Human performance Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation?
- Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft
- Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems
- Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick
- General decrease in technical reliability
A
1,2 Correct
2
Q
If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man:
a) has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of considerably synergy
b) has less effective means of data collection that the computer
c) has less effective means of action (output) than the computer
d) is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of data collection or means of action are referred to
A
a) has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of considerably synergy
3
Q
What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the creation of their application procedures for combating problems associated with human error?
a) To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing serious consequences
b) To eliminate the risk of latent errors occurring
c) To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse their nature and modify ergonomic parameters
d) To put in place redundant alarm systems
A
a) To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing serious consequences
4
Q
A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that:
a) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequences of being out of the loop
b) it is guaranteed that the crew maintains always situational awareness
c) Crew Co-ordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromising safety
d) the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems
A
a) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequences of being out of the loop
5
Q
The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:
a) facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication on the flight deck
b) considerably improved all the communication facilities of the crew
c) reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in inter-personal relations
d) improved man-machine communication as a result of flight sensations
A
a) facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication on the flight deck
6
Q
A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is the result of:
- Tolerance of the various systems to errors
- The sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities
- The reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links
- The alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface
A
2,4 correct
7
Q
List advantages of automation:
a) Reduced workload, more time to monitor systems, and when managed properly better situational awareness
b) Easy to learn
c) Automation will generally help pilots to make last minute changes
d) All of the above are correct
A
a) Reduced workload, more time to monitor systems, and when managed properly better situational awareness
8
Q
List automation disadvantages:
a) It can be difficult to make last minute changes
b) It can be difficult to understand all the modes
c) Flight crew can lose situational awareness if they are complacent
d) All of the above are correct
A
d) All of the above are correct
9
Q
Define automation complacency:
a) Boredom and automation complacency may occur because some portions of flights are so completely automated, that pilots are lulled into inattention and are either bored or complaced
b) Automation complacency may occur because some flights are so completely automated, that pilots get tired from passive scanning, this can cause automation fatigue
A
Define automation complacency:
a) Boredom and automation complacency may occur because some portions of flights are so completely automated, that pilots are lulled into inattention and are either bored or complaced
10
Q
What is automation mode awareness?
a) It refers to what mode of awareness a crew has during automated flight
b) Examples of mode awareness include vigilance and situational awareness
c) Being aware of the active mode(s) and understanding the corresponding actions and responses is necessary for proper use of the automated system
d) A and B are correct
A
c) Being aware of the active mode(s) and understanding the corresponding actions and responses is necessary for proper use of the automated system
11
Q
Which statement about automation is correct?
- Pilots that always use autopilots can become less confident in their own basic airmanship skills
- High performing crews thoroughly discuss FMS and automation usage ahead of automation set up and especially before arrival
- The new generation of automated aircraft have generally demonstrated an improved safety record
A
All correct
12
Q
The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it may result in:
a) routine errors (slips)
b) behavioural errors
c) decision-making errors
d) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
A
a) routine errors (slips)
13
Q
Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for pilots to develop?
a) Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerability, resignation, machismo complex
b) Resignation, confidence, inattention
c) Invulnerability, under-confidence, avoidance of making decisions, lack of situational awareness
d) Machismo (machoism) complex, resignation, confidence, self-criticism
A
a) Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerability, resignation, machismo complex
14
Q
Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
a) Active listening
b) Responding with counter-arguments
c) Staying to their own point of view
d) Giving up their own point of view
A
a) Active listening
15
Q
What may become the main risk of a Laissez-faire cockpit?
a) Inversion of authority
b) Lack of communication
c) Appearance of aggressiveness
d) Disengagement of the co-pilot
Laissez-Faire = Cares little for the flight or the crew.
A
a) Inversion of authority
16
Q
A non-synergetic cockpit:
a) is characterised by withdrawn crew members and unclear communication
b) always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere
A
a) is characterised by withdrawn crew members and unclear communication
17
Q
What are the most frequent results of a self-centred captain on the flight deck?
a) In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect
b) A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is in-assertive
A
a) In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect
18
Q
How do you understand the statement “one cannot communicate”?
a) Being silent as well as inactive are non-verbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning
b) The statement above is a misprint
c) Each situation requires communication
d) You cannot influence your own communication
A
a) Being silent as well as inactive are non-verbal behaviour patterns which express a meaning
19
Q
During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The flying co-pilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a non-smoker. The captain tells him: This is your problem, and continues smoking. What should the co-pilot do?
a) He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict during the debriefing
b) He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the captain
A
a) He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict during the debriefing
20
Q
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his co-pilot on the one hand is rather inexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?
a) The captain lets the co-pilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
b) The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the co-pilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions
c) The captain lets the co-pilot fly and gives him detailed instructions what to do
d) The captain lets the co-pilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that is needed
A
a) The captain lets the co-pilot fly and observes his behaviour without any comments
21
Q
What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?
