptors)
Spindle Stretch Receptors
37
Monitor muscle tension (propriorceptors)
Golgi Tendon Organs
38
Awareness of body parts relative to each other and balance
Proprioception
39
Awareness of the body's movement
Kinesthesia
40
Ion channel proteins that activate thermoreceptors and also respond to some ligands (menthol & capsaicin)
TRPPs
41
This enzyme is responsible for the conversion of epinephrine to norepinephrine
PNMT
42
This enzyme breaks down biogenic amines found in the synaptic cleft during the reuptake process
Monoamine oxidase
43
This derivative of dopamine is created from tyrosine as a precursor to dopamine
L-Dopa
44
The main receptors for serotonin
5hT
45
Many mood diseases are prevented by these drugs
SSRIs
46
The ability for synapses to change strength overtime
Synaptic Plasticity
47
The ability for neurons to change connections over the course of a lifetime
Neuronal Plasticity
48
These Na+ channels respond to glutamate by removing Mg2+ which allows them to also conduct Ca2+
NMDA
49
These Na+ channels exocytose as a cellular response to Ca2+ signal transduction activated by glutamate
AMPA
50
NMDA and AMPA channel pathways allow ease of stimulation for these connections in a process called [...]?
Long Term Potentiation
51
A neurotoxin that inhibits glycine and causes hyperexcitability
Strychnine
52
Swellings along an axon that are possible areas of neurotransmitter release
Varicosities
53
Motor protein responsible for anterograde transport towards the axon terminal
Kinesin
54
Motor protein responsible for retrograde transport towards the soma
Dynein
55
Protein involved in microtubule transport along axons and misfolding is linked to Alzheimer's
Tau
56
The misfolding of tau results in these structures which develop Alzheimer's
Neurofibrillary Tangles
57
This enzyme is responsible for cleaving APP and forming extracellular beta amyloids
Secretase
58
These extracellular clumps aggregate, causing Alzheimer's
Beta-Amyloids
59
These clumps form from the aggregation of Beta-amyloids and result in Alzheimer's
Amyloid Plaques
60
This purine neurotransmitter is inhibitory and builds up overtime to cause sleepfulness ; inhibited by caffeine
Adenosine
61
This excitatory neurotransmitter causes quick response and partakes in the process of nociception
ATP
62
This neurotransmitter is released from the hypothalamus in very small doses and is extremely toxic in higher concentrations
Carbon Monoxide
63
This addictive lipid found in cannabis undergoes retrograde neurotransmission
THC
64
These receptors are found in the postganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic nervous system
Muscarinic
65
These receptors are found in preganglionic neurons and skeletal muscle cells
Nicotinic
66
These receptors are found in the postganglionic neurons in the sympathetic nervous system
Adrenergic
67
This butterfly shaped column of gray matter is surrounded by the vertebral column
Spinal Cord
68
This sector of the spinal cord faces the front of the body
Dorsal Horns
69
This sector of the spinal cord faces the back of the body
Ventral Horns
70
This nerve transmits afferent and efferent neurons and diverges into the roots
Spinal Nerve
71
This tract carries transmission from afferent neurons and ascends the spinal cord for processing in the CNS
Dorsal Root
72
This tract carries transmission from efferent neurons away from the spinal cord for action in peripheral nerves
Ventral Root
73
The group of cell bodies along the dorsal root
Dorsal Root Ganglia
74
This disease not named Alzheimer's is also linked with the formation of microfibrillary tangles
Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy
75
A structure that consists of loosely arranged group of nuclei intermingled with bundles of axons that travel through the Medulla Oblongata and Pons
Reticular Formation
76
The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the auditory cortex and Wernicke's Area
Temporal Lobe
77
The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the visual cortex
Occipital Lobe
78
The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the somatosensory cortex
Parietal Lobe
79
The lobe of the cerebral cortex that contains the prefrontal cortex and Broca's area
Frontal Lobe
80
This condition describes inability of coordination and movements
Ataxia
81
This brain structure fine-tunes voluntary movements and maintains balance (proprioception)
Cerebellum
82
These common enucleated cells lack MHC I
