Human performance pt 2 Flashcards
1
Q
The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night’s sleep.
- Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM-sleep
- Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the long run
A
Both Correct
2
Q
During paradoxical sleep:
a) rapid eye movements can be observed
b) the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state
c) respiration is very regular
d) the rhythm of the heart is very regular
A
a) rapid eye movements can be observed
3
Q
The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by:
a) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep
b) the duration of your previous sleep
c) the amount of time you have been awake
d) the number of points you have in your credit/deficit system
A
) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep
4
Q
A fatigued pilot:
a) will show signs of increased irritability
b) is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
A
a) will show signs of increased irritability
5
Q
Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct?
a) Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of intellectual capabilities
b) Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of performance
c) Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload
d) Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a reduction in attention capabilities
A
a) Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor management of intellectual capabilities
6
Q
REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night
- REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental and physical functions than all the other sleep stages are.
A
1 false, 2 correct
7
Q
What are the main effects of a lack of sleep on performance?
a) It increases fatigue, reduces concentration and increases the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders
b) It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation
c) It causes muscular spasms
d) It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours
A
a) It increases fatigue, reduces concentration and increases the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders
8
Q
What seems to be the main role of orthodox sleep?
a) It essentially allows for physical recovery
b) it includes physical and mental recuperation associated with fatigue
c) Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and restoration of attention capabilities
d) Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and paradoxicalphases
A
a) It essentially allows for physical recovery
9
Q
Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?
- Diminished accommodation
- Slowed reactions
- Long-term memory access problems
- Being over talkative
- Diminished motor skills
A
1,2,3,5 correct
The two types of fatigue are: “Chronic, short-term and acute”
Fatigue falls into two broad categories: (1) acute fatigue (short-term), and (2) chronic fatigue (long-term).
Chronic fatigue, extending over a long period of time, usually has psychological roots. (An underlying disease is sometimes responsible, however). Continuous stain on your job, for example, can produce chronic fatigue. You may experience this condition in the form of weakness, tiredness, palpitations of the heart, breathlessness, headaches, or irritability. Sometimes chronic fatigue even creates stomach or intestinal problems and generalized aches and pains throughout the body. When the condition becomes serious enough, it can lead to emotional illness. If you suspect that you are suffering from chronic fatigue, consult your doctor. Self-help cures are rare. Above all, don’t fly!
Acute fatigue, on the other hand, is short-lived and is a normal occurrence in everyday living. It is the kind of tiredness you feel after a period of strenuous effort, excitement, or lack of sleep. Rest after exertion and 8 hours of sound sleep ordinarily cures this condition.
Source: (http://www.pilotfriend.com/aeromed/medical/fatigue.htm)
10
Q
Which statement about acute or chronic fatigue is incorrect?
a) Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots
b) Chronic fatigue may be caused by inadequate recuperation from periods of acute fatigue
c) Chronic fatigue may lead to a person being totally apathetic and indifferent to what goes on around them
d) Acute fatigue is felt after a period of significant exertion or emotional excitement
A
a) Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots
11
Q
Orientation in flight is accomplished by:
- eyes
- utriculus and sacculus
- semi-circular canals
- seat-of-the-pants-sense
A
All Correct
12
Q
What can a pilot do to avoid Flicker vertigo when flying in the clouds?
a) Switch strobe-lights off
b) Fly straight and level and avoid head movements
A
a) Switch strobe-lights off
13
Q
Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused by:
a) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
b) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz
A
a) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
14
Q
How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated instrument flight?
- Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross check
- Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling
- Ignore arising illusions
- Move the head sidewards and back and forth to shake-off illusions
A
1,2,3 Correct
15
Q
The proprioceptors do not orient an individual to his/her surroundings, but informs him/her of:
a) the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
b) the condition in the body itself
A
a) the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
16
Q
Once we have constructed a mental model we tend:
a) to give undue weight to information that confirms the model
b) to alter that model unnecessarily frequently
c) to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
d) to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
A
a) to give undue weight to information that confirms the model
17
Q
Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are:
- classic and resistant when flying in IMC
- sensed via impressions of rotation
- sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft
- considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMC
A
All correct
18
Q
Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?
a) The intensity of the stimuli
b) The separation of figure and background
c) The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory
d) The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory
A
a) The intensity of the stimuli
19
Q
What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism?
a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected
b) They always lead to routine errors
c) The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information
d) The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions
A
a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected
20
Q
Conscious perception:
a) is a mental process involving experience and expectations
b) relates to the correct recognition of colours
c) relies upon the development of intuition
d) involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the brain only
A
a) is a mental process involving experience and expectations
21
Q
Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular system?
- Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
- Auto-kinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
- Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects
- Illusions of rotation
A
1 and 4 Correct
22
Q
What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should:
a) make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be induced
b) be aware that approaches over down-sloping terrain will make him believe that he is higher than actual
A
a) make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be induced
23
Q
The Leans or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:
a) going into a turn to quickly
b) bunting the aircraft
c) prolonging a turn
d) a carrier take-off
A
c) prolonging a turn
24
Q
What is the name for the sensation of rotation occurring during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of several semi-circular canals at the same time?
a) Pilot’s vertigo
b) Seat-of-the-Pants illusions
c) Graveyard spin
A
a) Pilot’s vertigo
25
A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn, experiences:
a) coriolis illusion
b) pressure vertigo
a) coriolis illusion
26
Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of:
a) Pilot's vertigo
b) Flicker-vertigo
c) Oculogravic illusion
a) Pilot's vertigo
27
Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids (eg. VASIs) can make the pilot believe of being:
a) higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
b) higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (ducking under)
Illusion of being "High" will make you "Low".
b) higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (ducking under)
28
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold. Possible danger is:
a) approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
b) to drop far below the glide path
c) approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
c) approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
29
To prevent the auto-kinetic phenomena, the following can be done:
a) look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision also
b) look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
a) look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using peripheral vision also
30
Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:
1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. having a cold
1,2,4 Correct
31
A shining light is fading out (ie. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get?
a) The source of light moves away from him
b) The light source will make the pilot believe that he is climbing
c) The source of light stands still
d) The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
) The source of light moves away from him
32
A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a:
a) greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
b) greater height and the impression of landing short
a) greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
33
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a:
a) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
b) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
a) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
34
With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:
a) are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system
b) originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual perceptions
c) are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
d) are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception between the various members of a crew
a) are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system
35
An illusion of obtaining greater height above ground can occur when:
a) suddenly flying over small trees after prolonged flying over tall trees
b) flying over high terrain in low visibility
a) suddenly flying over small trees after prolonged flying over tall trees
36
The General Adaptation Syndrome is associated with the:
a) CNS (Central Nervous System)
b) ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)
c) PNS (Peripheral Nervous System)
b) ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)
37
The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the:
a) utriculus and sacculus
b) semi-circular canals
c) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts
d) skin of the breech only
c) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body parts
38
The PNS passes information from:
a) sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves
b) the brain to all parts of the body through sensory and motor nerves
c) the brain to all parts of the body through sensory nerves
a) sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves
39
The nervous system cells are capable of:
a) Slow generalised activity
b) Stimulating the rate of recognition
c) Efficient and rapid activity
d) Both A and C are correct
d) Both A and C are correct
40
List the brain's most important parts:
a) Brain stem, cerebellum and cerebrum
b) Reflex centre, cerebellum and the brain stem
a) Brain stem, cerebellum and cerebrum
41
Which part of the body acts as a reflex centre for the co-ordination of equilibrium?
a) The cerebellum
b) The brain stem
c) The cerebrum
a) The cerebellum
42
The 5 human senses tend to adapt - True Statement.
Sensory adaptation is a phenomenon in which sensory neurons change their level of sensitivity to a constant stimulus over time. This adaptation allows people to adapt to their environments while balancing the need to receive new sensory input. Neurons involved with smell, hearing, taste, touch, and sight can all exhibit sensory adaptation. e.g. When someone emerges from a dark movie theater on a matinee day, the sunlight outside seems painfully bright. Within minutes, the eyes have adapted, and the light level feels comfortable and normal. The level of light has not changed. The receptors inside the eye have adjusted their sensitivity, recognizing that they need to be less sensitive to light to avoid damaging the retina. Conversely, someone walking into a movie theater will undergo the opposite, with the eyes increasing sensitivity to light to pick up all available visual information. The only neurons which do not are "nociceptors", the neurons involved in the sensation of pain. This is why the smell of a severe burn appears to dissipate quickly, while the pain lingers.
The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) regulates:
a) sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaptation Syndrome
b) reflexes, body temperature and reasoning
c) motor programmes and reflexes
d) reflexes only
a) sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaptation Syndrome
43
Metabolism is the generation and utilisation of energy by the body's cells and tissues.
The body obtains its energy from "carbohydrates, protein and fats"
One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is "Water".
One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is: "Carbon Dioxide".
Which of the following is most true?
a) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
b) Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate
c) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight
d) Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose weight
a) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
44
Our body takes its energy from:
1. minerals
2. protein
3. carbohydrates
4. vitamins
2,3 correct
45
Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by external stimulations. This internal equilibrium is called:
a) Homeostasis
b) Heterostasis
c) Isothermy
d) Metastasis
a) Homeostasis
46
Pilots should not take antihistamines because they may cause:
1. Drowsiness and dizziness
2. Hypoglycaemia
3. Hyperventilation
4. Flatulence
Only 1 is correct.
47
The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on qualification to fly for the following reasons:
1. The disease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment
3. Drugs my cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety
4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when the treatment is stopped
All correct
48
Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects:
1. Drowsiness, dizziness
2. Dry mouth
3. Headaches
4. Impaired depth perception
5. Nausea
All correct
49
Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by:
a) the semi-circular canals
b) the saccule and the ultricle
c) the cochlea
a) the semi-circular canals
50
The vestibular system is composed of:
1. two ventricles
2. a saccule
3. an utricle
4. three semi-circular channels
2,3,4 Correct
51
The vestibular organ:
a) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
b) gives the impression of hearing
c) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
d) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
a) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
52
The semi-circular canals monitor:
a) angular accelerations
b) gravity
a) angular accelerations
53
Which flight-manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while:
a) banking
b) descending
c) climbing
d) flying straight and level
a) banking
54
What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?
1. Avoid turbulences
2. Avoid flying through rough weather
3. Seat passenger close to the centre of gravity
4. Give pertinent information
All correct
55
The cupula in the semi-circular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is because:
a) the fluid (endolymph) within the semi-circular canal lags behind the accelerated canal walls
b) the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression
c) the fluid (endolymph) will precede the accelerated canal walls
d) the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds
a) the fluid (endolymph) within the semi-circular canal lags behind the accelerated canal walls
56
Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion sickness?