- The quality of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of communications
- A decrease in the quality of communications
- A decrease in the usage of available resources on the flight deck
- In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in a deterioration in relations between the individuals
A
1,2,4 correct
22
Q
What is characterised by a Laissez-faire cockpit?
a) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members
b) The captain’s authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
c) The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to tension between the various crew members
d) Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicitly informing the other members about them
A
a) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other crew members
23
Q
What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a highly authoritarian captain?
- Self-assertion
- A scapegoat feeling
- Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies
- Disengagement
A
2,3,4 correct
24
Q
The three types of Authority Gradient Cockpits are:
a) Autocratic, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic
b) Authoritative, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic
A
a) Autocratic, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic
25
Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern" are:
1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed
2. when situations are characterised by medium workload
3. when situations are characterised by stress
1,3 correct
26
Self-concept is how you see yourself.
a) All of us have a mental blueprint or picture of ourselves. This blueprint is composed of ideas, attitudes, values and commitments, which are influenced by our past experiences, our successes and failures, our triumphs and our humiliations.
b) It is part of our personality formed in part by way others reacted to us especially during our formative years.
Both correct
27
Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
a) are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a situation
b) are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated with them
c) form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an adult
d) are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
a) are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an object or a situation
28
# Define relationship oriented behaviour:
a) The first consideration is the feelings of others
b) The first consideration is to meet personal needs
c) First considerations are given to tasks related to the final goal
d) Low relationship oriented traits combined with low task oriented traits
a) The first consideration is the feelings of others
29
Describe task oriented behaviour:
a) The first consideration is given to the task or goal in the decision making process
b) A person who is high task oriented and low relationship oriented is considered to have an aggressive style of behaviour
c) The first consideration is to solve the tasks and duties of others
Both a and b are correct
30
What is peer pressure?
a) Self-imposed pressure by trying to live up to others performance or expectation
b) A situation where an individual is pressured to perceive (peer-pressured) to understand a complicated task
a) Self-imposed pressure by trying to live up to others performance or expectation
31
To maintain good situational awareness you should:
1. believe only in your own interpretation of the data
2. gather as much data as possible from every possible source before making inferences
3. question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to make time to review the situation
4. consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct
2,3,4 correct
32
What are the most common situational awareness problem(s)?
a) Failure to monitor flight path
b) Distractions caused by malfunctions, radio, checklists, procedures and situations not directly related to flying the aircraft
c) Misunderstandings caused by confusion, instructions, phraseology and mindsets
All correct
33
The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development of a critical situation:
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
b) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
c) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway
d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
34
Informal roles within a crew:
a) evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members
b) do not impair the captain's influence
c) characterise inefficient crews
d) are explicitly set out by the crew
a) evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members
35
Of the following statements, which apply to co-ordinated co-operation?
1. It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot
2. It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew
3. Communication in this mode has the function of synchronising actions and distributing responsibilities
4. Communication must be essentially focussed on temporal and cognitive synchronisation
1,3 correct
36
What are the advantages of co-ordination?
a) Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility
b) Interaction, cognition, redundancy
c) Redundancy, exploration, risky shift
d) Co-operation, cognition, redundancy
a) Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility
37
In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to:
1. Avoid the synchronisation of verbal and non-verbal channels
2. Send information in line with the receivers decoding abilities
3. Always concentrate on the informational aspects of the message only
4. Avoid increasing the number of communication channels, in order to simplify communication
2 is correct
38
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check list?