Erythrocytes
83
These are the least common leukocytes in circulation
Basophils
84
The multipotent progenitor cells to all leukocytes
Hematopoietic stem cells
85
Somatic cells that have been reprogrammed into a state of being stem cells in humans
Induced Pluripotent stem cells
86
This autoimmune disease involves Type 4 Hypersensitivity and atrophy of the small intestine in response to gluten
Celiac Disease
87
This autoimmune disease involves Type 4 Hypersensitivity and destruction of oligodendrocytes in the CNS
Multiple Sclerosis
88
This autoimmune disease involves Type 4 Hypersensitivity and destruction of beta pancreatic islet cells
Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
89
This autoimmune disease involves Type 3 / Type 4 Hypersensitivty and deposition of antibody complexes in the joints
Rheuamtoid Arthritis
90
This autoimmune disease involves Type 3 Hypersensitivity and deposition of antibody complexes across many different places including joints, skin, blood vessels, and all the major organs
Lupus
91
This autoimmune disease involves Type 2 Hypersensitivity as antibodies block nicotinic receptors on the motor end plate of skeletal muscles
Myasthenia Gravis
92
This signaling molecule secreted by macrophages activates Helper T cells and induces the acute phase response
Tumor Necrosis Factor alpha
93
This signaling molecule secreted by antigen-presenting cells activates Helper-T cells and induces the acute phase response
Interleukin-1
94
This signaling molecule secreted by Helper T cells activates Natural Killer cells and activated macrophages, the proliferation of Helper T cells (self), and the activation of B cells
Interleukin-2
95
This type of rare sarcoma is more common in people with AIDS
Kaposi's sarcoma
96
A condition where one is born without any lymphocytes
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
97
This antibody is responsible for detecting Rh factor, and crosses the placenta
IgG
98
This antibody is responsible for detecting ABO surface proteins, is the first antibody expressed on an immature B cell, and is the first immunoglublin synthesized by a fetus after birth
IgM
99
This structure holds together the dimer/trimer IgAs and pentamer IgMs
J-chain
100
The two types of light chains are
Kappa and Lambda
101
The protease Papain would cleave an IgG into these two fragments which bind to the antigen and cell respectively
Fab and Fc
102
The Lymphoid organs found in the pharynx
Tonsils and Adenoids
103
The openings in the pharynx to lymphoid organs that initiate antigen detection in food
Crypts
104
Activation of this protein by IgG or IgM initiates the classical complementary pathway
C1
105
This protein is cleaved in the complementary pathway as the main component
C3
106
Cleaving of C3 produces this anaphylatoxin which recruits phagocytes
C3a
107
Cleaving of C3 produces this fragment that results in formation of membrane attack complexes
C3b
108
These two gasses are produced in the phagolysosome as antimicrobial agents
Nitric Oxide and Hydrogen Peroxide
109
This disease is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin D in children
Rickets
110
This disease is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin D as an adult
Osteomalacia
111
This disease is characterized by excess parathyroid hormone
Osteoporosis
112
These bone cells deposit cartilage
Chondrocytes
113
The end of a bone
Epiphysis
114
Swelling as a result of thyroid deficiency
Myxedema
115
Soluble Dietary Fiber that is utilized for measuring GFR because it is not reabsorbed or secreted at all
Inulin
116
Measures GFR but slightly overestimates because there is a slight amount of secretion
Creatinine
117
Measures effective renal plasma flow because it's completely cleared
Para-Ammunohipuric Acid
118
These diuretics work by inhibiting the Na+ / K+ / 2 Cl- cotransporters in the Ascending Loop of Henle
Loop Diuretics
119
These diuretics work by inhibtiing Na / Cl- cotransporters in the distal convoluted tubule
Thiazide Diuretics
120
These diuretics work by inhibiting aldosterone
Potassium-Sparing Diuretics
121
This hormone increases glomerular filtration rate by constricting the efferent arteriole
Angiotensin II
122
This method of affecting GFR decreases GFR by constricting both afferent and arteriole but preferentially constricting the afferent arterioles
Sympathetic Innervation
123
This hormone increases glomerular filtration rate by dilating afferent and constricting efferent