1. Hearing
2. The vestibular system
3. Vision
4. The propioceptive senses Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
5. The gastrointestinal system
2,3,4 correct
57
The small sacs located in the vestibule are:
a) Chalk-like crystals called otoliths
b) Sacs with sensory hairs
c) Crystals in the semi-circular canals
d) Both B and C are correct
a) Chalk-like crystals called otoliths
58
How is a roll change sensed?
a) Hairs in the semi-circular canals sense fluid motion caused by roll, the vestibular nerve is stimulated and the nerve impulses transmitted to the brain
b) Roll change is sensed by chalk-like crystals, the vestibular nerve is stimulated and the nerve impulses transmitted to the brain
a) Hairs in the semi-circular canals sense fluid motion caused by roll, the vestibular nerve is stimulated and the nerve impulses transmitted to the brain
59
The human vestibular system performs spatial orientation by:
a) measuring linear and radial acceleration within the inner ear
b) comparing linear and radial speeds of the body to the attitude of the aircraft
a) measuring linear and radial acceleration within the inner ear
60
If a stop-over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is to:
a) No adjustment is necessary
b) Stay on home time and, on arrival, move to the new time
c) Stay on home time
d) Move to the new time as soon as possible
d) Move to the new time as soon as possible
61
Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3rd day?
a) LT (local time)
b) ZT (zonal time)
c) MEZ (middle European time)
d) UTC (universal time co-ordinated)
a) LT (local time)
62
In order to minimise the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hours, it is advisable to:
1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the arrival country
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure country for as long as possible
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking, sleeping, alternation and regular meal pattern)
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome negative arousal effects
2,3 correct
63
Disturbance of the biological clock is most likely to appear after a:
1. bad night’s sleep
2. day flight Amsterdam – New York
3. day flight Amsterdam – Johannesburg
4. night flight New York – Amsterdam
2,4 correct
64
is defined as a temperature greater than 37.5 – 38.3 deg C, depending on the reference, that occurs without a change in the body's temperature set-point. The normal human body temperature in a healthy adult can be as high as 37.7 deg C in the late afternoon. Hyperthermia requires an elevation from the temperature that would otherwise be expected. Such elevations range from mild to extreme; body temperatures above 40 deg C can be life-threatening.
Source: (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hyperthermia)
The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38 deg C:
a) impairment of physical and mental performance
b) nothing significant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at 39 deg C
a) impairment of physical and mental performance
65
Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct?
a. Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature
b. Complete adaptation to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight
b. Complete adaptation to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight
66
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Modern aircraft allow for 50 – 60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is satisfactory for the body
2. Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration
3. Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue
4. Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost
2 and 3 correct
Hypothermia is defined as having a core body temperature less than 95 degrees F or 35 degrees C. The body starts to slow as the temperature drops. Aside from the cold that is felt and the shivering that may occur, mental function is most affected initially. A particular danger of hypothermia is that it develops gradually, and since it affects thinking and reasoning, it may go unnoticed.
Initial hunger and nausea will give way to apathy as the core body temperature drops. This is followed by confusion, lethargy, slurred speech, loss of consciousness, and coma. Often the affected person will lie down, fall asleep, and die. In some cases, the patient will paradoxically remove their clothes just before this occurs.
The decrease in brain function occurs in direct relationship to the decrease in body temperature (the colder the body, the less the brain function). Brain function stops at a core temperature of 68 F (20 C). The heart is subject to abnormal electrical rhythms as hypothermia progresses. Ventricular fibrillation, a disorganized rhythm in which the heart is unable to pump, may occur at core temperatures below 82.4 F (28 C). This is one type of cardiac arrest.
37 deg C ------------- Normal Body Temp
Below 35 deg C ---- Hypothermia Starts
35 to 32 deg C ----- Mild hypothermia: Shivering, lethargy, apathy, confusion, rapid heart rate.
32 to 28 deg C ----- Moderate hypothermia: Shivering stops, increased confusion or delirium, slowing heart rate (may be come irregular).
Below 28 deg C ---- Severe Hypothermia: Coma, ventricular fibrillation, person may appear deceased.
20 deg C ------------- Brain activity stops
Source: (http://www.medicinenet.com/hypothermia/page3.htm)
67
One of the dangers of extreme cold is that:
a) sleepiness occurs very quickly with a feeling of agitation
b) sleepiness occurs very slowly with a feeling of alertness
c) sleepiness occurs associated with a feeling of contentment or apathy
d) it degrades the fatty tissues of the body
c) sleepiness occurs associated with a feeling of contentment or apathy
68
One of the earliest and most significant features of Hypothermia (extreme cold) is:
a) apathy
b) aggression
c) anxiety
d) aggression and anxiety
a) apathy
69
When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating):
a) his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious
b) his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be Increased
Cold increases the body's demand for oxygen which is required to burn carbohydrates in order to generate heat to keep the body warm. "b" is wrong because in this condition tolerance to hypoxia will decrease.
a) his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious
70
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities
2. Man has effective natural protection against intense cold
3. Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot of energy
4. Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of less than 35 deg C
1,3,4 correct
71
We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia:
a) reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37deg C
b) greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere
a) reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37deg C
72
The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below 35 deg C:
a) shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy
b) the appearance of intense shivering
c) mental disorders, and even coma
a) shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy
73
What are the main limits of short-term memory? It is:
1. very sensitive to interruptions and interference 2,difficult to access
3. limited in size
4. subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
1,3,4 Correct
74
What we now call "working memory" was referred to as "short-term memory". Most theorists today use the concept of "working memory" to replace or include the older concept of "short-term memory".
Arrow Working memory:
a) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content
b) is unlimited in size
c) is unlimited in duration
d) varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot
a) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content
75
Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory?
1. It is limited in time and size
2. It is unlimited in time and limited in size
3. It is stable and insensitive to disturbance
4. It is limited in time and unlimited in size
1 is correct
76
Working memory enables us, for example:
a) to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
b) to remember our own name
c) to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds
d) to ignore messages for other aircraft
a) to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
77
The main limit(s) of long-term is (are):
a) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
b) the data storage time
c) the quantity of data which may be stored
d) the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which comes to saturate it
a) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
78
Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?
1. Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic knowledge
2. The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the frequency with which this same information is used
3. It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time
4. Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time
1,4 correct
79
To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory, it is helpful to:
a) mentally rehearse information before it is needed
b) learn and store data in a logical and structured way
c) avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon
d) structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it to memory
a) mentally rehearse information before it is needed
80
Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and expertise:
a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory
b) Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis
c) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
d) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working memory
81
Short-term memory is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining data.
Information received from the senses is lost:
a) within 10 - 20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the Long Term Memory
b) if an additional action takes place (eg. pulling a circuit breaker or extinguishing a warning light)
c) if you choose to store the information in one of the sensory memories (eg. Iconic or Echoic memories)
a) within 10 - 20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the Long Term Memory
82
Name the commonest problem of the Long Term Memory and how would you counteract it?
a) Unless an item \is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult to retrieve from the LTM store
b) Any item can be recalled from the LTM with ease as long as it has been stored correctly
a) Unless an item \is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult to retrieve from the LTM store
83
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights should be delayed for 24 hours.
Arrow Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10m depth) are "forbidden".
Arrow After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time before flying again. This period is at least: "24 hours"
no question asked
84
Dysbarism refers to the various medical problems caused by gas expansion induced by decreased barometric pressure.
Barotrauma is due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities on the body and the ambient pressure.
Incapacitation caused by barotraumas from gaseous expansion after decompression at high altitude may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:
1. digestive tract
2. ears
3. eyes
4. sinuses
:
1. digestive tract
85
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8000 feet. You advise him to:
1. unbuckle and massage the belly
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbohydrated beverages before flight in the future
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight
1,2,3 correct
86
Among the factors which affect acuity are:
a) Smoking, colour blindness and angular distance from the fovea
b) Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea
c) Colour blindness, alcohol and angular distance from the fovea
d) Colour blindness, visibility and angular distance from the fovea
b) Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea
87
To optimise ones night-vision performance, it is necessary:
1. to spend some time getting adapted
2. to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting
d to low levels of illumination
3. not to focus on the point to be observed
4. to avoid blinding
1,3,4 Correct
The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision "are the rods".
The fovea "is an area in which cones predominate"
"Pupil" controls the amount of light which strikes the retina.
The time required for complete adaptation is:
For high levels of illumination - 10 sec.
For full dark adaptation - 30 min.
Adaptation is the adjustment of eyes to high or low levels of illumination.
Empty field myopia is caused by "lack of distant focal points".
Without anything to focus on the eye will relax to a natural focal point some one to two metres away, making the pilot effectively short sighted. Unless the eye is forced to focus on distant objects, this empty field myopia can mean that otherwise visible targets are not identified because they are blurred and out of focus.
Although we have a field of vision of more than 180 deg, it is important during flight to use the scanning technique, because "only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly"
What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)? "Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness".
88
In order to get colour vision, it is necessary:
1. for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)
2. at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15o
3. to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light
4. to avoid white light
1. for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)
89
Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?
a) Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive cells
b) Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
c) The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on vitamin A
b) Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
90
When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from flash blindness by:
(a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights
(b) looking inside the cockpit
(c) wearing sunglasses
(d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
All correct.
91
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone
2. The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods
3. The rods allow for night vision
4. The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina
1,3 correct
92
We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for:
a) the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data
b) the analysis of visual signals
a) the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data
93
Visual disturbances can be caused by:
1. hyperventilation
2. hypoxia
3. hypertension
4. fatigue
1,2,4 correct
The retina of the eye is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors essential for vision.
When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about: "Myopia", commonly called "Nearsightedness".
Among the factors which affect night vision are: "Age, cabin altitudes above 8000 ft, smoking and alcohol"
94
Depth perception when objects are close (
a) seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)
95
What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?
a) Fast speed
b) Acceleration
a) Fast speed
96
Glaucoma is high intra-ocular pressure. It:
1. can lead to total blindness
2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field
3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
All Correct.
97
With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is due to the functioning of rods
2. It enables details, colours and movement to be seen
3. Its very active both during the day and at night
4. It represents a zone where about 150,000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity
2,4 correct
98
The iris main purpose is to:
a) Control the size, or diameter of the pupil
b) They let light into the eye
a) Control the size, or diameter of the pupil
99
What is the day blind spot?
a) The optic nerve has no rods and cones which creates a blind spot
b) An area around the fovea is over-stimulated by bright daylight which creates a day blind spot
a) The optic nerve has no rods and cones which creates a blind spot
100
What is rhodopsin?
a) A chemical called visual purple which sometimes is present in rod cells
b) A chemical always present in rod cells
a) A chemical called visual purple which sometimes is present in rod cells
101
Why are the eyes more sensitive (better night vision), after 30- 45 minutes in a dark environment?
a) Light bleaches out visual purple (rhodopsin)
b) For night vision to take place, visual purple must build up in the rods
both correct
102
What is referred to as stereoscopic vision?
a) The ability to focus both eyes on a single object
b) Motion parallax
c) Apparent foreshortening
d) The lack of ability to focus both eyes on a single object
a) The ability to focus both eyes on a single object
103
Vision of terrain relief (eg. hills, valleys, etc)
a) is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective for objects that are further away
b) is impossible with only one eye
c) is possible at only at distances over 200m due to binocular vision
d) is impossible if a pilot wears sunglasses
a) is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion and perspective for objects that are further away
104
what factors can lead to a deterioration in vision?