1. The longer a checklist, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts
2. The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the checklist
3. Checklists must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other tasks panel scan sequence should be applied 4. Whenever possible, a
5. Critical points should have redundancies
1,4,5 correct
39
The use of checklists must be carried out in such a way that:
a) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
b) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions
c) their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
a) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
40
The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible to:
1. Create a precise reference framework
2. Avoid saturation of the cognitive system
3. Automate planned actions
4. Activate knowledge which is considered necessary for the period to come
1,2,4 correct
41
Pre-thought action plans may be said to:
1. Ease access to information which may be necessary
2. Sensitise and prepare for a possible situation to come
3. Be readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the flight
4. Define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered situation
1,2,4 correct
42
Action plans (SOPs) in a cockpit must:
a) be shared by the members of the crew and updates at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy
b) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
c) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit philosophies
d) be tailored to the individual pilots needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the aircraft
a) be shared by the members of the crew and updates at each modification in order to maintain maximum synergy
43
If the co-pilot continuously feels unfairly treated by the Captain, he/she should:
a) point out the problem, concentrate on his/her duties and clarify the matter at a more appropriate time
b) speak up and point out the possible consequences if the unfair behaviour persists
c) internally retire and think positive
a) point out the problem, concentrate on his/her duties and clarify the matter at a more appropriate time
44
In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
a) not usual
b) very rare
c) not applicable with old and experienced pilots
d) not possible since correct training should have eliminated this problem
a) not usual
45
In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:
a) does not lose its importance
b) are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the increased availability which results from technical lightening of the workload
c) will increase as a result of the increase of technical dissemination of information
d) will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about by technical improvements
a) does not lose its importance
46
An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following rules should a feedback comply with?
a) The feedback should always relate to a specific situation b) The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his behaviour
c) The feedback should only be given if requested by the captain
d) The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation
a) The feedback should always relate to a specific situation
47
Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:
a) the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
b) different codes between form and meaning
c) differences in contexts for the sending and the receiver
d) a form of the message, which should not match the expectation of the receiver
a) the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
48
With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:
a) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress
b) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit their number
c) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc are stable and are not much affected by changes in workload
d) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload element to be carried out at the same time
a) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work in progress
49
Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?
1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew
2. there is little delegating of tasks
3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the flight
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and laissex-faire
1,4 correct
Task Delegating: It is easy to get overwhelmed with our personal and professional tasks. We often forget that there is only one of us and a million things we need to get done. We can’t possibly do it all or be everywhere we need to be. In order to get things done, we have to learn to let go and let others assist us. It is the only way we can focus on those tasks to which we uniquely add value - versus tasks that one does well but that others are able to do. Letting go can be hard at first. We sometimes feel like the tasks or projects in front of us our are babies or our special challenge to overcome. Initially, we may feel like we are the only ones who can do the job properly. But, other people can get the job done. It is hard at first but as time goes on it gets easier.
50
What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time pressure?
a) A strategy of preparing decisions
b) A non-sequential strategy
c) A strategy of no commitment
d) A Laissez-faire strategy
a) A strategy of preparing decisions
51
Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to conflicts?
1. Seeking arbitration
2. Actively listening to other people
3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a more emotional level
4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
1,2,4 correct
52
The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important when:
a) flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure
b) conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform
c) flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
d) flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before
a) flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure
53
A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with ground-to-crew communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of a message?
a) Listening errors
b) Errors in understanding clearance values
c) Mother tongue differing from working language
a) Listening errors
54
With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is correct?
a) All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language
b) Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective management of any flight's communication
a) All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common language
55
Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct?
a) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution
b) Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional party if it is to be effective
c) Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of involved parties
d) The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities of one of the involved parties
a) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution
56
What characterises the notion of role?
a) The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
b) Only the functions associated with role
c) The hierarchical position of the function and the associated behaviour
d) The characteristic behaviour associated with the description of the various roles of a particular status
a) The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
57
Professional languages have certain characteristics for example:
1. They use a limited vocabulary
2. They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to ambiguities
3. Their grammar is rather complicated and complex
4. Context provides meaning, therefore reduces the risk of ambiguities
1,4 correct
58
Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in connection with:
1. The variations of technical training and skills
2. Communication problems
3. Conflicting ways of management
4. Interpersonal problems
2,3,4 correct
59
What are communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must:
1. Contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible
2. Be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type
3. Be short and precise
4. Be understandable to the other crew member(s).
2,3,4 correct
60
What optimises crew co-operation?
1. Sharing and common task
2. Confidence in each other’s capability
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew member’s role
All correct
61
How effective communication is, depends heavily on:
a) the sender
b) the influencing factors
c) the receiver
d) the workload
a) the sender
62
# Define active listening
a) Active listening involves a genuine desire to understand another person's perception and sensitivity to others thoughts and feelings
b) Listening and expressing understanding of what another person has said
Both correct
63
"Feedback" in communication implies that:
a) a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning
b) Storing of messages in short time memory is available for later release
a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning
64
A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co-operative style will deal with conflict by:
a) trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
b) trying to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to re- establish a pleasant and friendly atmosphere within the team
a) trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
65
Select from the following list the advantages of teamwork:
1. Workload is lessened
2. Conformity to group norm
3. Flight safety enhanced
4. Risky Shift
5. Work stress is reduced
6. Improved decision-making
1,3,5,6 correct
66
Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the cockpit?
a) Ability to persuade others to follow their own point of view
b) Communicational skills and social competence
c) Ability to search for and examine all available information regarding a situation
d) Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of action
a) Ability to persuade others to follow their own point of view
67
Which biases relate to human decision making?