ANP
124
These smooth muscle cells are found in the glomerular capillary wall and constrict them to affect glomerular filtration rate
Mesangial cells
125
This term describes cells that manifest their own pacemaker potentials when the AV node is blocked
Ectopic Pacemakers
126
These Na+ channels in nodal cells slowly open until threshold
F-Type Na+ channels
127
These Ca2+ channels in nodal cells transiently open to reach threshold
T-Type Ca2+ channels
128
These Ca2+ channels in cardiac cells open and maintain a depolarized state, causing a longer refractory period, preventing rapid repeated stimulations and prolonged contractions (tetanus)
L-Type Ca2+ channels
129
These muscles ensure that valves open in a way that prevents backflow
Papillary Muscles
130
These are fibrous attachments that attach valves to papillary muscles
Chordae Tendineae
131
This valve connects the right ventricle and right atrium
Tricuspid valve
132
This valve connects the left ventricle and left atrium
Mitral / Bicuspid valve
133
These lipoproteins take up cholesterol and bring it to the liver, "good cholesterol"
HDLs
134
These lipoproteins carry cholesterol from cells to the liver, may accidentally deposit in blood vessels when in excess, "bad cholesterol"
LDLs
135
These lipoproteins carry triglycerides from livers to cells, they can be enriched in cholesterol and converted to LDLs
VLDLs
136
Immature erythrocytes
Reticulocytes
137
Most leaky channel
Potassium
138
Three channels that affect membrane potential
Na+/K+ cotransporter, leaky K+, leaky Na+
139
Resting membrane potential of potassium?
-90 mV
140
Resting membrane potential of chlorine?
-75 mV
141
Resting membrane potential of sodium?
+60 mv
142
List all of the following that are higher inside the cell [sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, and magnesium]
K+ and Mg2+
143
Which glial cells form tracks along which newly formed neurons migrate
Radial Glia
144
Which two glial cells can act as stem cells?
Astrocytes and Radial Glia
145
Which type of glia acts as a myelin sheath in the CNS
Oligodendrocyte
146
Which type of glia acts as a myelin sheath in the PNS
Schwann cell
147
Which type of glia is responsible for generating CSF
Ependymal cell
148
Which type of glia is responsible for forming the blood-brain barrier?
Astrocytes
149
Which type of glia are analogous to macrophages?
Microglia
150
What is the term for demyelinated portions along an axon?
Nodes of Ranvier
151
What is the term for the incremental action of action potentials jumping across Nodes of Ranvier?
Saltatory Conduction
152
Which type of synapses are the most common?
Chemical Synapses
153
Which type of synapses allow for graded potentials and summation?
Chemical Synapses
154
Where does Ca2+ come in when at the end of the axon terminal?
Outside of the cell
155
What activated protein induces fusion of the t-SNARE and v-SNARE complexes?
Synaptotagmins
156
Which type of receptor has a delayed onset?
Metabotropic
157
What type of receptors fire lots of action potentials at the start and respond quickly to the stimuli
Phasic
158
What type of receptors fire action potentials and decrease slowly when the stimuli is taken away
Tonic
159
Which two types of receptors have capsular endings and are unmyelinated?
Thermoreceptors and Nocireceptors
160
What ion channels are utilized to activate thermoreceptors?
Transient Receptor Potential Proteins
161
What type of mechanism amplifies the differences and emphasizes the primary point of action in a receptive field?
Lateral Inhibition
162
What intermediate exists in between Arginine and Nitric Oxide?
Citrulline
163
What plant-based compound activates nicotinic receptors?
Nicotine
164
What fungal compound binds and activates muscarinic receptors?
Muscarine
165
What molecule is utilized medically competitively inhibits acetylcholine in muscarinic receptors?
Atropine
166
What Indian arrowhead poison causes flaccid paralysis by competitively inhibiting nicotinic receptors?
Curare
167
What nerve agent breaks down acetylcholinesterase causing tetanic paralysis?
Sarin
168
To what amino acid and functional group respectively on acetylcholinesterase does Sarin gas bind to?
Serine and Hydroxyl
169
What bacteria destroys SNARE proteins in motor neurons, causing flaccid paralysis?
Clostridium Botulinum
170
What bacteria destroys SNARE proteins in neurons that release inhibitory neurons, causing excessive contraction?