1. Hypoxia
2. Smoking
3. Poor diet, lacking Vitamin A
4. Exposure to bright lights
All correct
105
Astigmatism is:
a) A condition caused by an unequal curvature of the lens of the eye
b) A condition caused by an equal curvature of the cornea
a) A condition caused by an unequal curvature of the lens of the eye
106
Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:
1. anaemia
2. smoking in the cockpit
3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
All correct - based on low oxygen level in the blood
107
Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses):
a) can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to the dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass
b) are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects
c) are advantageous for pilots
d) are generally forbidden for pilots
a) can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to the dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass
108
Glaucoma is characterised by:
1. disturbed light adaptation
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field
3. insidious onset and concealed progression
4. an increase in intro-ocular pressure
2,3,4 correct
109
The phenomena called empty-field myopia is a problem for pilots when:
a) Attempting to scan for traffic in a featureless sky
b) Wearing polarised lenses
c) Scanning for traffic at night (night blind spot)
d) An object appears to have different shapes when viewed at varying distances
a) Attempting to scan for traffic in a featureless sky
110
What is presbyopia?
a) A result of the normal ageing process
b) Presbyopia causes the lens to harden (loss of elasticity)
Both correct
111
A barotraumas of the middle ear is?
a) an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the ear drum
b) a dilation of the Eustachian tube
a) an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure on either side of the ear drum
112
Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by:
a) noises in the ear
b) dizziness
c) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
c) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
113
What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)?
a) Stop climbing, start descent
b) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva).
b) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva).
114
Presbycusis causes loss of:
a) High tones
b) Low tones
c) Both equally
d) Can be prevented by ear plugs
a) High tones
115
Excessive exposure to noise damages:
a) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea
b) the eardrum
a) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea
116
The inner ear is able to perceive:
1. angular acceleration
2. linear acceleration
3. noise
All correct
117
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:
1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
3. an obstruction in the outer ear
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
1,3,4 Correct. 2 is False
Conductive Hearing Loss occurs when there is a problem conducting sound waves anywhere along the route through the outer ear, tympanic membrane (eardrum), or middle ear (ossicles). This type of hearing loss may occur in conjunction with sensorineural hearing loss or alone.
Sensorineural Hearing Loss (SNHL) is a type of hearing loss in which the root cause lies in the vestibulocochlear nerve, the inner ear, or central processing centers of the brain.
118
Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in:
a) noise induced hearing loss
b) conductive hearing loss
c) presbycusis (effects of aging)
d) a ruptured ear drum
a) noise induced hearing loss
119
How can you determine if a person is suffering a barotraumas of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis)?
a) Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
b) Barotrauma of the middle ear will not affect hearing
c) Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
d) There is no difference
a) Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
120
How can noise damage hearing?
a) Exposure to loud noise may fatigue the hair cells so much that they need several hours of quiet before they can revert to their normal state
b) If noise exposure is loud enough or continues too long, these hair cells may not return to theirnormal state
Both correct
121
By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer ear be balanced?
a) By swallowing
b) By breathing in
c) By breathing out
d) By coughing
a) By swallowing
122
The circulatory system, among other things, allows for:
1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide
2. transportation of information by chemical substances
Both correct. The circulatory system is the transport system for endocrine information. While the nervous system uses neurons, the endocrine chemicals and hormones must circulate through the body via blood vessels.
With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about 5 litres/min.
Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume
72 x 70 = 5040 ml or 5 litres.
123
Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?
a) High blood pressure only
b) Low blood pressure only
c) High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system
c) High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory system
124
When the pressure receptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which result in:
1. an increase of respiratory activity
2. the arteriols to constrict
3. an increase of cardiac output
4. the heart rate to rise
Signalling means "detecting or sensing". The given options gives a clue that one out of the four points is false. It has to be 1 as it is the odd one out. Things happen according to point 2,3,4 when low blood pressure is detected.
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
125
Which of the following statements is correct? The blood-pressure which is measured during flight medical checks is the pressure:
a) in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body)
b) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
b) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
126
Blood-pressure depends on:
1. the cardiac output
2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)
Both Correct
127
The blood-pressure depends on:
1. the work of the heart
2. the peripheral resistance
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls
4. the blood volume and viscosity
All Correct
You should not dispense blood without prior information from your flight surgeon. The most important reason for this advise is that "you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood donation".
The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic): 120/80 mm Hg
The pressureceptors are located in the carotid and aortic arterial vessels. They measure changes in blood-pressure.
In the pulmonary artery there is "oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood"
Pulmonary artery takes blood from the heart to the lungs for purification thats why it has oxygen defecient blood. On the contrary, pulmonary vein will have more oxygen and less CO2 since it brings blood back to the heart from lungs. This is an exception to the general circulation where arteries contain pure-oxygen rich blood as compared to veins.
128
The part of blood without cell is called:
a) serum
b) water
c) plasma
d) lymph
c) plasma
129
What is heart infarct?
b) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will almost always lead to a heart attack
d) A heart infarct is the same as a heart attack
b) A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will almost always lead to a heart attack
130
How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body?
a) Diffusion
b) Oxidisation
c) Circulation
d) Metabolism
c) Circulation
131
When assessing an individual’s risk in developing coronary artery disease, the following factors may contribute:
1. obesity
2. distress
3. smoking
4. family history
All correct
132
What may predispose a person for a heart attack?
a) Smoking, high cholesterol level, diet or blood pressure
b) Smoking, asthma, alcohol use and high blood pressure
c) Age and stress
d) Family history of asthma, smoking, over exertion and weight
a) Smoking, high cholesterol level, diet or blood pressure
133
The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off:
1. take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight
2. assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of the doctor
3. if in doubt about fitness to fly – do not fly
4. reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to avoid dehydration
2,3 marked correct
134
A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
a) don an oxygen mask
b) talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously
b) talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously
135
Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood:
a) to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain
b) to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the haemoglobin at lung area
b) to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the haemoglobin at lung area
136
Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:
a) oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will be supplied with more blood than normal
b) oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased
c) not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
d) blood circulation to the brain is slowed down
d) blood circulation to the brain is slowed down
137
Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?