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision
4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes
1,2,3 correct
68
In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to:
a) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
b) an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead
c) the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone can contribute what he/she knows
d) the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities
a) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
69
The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:
a) distribution of tasks and crew co-ordination
b) the whole crew to focus on the problem
a) distribution of tasks and crew co-ordination
70
Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that:
a) a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible result
b) professional pilots will never question established procedures
c) one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisions
d) one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices
a) a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible result
71
The confirmation bias of decision making is:
a) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor
b) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision
c) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
d) a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before implementing one's decision
a) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor
72
In the decision-making process, confirmation bias results in:
a) a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision
b) a tendency to look for approval by other crew-members or by the ATC
c) choosing familiar solutions, even if they are not the best ones
d) over-estimating the frequency of some events
a) a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the decision
73
Arrow A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the pilot has not been through flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the engineer as to the amount of fuel to be loaded, since he is used to flying this route. This behaviour represents:
a) a decision bias due to habits (frequency bias)
a) a decision bias due to habits (frequency bias)
74
Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?
a) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared beforehand
b) The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
c) Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment
d) Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities
a) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared beforehand
75
Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight deck?
a) A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
b) A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not come up to expectations
c) A group decision must always be established prior to action
d) A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
a) A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
76
What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved?
a) Actions return to an automatic mode
b) A switch is made to knowledge-based mode in order to continue monitoring of the problem
c) A second monitoring rule must be applied
d) A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the results
a) Actions return to an automatic mode
77
Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they do not have to think up every time what they have to do:
a) this has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
b) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation
c) this is dangerous for every situation is different
d) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to comply with
a) this has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
78
Decisions made by pilots in a cockpit:
a) remain valid for a limited time only
b) are always irreversible
a) remain valid for a limited time only
79
Having made an important decision, a Commander of an aircraft should:
a) Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing
b) Explain the reasons for the decision only if time permits in the air
a) Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it is after landing
80
What are the main advantages that the human possesses over those of a machine in the decision making process?
a) Creativity, innovation, adaptability
b) The ability to analyse and compare
c) The ability to analyse and memorise
d) The ability to reach the most advantageous option from a number of choices
a) Creativity, innovation, adaptability
81
Which of the following personally characteristics makes crew decision making most effective?
a) Assertiveness
b) Friendliness
c) Competitiveness
d) General intelligence
a) Assertiveness
82
In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends:
1. on objective and subjective criteria
2. on the objective to be achieved
3. on the risks associated with each solution
4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
All correct
83
Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error? Active error is:
a) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall action
b) produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the action
c) essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule by airplane designers
d) rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations
Active Errors: Where the consequences of the error are felt almost immediately e.g. Over-rotation in a 747 can lead rapidly to a tail-strike.
Front line operators: Such as air traffic controllers, pilots and engineers.
a) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and consequences which it induces on the overall action
84
The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagels model describes various directly observable types of erroneous actions which are:
1. Repetition and omission
2. The forward leap and the backward leap
3. Intrusion and anticipation
4. Intrusion
1,2,4 correct
85
What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:
1. Remain undetected in the system for a certain length of time
2. May only manifest themselves under certain conditions
3. Are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemes on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors
4. Lull the pilots into security.
1,2,4 correct
Latent Errors: Where the consequences may lie dormant in the system for some time. e.g. Incorrectly programming a way-point in the nav database is a latent error.
86
Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from:
1. The capture of a poor action sub-programme
2. A mistake in the decision making process
3. The application of a poor rule
4. An action mode error
1,4 correct
87
According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based control mode:
a) routine errors
b) creative errors
c) knowledge errors
d) handling errors
a) routine errors
88
According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the following type(s):
a) errors of technical knowledge
b) handling errors
c) routine errors
d) creative errors
a) errors of technical knowledge
89
What are the main characteristics of active errors? They:
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress
3. are down to first-line operators
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected significantly
2,3 correct
90
Give an example of random error:
a) The rifle shoots on a target has not hit the centre. Some hits are too high and some too low
b) The rifle shoots on a target is to the right side of the centre
c) A pilot tends to forget to turn off the beacon after his/her flights
d) A pilot forgot to set the correct altimeter setting causing a controlled flight into terrain (CFIT) accident
a) The rifle shoots on a target has not hit the centre. Some hits are too high and some too low
91
How can the error chain help pilots to prevent accidents?