Clostridium Tetani
171
What is the region for the cleft in between the motor neuron and muscle fiber?
Neuromuscular Junction
172
The layers of connective tissue surrounding the brain
Meninges
173
The hard outer layer meninge
Dura Mater
174
The middle web-like layer meninge
Arachnoid Mater
175
The fluid-filled cavity in between the Pia and Arachnoid Mater
Sub-Arachnoid Mater
176
The thin layer adhering to the brain surface (innermost meninge)
Pia Mater
177
The cavities in the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid
Ventricles
178
The structure in the brain composed of ependymal cells and responsible for creating CSF
Choroid Plexus
179
What kind of substances can travel through the BBB without transporters?
Hydrophobic
180
How does lateralization between the two hemispheres occur?
Corpus Callosum
181
Which brain hemisphere is responsible for logic, language processing, and analytical thinking
Left
182
Which brain hemisphere is responsible for creativity, emotions, and awareness
Right
183
The forebrain consists of which two embryonic brain tissue?
Telencephalon and Diencephalon
184
The telencephalon consists of which four important structures?
Cerebral Cortex, Hippocampus, Basal Nuclei, and Amygdala
185
The diencephalon consists of which three important structures?
Thalamus, Hypothalamus, and Retina
186
The metencephalon develops into which two structures?
Cerebellum & Pons
187
The myelencephalon develops into what structure?
Medulla Oblongata
188
The mesencephalon develops into what structure?
Midbrain
189
Which brain lobe is responsible for auditory processing
Temporal Lobe
190
Which brain lobe is responsible for decision making and formation of speech?
Frontal Lobe
191
Which brain lobe is responsible for visual processing?
Occipital Lobe
192
Which brain lobe is responsible for movement?
Parietal Lobe
193
What brain structure is responsible for storing short-term memory and integrating long-term memory?
Hippocampus
194
What almond-shaped brain structure is responsible for emotional processing such as fear?
Amygdala
195
What brain structure serves as a relays station for pretty much everything?
Thalamus
196
Which brain structure is responsible for regulating homeostasis?
Hypothalamus
197
Which brain structure contains the nucleus accumbens and striatum and is responsible for coordinating movement and happiness?
Basal Nuclei
198
Which brain structure in the basal nuclei processes happiness?
Nucleus Accumbens
199
Which brain structure in the basal nuclei interacts with the substantia nigra to coordinate movement?
Striatum
200
Which brain structure in the midbrain regulates dopamine production?
Substantia nigra
201
What region of the Substantia Nigra regulates motor control and sleep with the substantia nigra and is dysfunctional in Parkinsons?
Pars reticulata
202
What region of the Substantia Nigra is involved in dopamine that causes pleasure?
Pars compacta
203
What structure in the midbrain, when stimulated, generates feelings of pleasure?
Ventral Tegmental Area
204
What kind of drug directly stimulates VTA cells?
Opioids
205
What kind of drug inhibits reuptake of dopamine that activates VTA cells?
Amphetamines and Cocaine
206
What kind of drug inhibits cells that regulate VTA cells?
Nicotine
207
What kind of fibrous connective tissue connects muscles to bones
Tendons
208
What kind of fibrous connective tissue connects two bones at joints
Ligaments
209
What kind of fibers join connective tissue to adjacent tissue?
Reticular Fibers
210
What kind of fibers increases elasticity in tissues?
Elastic Fibers
211
What junctions relay signals between cardiac muscle cells?
Intercalated Disks
212
What type of epithelial tissue is found on abrasive surfaces such as the outer skin, lips, and anus?
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
213
What type of epithelium is found in areas of secretions such as kidney epithelium, and many exocrine and endocrine glands.
Cuboidal Epithelium
214
What type of epithelium is found at places where simple diffusion occurs such as capillaries or alveoli?
Simple Squamous Epithelium
215
What kind of ciliated epithelium is found at regions that have a mucous membrane, such as the respiratory tract?
Pseudostratified Columnar Epithelium
216
What kind of epithelium lines area where absorption and digestion is important, such as the small intestines?
Simple Columnar Epithelium
217
What kind of epithelium lines the urinary system?
Transitional Epithelium
218