1. Dizziness
2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
4. Cyanosis
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
c) 1 is false, all others are correct
d) 2 and 4 are false
) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
138
When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
a) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes
b) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia
c) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
d) a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood
hypocapnia --> alkalosis --> vasoconstriction
c) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
139
What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing
2. Anxiety or fear
3. Overstress
4. Strong pain
5. Jogging
All Correct except 5
140
During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating you should:
a) use the oxygen mask
b) control your rate and depth of breathing
b) control your rate and depth of breathing
141
In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning:
a) Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness
b) High levels of arousal, increased error proneness
c) Euphoria, accommodation problems, blurred vision
d) Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing
a) Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness
142
Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to:
1. loss of muscular power
2. headache
3. impaired judgement
4. pain in the joints
5. loss of consciousness
a) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct
143
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
a) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning
b) A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria
a) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning
144
Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?
a) It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smokers physiological altitude
b) It combines 5 times faster to the haemoglobin than oxygen
a) It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smokers physiological altitude
145
Carbon Monoxide is particularly dangerous because:
1. It's initial symptoms are not alarming
2. It is colourless
3. It is odourless
4. It is highly toxic
5. Its effects are cumulative
All correct
Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get: "a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxia".
146
In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):
1. do not exist
2. have slight physiological consequences
3. may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness
4. cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
a) 2, 4
b) 1
c) 3, 4
d) 3
a) 2, 4
147
Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
1. Decrease in heart rate
2. Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
3. Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
4. Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1
d) 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
148
Tunnel vision (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:
a) +3.5 Gx
b) -3.5 Gz
c +3.5 Gz
d) -3.5Gy
c +3.5 Gz
149
Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-pressure in the brain to "decrease".
"A tilt back seat" can reduce the chance of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres.
Body can tolerate short term exposure to as much as 25G in the vertical axis (+25Gz) and 45G in the fore/aft axis. Thus tilting of the seat decreases the vertical axis and increases fore/aft axis (in ref to accelerating upwards).
During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is: grey-out --> tunnel vision --> black-out --> unconsciousness.
The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial acceleration is "grey-out".
Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body:
a) change blood pressure and blood volume distribution in the body
b) will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative force acts across thebody at right angles to the body axis
c) will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs
Long axis is the head-foot axis.
a) change blood pressure and blood volume distribution in the body
150
What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the pilot?
a) Transverse acceleration (+Gy)
b) Linear acceleration (+Gx)
c) Radial acceleration (+Gz)
d) Combined linear and transverse acceleration
c) Radial acceleration (+Gz)
151
Flying a co-ordinated level turn will:
a) make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body's vertical axis
b) make the body's pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body's vertical axis
b) make the body's pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body's vertical axis
152
When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be:
a) radial acceleration
b) angular acceleration
b) angular acceleration
153
We know that transverse accelerations (Gy):
1. are above all active in turns and pull-outs
2. are present during take-off and landing
3. are rare during routine flights
4. often lead to loss of consciousness
3. are rare during routine flights
154
Among the factors that increase tolerance to long duration g forces are:
a) Bending forward or supine body position and tensing of abdominal
b) Correct use of pilot's harness and tensing of abdominal muscles
c) Anti-g suits and correct use of pilot's harness
d) Tensing the leg muscles and correct use of pilot's harness
"Harness" does not help.
a) Bending forward or supine body position and tensing of abdominal muscles
155
The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:
1. the duration of the G-forces
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-forces
All Correct
156
The ability to withstand g forces is reduced by a number of factors, among these factors are:
a) Low blood sugar, obesity and hypoxia
b) Hypoxia, fatigue and vibrations
c) Smoking, obesity and vibrations
d) Physical fitness, heat and hypotension
a) Low blood sugar, obesity and hypoxia
157
Dalton's law explains the occurrence of:
a) creeps
b) bends
c) decompression sickness
d) altitude hypoxia
d) altitude hypoxia
158
The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are:
a) breathlessness and reduced night vision
b) euphoria and impairment of judgement
c) hyperventilation
d) sensation of heat and blurred vision
b) euphoria and impairment of judgement
159
What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression?
a) Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement, memory disorders
b) Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature impairment of judgement
a) Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement, memory disorders
160
The effect of hypoxia to vision:
a) is usual stronger with the cones
b) is stronger with the rods
c) does not depend on the level of illumination
b) is stronger with the rods
161
Flying at pressure altitude of 10000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude:
a) above 10,000 ft
b) lower than 10,000 ft
a) above 10,000 ft
162
Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to hypoxia?
1. Fatigue
2. Euphoria
3. Lack of concentration
4. Pain in the joints
5. Sensation of suffocation
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 4 and 5 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) Only 5 is false
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
163
Hypoxia can occur because:
a) you are hyperventilating
b) the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude
a) you are hyperventilating
164
Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?
a) Tingling sensations in arms or legs
b) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails)
c) Severe headache
d) Euphoria
a) Tingling sensations in arms or legs
165
Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?
a) Dizziness
b) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions
c) Lack of adaptation
d) Adaptation
b) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions
166
In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
a) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.
b) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues,leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions
b) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the body tissues,leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions
167
Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:
1. euphoria
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
4. visual disturbances
1,3,4 Correct
168
Hypoxia effects visual performance. A pilot may:
a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision
b) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 ft AGL
c) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 ft AGL
a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision
169
The severity of hypoxia depends on the:
1. rate of decompression
2. physical fitness
3. flight level
4. individual tolerance
All correct
170
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?