a) Recognition of the presence of the elements of the error chain does not - in itself - eliminate the risk of an accident. Instead, it serves as a warning to the crew that they must take correct action to manage the progress of flight in the face of rising risks
b) Correct use of the error chain will in itself prevent most accidents
c) Recognition of the presence of the elements of the error chain will eliminate the risk of an accident
d) The error chain can help flight crew minimise the effects after a serious error has caused a problem
a) Recognition of the presence of the elements of the error chain does not - in itself - eliminate the risk of an accident. Instead, it serves as a warning to the crew that they must take correct action to manage the progress of flight in the face of rising risks
92
Select the links in the error chain:
a) Ambiguity, distractions, non-one flying, no-one looking outside, non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies, departure from SOP and incomplete communications
b) Ambiguity, distractions, confusion, no-one flying, no-one looking outside, non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies, departure from SOP and incomplete communications
c) Ambiguity, distractions, confusion, no-one flying, no-one looking outside, non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies, departure from SOP and incomplete communications
d) Ambiguity, distractions, confusion, no-one flying, no-one looking outside, fatigue, non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies, departure from SOP and incomplete communications
Crazy question! All options have same items except (d) which is marked correct and has a unique item in it i.e. "Fatigue". Option (d) has 11 items in it.
93
Active errors/failures are committed at:
a) the human/system interface and have an immediate effect
b) the system/system interface and have an immediate effect
a) the human/system interface and have an immediate effect
94
An unnoticed way-point error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of:
a) Latent failure/error
b) Active failure/error
a) Latent failure/error
95
Human error rates during the performance of a simple and repetitive task can normally be expected to be approximately:
a) 1 in 10
b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 100
d) 1 in 250
a) 1 in 10
96
Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and pretty good, after methodical training:
a) 1 in 100 times
b) 1 in 1000 times
c) 1 in 10000 times
d) 1 in 100000 times
a) 1 in 100 times
97
Q.3. Which of the following human error rates can be described and pretty good realistic and pretty good after methodical training?
a) 1 in 100 times
b) 1 in 1000 times
c) 1 in 10,000 times
d) 1 in 100,000 times
b) 1 in 1000 times
98
If one error is allowed to effect a whole system, the system is described as:
a) Vulnerable
b) Error-prone
c) Corrupted
a) Vulnerable
99
Mode Error is associated with:
a) Automation
b) Hardware
c) Check lists
a) Automation
100
Organisational factors which affect or may have some influence on human error are:
1. malfunction of technical systems
2. fuel-saving policies
3. rostering
4. weather phenomena
2,3 correct
101
The causes of human error can be abundant and complex. Which of the following factors could contribute to human error?
1. Personality
2. Motivation and attitudes
3. Emotional state
4. External environmental factors
All correct
102
The errors of a motor programme are:
a) Action Slip and Environmental Capture (Habituation)
b) Action Slip and Confirmation Bias
a) Action Slip and Environmental Capture (Habituation)
103
Waiting for take-off on the runway, a pilot is informed by the tower that the tail wind component is 12 kt. According to the manual, the limitation is 10 kt max. The pilot makes a decision to take-off anyway, as the runway is long. What type of error is?
a) A violation
b) An error of reasoning
c) A decision error
a) A violation
104
Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:
a) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
b) have virtually no interaction with behaviour
c) destabilise cognitive progress and maintain the error
d) are prompted by inductive factors
a) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
105
Improvement of human reliability should entail:
a) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed
b) in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operators
c) the elimination of latent errors before they can affect performance
d) the analysis of modes of human failures
a) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors committed
106
What means can be used to combat human error?
1. Reducing error-prone mechanisms
2. Improving the way in which error is taken into account in-training
3. Sanctions against the initiators of error
4. Improving recovery from errors and its consequences
1,2,4 correct
107
What may be the origins of representation errors?
1. Perception errors
2. The catering for all available information
3. Incorrect information from the observed world
4. The receipt of a bad piece of information
1,3,4 Correct
108
Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level?
1. Omission
2. The application of a poor rule
3. Attentional capture
4. The poor application of a good rule
2,4 correct
109
A selective attentional mechanism is required:
a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory
b) because of the limitations of the sense organs
c) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
d) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory
110
Divided attention is the ability:
1. To execute several mental activities at almost the same time (ie. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel)
2. To monitor the progress of a motor programme (ie flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at the same time 9requiring a rather conscious level)
3. To select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time no other operation can be performed
4. To delegate tasks to the co-pilot while concentrating on the procedures
1,2 correct
Ability to subconsciously monitor more than one channel is referred to as "Divided Attention".
Divided attention is "alternative management of several matters of interest".
The cocktail party effect is: "the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally" (selective attention). It is associated with "attention mechanisms".
111
What are the various factors which guide attention?
1. The level of automation of behaviour
2. Response time
3. The salience of the information
4. Expectations
1,3,4 correct
112
The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively monitored input channel is known as:
a) attention
b) perception
c) sensation
d) appreciation
a) attention
113
In a complex task high levels of arousal:
a) narrow the span of attention
b) improve performance
c) lead to better decision-making
d) reduce failures
a) narrow the span of attention
114
Concentration is essential for pilots:
a) However, capacity of concentration is limited
b) It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of concentration without limits
c) Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
d) All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on resources and therefore on one's concentration
a) However, capacity of concentration is limited
115
Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to:
a) practice and experience
b) innate mechanisms
c) maturation
a) practice and experience
116
How can the process of learning be facilitated?
a) By reinforcing successful trials
b) By reinforcing errors
a) By reinforcing successful trials
117
The quality of learning:
a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
b) depends on long-term memory capacity
c) is independent of the level of motivation
d) is independent of age
a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
118
Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day professional life?
1. Being in control of one’s own situation
2. Fear of punishment
3. Success (achievement of goals)
4. Social promotion, money
All correct
119
Motivation is a quality which is often considered vital in the pilots work to maintain safety:
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
b) a high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in complete safety
c) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world
However "Excessive Motivation" imposes expectations and filters that affect our ability to fully assess the situation and any safety risks. It includes, but is not limited to, “GET HOME-itis” and an overriding sense of mission importance (e.g. “you have to go out. . .”).
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
120
Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may have on attention?
a) It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attention
b) It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
c) Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness
d) It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal
a) It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of alertness and attention
121
Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?
a) Extremely high, motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management capabilities
b) Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention
a) Extremely high, motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit attention management capabilities
122
The needs of an individual lead to:
a) a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviour
b) preservation from dangers only if social needs are being satisfied
c) no change in his motivation and consequently to the persistence of the individuals behaviour inregard to the desired outcome
d) prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high self- actualisation
The needs of an individual lead to a change in his motivation
a) a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the behaviour
123
Which of the following are included in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
1. Freedom from pain and danger
2. Expressions of capacities and talents
3. Self-esteem needs
4. Self-fulfilment needs
5. Physiological needs
All of them
124
Mental schemes correspond to:
a) memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at will
b) daily planning of probable dangerous situations
c) the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular situation
d) memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-over to a new machine
a) memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at will
125
The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in their actions. This is called:
a) procedural consistency
b) mental model
c) knowledge-based behaviour
a) procedural consistency
126
Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pre-training is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of actions.
a) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
b) It is most important for self-control
c) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination
d) It is more effective than training by doing
a) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
127
Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills:
a) at all levels of flying proficiency
b) only at a certain level of flying experience
a) at all levels of flying proficiency
128
In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity?
a) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
b) Attentional capture
c) Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
d) The unsuitability of the automated action
a) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
129
Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based level?
a) When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcome
b) The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and completely new
c) Failure of all the known rules
d) An automated cognitive check procedure
a) When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the intended outcome
130
Whilst flying a co-ordinated turn, most of your activity is:
a) skill based behaviour
b) knowledge based behaviour
c) rule based behaviour
a) skill based behaviour
131
The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions of the landing is:
a) skill based behaviour
b) always automated behaviour
c) knowledge based behaviour
a) skill based behaviour
132
Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual interference?
a) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem
b) Read and listen attentively
c) Listen attentively and solve a problem
d) Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory
a) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem
133
The Skill-based, Rule-based, Knowledge-based Model (Jens Rasmussen) is associated with:
a) behaviour
b) motor programmes
a) behaviour
134
The first stage in the information process is:
a) sensory stimulation
b) the recognition of information
c) selective attention
d) perception
a) sensory stimulation
135
According to Wickens theory, the human brain has:
a) different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the information-gathering,information-processing or action phase
b) processing capabilities which function at peak level when different tasks call for the same resources
c) unlimited information-processing resources
d) cognitive resources which are centred on action
a) different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the information-gathering,information-processing or action phase
136
The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to computers because of its:
a) flexibility
b) speed
a) flexibility
137
The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of a critical situation:
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
b) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway
c) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
138
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are:
a) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
b) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
c) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
d) solely induced in the absence of external reference points
a) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
139
The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time
b) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time
c) are virtually unlimited
d) allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness
a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same time
140
Of the following statements, select those which apply to information
1. It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers
2. It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver
3. it is measured in bits
4. Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter
2,3 correct
141
Acute stress quickly leads to:
a) the mobilisation of resources required to cope with the stressor
b) a decrease in the amount of resources mobilised to face the situation
c) a state of over-activation beyond the control of willpower
a) the mobilisation of resources required to cope with the stressor
142
Stress appears:
1. Only in a situation of imminent danger
2. Only when faced with real, existing and palpable phenomenon
3. Sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome
4. Because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situation
3,4 correct
143
What triggers stress in humans?