1. Blue lips and finger nails
2. Euphoria
3. Flatulence
4. Unconsciousness
1,2 and 4 correct.
171
Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?
1. Descend below 10,000 ft
2. Breathe 100% oxygen
3. Climb to or above 10,000 ft
4. Reduce physical activities
1,2 and 4 correct
172
List the four major types of hypoxia, which are classified according to the cause of the hypoxia:
a) Hypoxic, hypaemic, stagnant and histotoxic
b) Hypoxic, hypaemic, hyperventic and histotoxic
a) Hypoxic, hypaemic, stagnant and histotoxic
173
Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
a) Motor co-ordination
b) Night vision
b) Night vision
174
Preventing hypoxia at altitude is achieved by:
a) pressurising the air inside the aircraft to maintain oxygen saturation in blood of 30%
b) pressurising the air inside the aircraft to achieve oxygen saturation in blood of more than 90%
b) pressurising the air inside the aircraft to achieve oxygen saturation in blood of more than 90%
175
Night vision is significantly reduced (ie. a loss of more than 25%) at 15,000 ft in which stage of hypoxia?
a) Compensatory
b) Clinical manifestation phase
c) Indifferent
d) Anaemic phase
a) Compensatory
176
Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase):
a) between 3000 m and 5000 m
b) between 5000 m and 7000 m
c) below 3000 m
d) up to 5000 m
c) below 3000 m
177
Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:
a) 12000 ft
b) 8000 ft
c) 15000 ft
d) 20000 ft
b) 8000 ft
178
When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia, short-term memory impairment starts at approximately:
a) 10,000 ft
b) 12,000 ft
b) 12,000 ft
179
Flying a non-pressurised light aircraft at 9,000 feet your passenger develops blue lips:
a) assuming he is suffering from hypoxia you reduce altitude and supply him/her with oxygen
b) you supply him with extra oxygen, but do not reduce altitude as the partial pressure of oxygen never results in symptoms below 10,000 feet
c) assuming he is hyperventilating you order him to stop breathing while you supply additional oxygen
a) assuming he is suffering from hypoxia you reduce altitude and supply him/her with oxygen
180
TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and physical efficiency and alertness; measured from the moment at which he is exposed to hypoxia.
http://www.theairlinepilots.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=510
What is the Time of Useful Consciousness for a rapid decompression at 25,000 ft?
a) About 30 seconds
b) About 18 seconds
c) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
d) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot
d) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected pilot
181
Following a rapid decompression at 30,000 feet, the time of useful consciousness would be:
a) 5 to 10 minutes
b) 10 to 12 minutes
c) between 45 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
d) 3 to 5 minutes
c) between 45 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
182
After a rapid decompression at 35000 ft, the time of useful consciousness is about:
a) 5 minutes
b) 15 seconds or less
c) 30 to 60 seconds
d) 10 minutes
c) 30 to 60 seconds
183
How long TUC can be expected after a loss of cabin pressure at 37000 feet?
a) 18 sec
b) 15 sec
c) 10 sec
d) 5 sec
a) 18 sec
184
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft?
a) About 40 seconds
b) More than 1 minute
c) About 12 seconds
d) Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
c) About 12 seconds
185
In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms:
a) may develop after a decompression from 7000 ft cabin pressure altitude to 30000 ft flight altitude
b) appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving activities
a) may develop after a decompression from 7000 ft cabin pressure altitude to 30000 ft flight altitude
186
The following may occur during gradual depressurisation between 12000 and 18000 ft:
a) a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to headache and also to a loss of coordination
b) a loss of co-ordination associated with fatigue and headache
b) a loss of co-ordination associated with fatigue and headache
187
Decompression sickness can be prevented by:
1. avoiding cabin altitudes about 18000 ft
2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8000 ft when flying at high altitudes
3. performing physical exercises before and during the flight
4. breathing 100% oxygen and 30 min prior and during the flight
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) only 3 is correct
Rule out point 3 which is present in all options except "a".
100% O2 lessens the pressure reduction, and hence the risk of DCS
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
188
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are called:
a) leans
b) bends
c) creeps
d) chokes
d) chokes
189
Decompression sickness may occur as from:
1. an altitude of more than 18000 ft
2. an altitude of more than 5500 ft
3. a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding 18000 ft
4. a temperature of more than 24oC
1 and 3 Correct
Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of 38,000 feet.
Breathing 100% oxygen will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately 38,000 feet.
Breathing 100% oxygen at "38,000 feet (or 40,000 ft)" is equivalent to breathing ambient air at "10,000 feet".
A human breathing 100% oxygen at "33,700 ft" is equivalent of breathing air at "Sea Level".
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? Approximately 38 to 40,000 ft.
To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression? Approximately 38,000 ft.
190
You can survive at any altitude, provided that:
a) pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude
b) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
b) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
191
After a decompression at high altitude:
a) pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin
b) nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism; bends and chokes
c) automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
b) nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism; bends and chokes
192
You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms. What should you do before flying?
a) delay your next flight for 8 hours
b) nothing, you may fly immediately
c) seek prompt aero-medical advice
d) seek aero-medical advice only if the symptoms become apparent
c) seek prompt aero-medical advice
193
The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to:
1. physical activity of the subjected crew
2. the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in question
3. the strength and time of decompression
4. the cabin temperature
a) 4
b) 1, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 3, 4
b) 1, 3
194
During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen pressure:
a) an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure
b) a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in atmospheric pressure
a) an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure
195
What is TUC?
a) Time of Useful Consciousness
b) Total Useful Consciousness
c) The same as (EPT) expected performance time
d) Both A and C are correct
d) Both A and C are correct
196
Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:
1. SCUBA-Diving
2. Obesity
3. Age
4. Body height
1,2,3 Correct
The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be explained by the principle that:
"The quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that gas above the fluid (Henrys Law)"
197
Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:
1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases
2. permeable membranes
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air
4. acid-base balance in the blood
All correct
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about "16 cycles per minute".
If you forget in the exam then time your breathing and count! Smile
198
Gases of physiological importance to man are:
a) oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
c) oxygen and carbon monoxide
d) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapour
a) oxygen and carbon dioxide
199
Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:
a) CO2
b) O2
a) CO2
200
The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is "dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during respiration".
When oxygen is being transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called "Internal Respiration"
The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:
a) Boyles Law
b) the law of diffusion
c) Daltons Law
d) Henrys Law
b) the law of diffusion
201
A pilot who smokes will lose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined with haemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day?
a) 5 - 8%
a) 5 - 8%
202
What controls the volume of breathing?
a) Receptor cells in the brain
b) Alveoli in the lungs
a) Receptor cells in the brain
203
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
a) a decrease of acidity in the blood
b) an increased respiratory rate
b) an increased respiratory rate
204
The total gas volume of the lung is the sum of:
1. tidal volume
2. inspiratory reserve volume
3. expiratory reserve volume
4. residual volume
All correct
Total lung capacity can be divided into the "Inspiratory Capacity" and "Functional Residual Capacity".
Inspiratory Capacity: Made up of,
1) Resting Tidal Volume: Volume of air going in and out of the lungs during normal respiration (about 0.5 litres at rest).
2) Inspiratory Reserve Volume: Additional volume of air inhaled when the body is working (due to increase oxygen demand).
205
Functional Residual Capacity: Volume of air in the lungs when the body is at rest and normal expiration has occurred. This comprises of:
1) Expiratory Reserve Volume: Which can be pushed out with maximum active contraction of the expiratory muscles.
2) Residual volume: Which always remain in the lungs.
no questions
206
What are the main sources of radiation at height?
a) Galactic (Cosmic) caused by galactic particles and Solar radiation caused by solar flares
b) Ionisation of the layers in the atmosphere due to the bombardment of Galactic (Cosmic) radiation
a) Galactic (Cosmic) caused by galactic particles and Solar radiation caused by solar flares
207
The effects of Galactic radiation:
a) increases with altitude
b) remains steady up to 49,000 ft and thereafter increases
a) increases with altitude
208
What is ozone?
a) A toxic gas
b) Oxygen that has oxidised
a) A toxic gas
209
Ozone in the air of a pressurised cabin can be eliminated by:
a) avoiding flights along the equator
b) ozone-converters
c) climbing to altitudes above 45,000 ft
d) spraying detergents
b) ozone-converters
210
What are the risks of high altitude cosmic radiation to crew member?
a) Eye damage
b) Cancer and children born with defects
b) Cancer and children born with defects
211
A pilot is skilled when he:
1. trains or practises regularly
2. knows how to manage himself/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,2
a) 1,2,4
212
A flight crew licence holder has completed a two-day stay at a hospital. What must he/she do before flying as a crewmember?
a) Seek advice of the authority or AME
b) Not fly before he/she is released by an AME
a) Seek advice of the authority or AME
213
In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards presented a concept of the interface between flight crew and other parts of the airspace environment. What is this concept called and the names of those elements involved?
The SHEL Concept: Software, hardware, environment and liveware
The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of terrorism):
a) has improved considerably over the last fifteen years
b) is approximately 1 accident per million airport movements
b) is approximately 1 accident per million airport movements
214
Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:
a) good judgement
b) interpersonal relations
a) good judgement
215
The trend in aeroplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related to:
a) the manufacturer
b) the crew
b) the crew
216
Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism?
1. It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error.
2. If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc
3. It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting future errors.
4. Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal with it automatically in the future.
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
217
The following applies for the physical properties of gases:
a) at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27,000 ft
b) at an altitude of 18,000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would be at sea level
c) a water vapour saturated gas at 34,000 ft has 6 times its volume as it would have at sea-level
a) at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27,000 ft
218
The chemical composition of the earth's atmosphere (ICAO standard atmosphere) is:
a) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% carbon dioxide, 0.03% argon
b) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide
b) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide
219
With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurised cabin, we know that it:
1. varies between 40 and 60%
2. varies between 5 and 15%
3. may cause dehydration effecting the performance of the crew
4. has no special effects on crew members
a) 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4
a) 2, 3
220
You climb from 0 to 50000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5000 ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between:
a) 10000 ft and 15000 ft
b) 5000 ft and 10000 ft
c) 0 ft and 5000 ft
d) 45000 ft and 50000 ft
c) 0 ft and 5000 ft
221
Boyles law is directly applicable in case of "the expansion of trapped gases in the human body with increasing altitude".
Boyle's Law: Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
The effects of Boyles law can cause "Trapped Gas Disorders" whereas Henry's law explains "Evolved Gas Problems".
A balloon is often used to illustrate the effects of "Boyles Law".
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere?
1. Density
2. Pressure
3. Temperature
4. Humidity
1,2 and 3 Correct
1,2 and 3 Correct
222
Below 70000 ft, what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere?
a) Ozone
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Nitrogen
d) Nitrogen