a) The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
b) Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation (eg rapid heart rate)
c) Objective stimulation from the environment regards of subjective perceptions
d) Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the smell of smoke
a) The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
144
Stress is above all:
a) the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the various situation which he may have to face
b) a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his performance
a) the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the various situation which he may have to face
145
An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelised attention
2. resignation, frustration, rage
3. deterioration in motor co-ordination
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
All Correct
146
Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurrence of various stressors. Of these, which can be called physiological?
a) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
b) Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
c) Heat, humidity, fatigue, administrative problems
d) Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
a) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
147
Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?
1. noise
2. interpersonal conflict
3. temperature
4. administrative problem
5. hunger
1,3,5 correct
148
A stress reaction is:
a) the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
b) the specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
a) the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
149
The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterised by:
1. activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
2. testosterone secretion which enables fats to be converted into sugar
3. a sudden fall in stress resistance
4. the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time
1,4 correct
150
Stress is:
a) a mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to face
b) a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
a) a mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which he/she may have to face
151
Arrow What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
a) The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual
b) The time available to cope with the situation
c) The objective threat of the situation
d) The unexpected outcome of the situation
a) The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual
152
According to the different phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome check the following statements:
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (ie. adrenalin) will cause a massive release of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol) assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for sustained operation
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have been generated excessively during the two proceeding phases
All correct
153
Select the correct statements:
1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful situation.
2. An individual’s prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope with it will determine the type and strength of stress.
Both correct
154
Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are:
1. nervousness and channelised attention
2. being rough at the controls
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual
4. airsickness, lack of sleep
1,2 correct
155
The behavioural effects of stress may include:
1. manifestation of aggressiveness
2. a willingness to improve communication
3. a willingness for group cohesion
4. a tendency to withdrawal
5. inappropriate gestural agitation
1,4,5 correct
156
The cognitive effects of stress may include:
1. excessive haste
2. an improvement in memory
3. a complete block: action is impossible
4. a risk of focussing on a particular aspect
5. ease of decision-making
6. an increase in the rate of mistakes
1,3,4,6 correct
157
Experiencing stress depends on:
a) the individual interpretation of the situation
b) the environment of the situation which the individual will live through or is in the process of living through
c) the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation
d) the individuals state of tiredness
a) the individual interpretation of the situation
158
The individual's perception of stress depends
a) the subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
b) the objective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
c) the pilot's increasing level of arousal
d) the conditions of the current situation only
a) the subjective evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
159
If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
a) distress
b) adaptation
a) distress
160
What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?
1. increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion
2. an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose
3. a decrease in stress resistance
4. activation of the digestive system
5. secretion of cortisol to mobilise attention
1,2,3 correct
161
# Define arousal:
a) Arousal can be defined as an individual's preparedness for a difficult task
b) A high arousal level usually indicates either a high level of activity or preparedness for a high level of activity
c) A high level of arousal is usually accompanied by a high level of vigilance and is generally the opposite of drowsiness or day-dreaming
All Correct
162
What are the effects of excessive stress?
a) It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus attention inappropriately
b) It reduces vigilance and focuses attention
a) It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus attention inappropriately
163
Among the physiological responses to stress are:
a) sweating, dry mouth and breathing difficulties
b) sweating, dry mouth and anxiety
c) increased heart rate, apprehension and sweating
d) anxiety, fatigue and fear
a) sweating, dry mouth and breathing difficulties
164
Of the following statements regarding stress, which is correct?
a) Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative
b) Stress and anxiety are the same in every sense
c) Stress and fatigue are synonymous
a) Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative
165
Signs of stress include:
a) Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing
b) Lowering of the blood pressure
c) Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart
d) Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart
There is no lowering of blood pressure or stabbing pain around heart.
a) Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing
166
In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should:
a) maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning from past experiences
b) drop activities outside work so as to focus on his work better
c) forget about bad past experiences
d) avoid anticipating events during a flight to manage his workload
a) maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning from past experiences
167
Physical stress takes place when:
a) outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body
b) the perceived demand is greater than the perceived ability
c) the brain can no longer cope due to either quantitative or qualitative overload
d) overload of the neurones in the nervous system
a) outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the body
168
Select from the following list of environmental stressors:
1. Heat
2. Humidity
3. Divorce
4. Lack of rest
5. Loss of job
6. Noise
1,2,6 Correct
169
The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress:
a) Cockpit communications
b) Cockpit synergy
c) Cockpit cohesion
d) Cockpit entity
a) Cockpit communications
170
The resistance phase of stress:
a) allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilisation of energy in the body
b) is characterised by the secretion of adrenalin, increased heart rate and bloods pressure
a) allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the mobilisation of energy in the body
171
Which of the following list may stress effect?
1. Attention
2. Concentration
3. Memory
4. Judgement
All correct
172
Which of the following statements is false?
a) Stress has essentially negative effects and the human will operate efficiently with an absence of stress
b) Behaviour is generally the outcome of personality and attitude
c) Human conflict tends to escalate
d) The initial effects of carbon monoxide poisoning are not immediately alarming
a) Stress has essentially negative effects and the human will operate efficiently with an absence of stress
173
In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by:
a) acute gastrointestinal disorders
b) cardio-vascular disorders
c) chronic pulmonary disorders
acute gastrointestinal disorders
174
Phobic states or obsessional disorders will:
a) may require successful treatment before flying may be permitted
b) always result in permanent loss of a flying licence
c) result in the loss of a Class 1 medical classification after successful treatment
d) require immediate termination of all flying duties
a) may require successful treatment before flying may be permitted
175
Among the symptoms of hypoglycaemia are:
a) Headache and lack of concentration
b) Difficulty in focussing on near-by objects
c) Double vision and puffiness around the eyes
d) Severe eye and head aches
a) Headache and lack of concentration
176
To prevent gastro-intestinal problems in tropical climates you should:
1. not eat salad or raw vegetables
2. always peel fruit
3. only eat food that has been properly cooked
4. avoid ice cream
All correct
177
Trace elements should be obtained through:
a) a balanced diet
b) vitamin pills
c) eating plenty of meat and vegetables
d) dairy products and vegetables
a) a balanced diet
178
The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is:
a) tar
b) nicotine
c) carbon monoxide
a) tar
179
The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is:
a) nicotine
b) carbon monoxide
c) tar
d) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
a) nicotine
180
Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will:
a) cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance
b) not affect night vision when flying at sea level
a) cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance
181
A slight lack of co-ordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding: "0.05% blood alcohol"
% concentration is based on g/100mL.
0.05% means 0.05g/100ml
or 50 mg/100ml
Legal limits for driving are set between 50mg/100ml and 80mg/100ml.
Blood alcohol concentrations as low as 40mg/100ml are associated with significant increases in errors committed by pilots according to a study.
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate): "is approximately 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited"
The body breaks alcohol down at the rate of about 15mg/100ml an hour.
Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may: "intensify the effects of the drugs".
Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary attitudes may be lost.
Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities: "can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia" and "Judgement and decision making can be affected".
Alcohol degrades: "paradoxical sleep"
Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mgm/100 ml take to return to normal? "4 hours"
The body breaks alcohol down at the rate of about 15mg/100ml an hour.
The organ which metabolises alcohol from the body is the "Liver"
just theory
182
The sleep pattern is closely associated with "Body Temperature"
Which is correct:
1. Paradoxic sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body
2. Paradoxic sleep decreases during the night
Both Incorrect
The final stage of sleep is the REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep. In this stage the brain activity is the same as you would get from an individual that is awake. The eyes twitch rapidly (REM) but the muscles are completely relaxed. REM sleep is also known as paradoxical sleep because apart from the relaxed muscles and the closed eyes, it is as if the person is awake. First bout of REM (paradoxical) sleep occurs for about 10 minutes. As the sleep cycle continues throughout the night, REM sleep becomes longer. A typical night sleep will contain four or five REM cycles. REM sleep increases when learning new skills. It seems to be a way of strengthening and organising memory whereas slow wave sleep increases after exercise and is associated with the restoration of the body and the reconstitution of neuron energy reserves.
183
The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night’s sleep.
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM-sleep
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the long run
Both Correct
184
During paradoxical sleep:
a) rapid eye movements can be observed
b) the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state
c) respiration is very regular
d) the rhythm of the heart is very regular
a) rapid eye movements can be observed
185
The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by:
a) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep
b) the duration of your previous sleep
c) the amount of time you have been awake
d) the number of points you have in your credit/deficit system
a is correct
