Human Resource Development Flashcards

0
Q

Act that prohibits discrimination in employment for persons over age 40 and over.

A

Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA)

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1
Q

Five-step instructional design process that governs the development of human resource development program

A

ADDIE model

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2
Q

Act that prohibits discrimination against a qualified individual with a disability because of his/her disability.

A

Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

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3
Q

Level of learning characterized by understanding information to the level of being able to break it down and explain how it fits together.

A

Analysis

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4
Q

Study of how adults learn

A

Andragogy

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5
Q

Level of learning characterized by ability to use learned information in a new situation.

A

Application

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6
Q

Relates to technical skills training; often a partnership between employers and union.

A

Apprenticeship

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7
Q

Ability to learn information or acquire a skill

A

Aptitude

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8
Q

Type of e-learning in which participants access information at different times and in different places.

A

Asynchronous learning

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9
Q

People who learn best by relying oh their sense of hearing.

A

Auditory learners

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10
Q

Occurs when an appraiser’s values, beliefs, or prejudices distort performance ratings.

A

Bias

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11
Q

Planned approach to learning that includes a combination of methods such as classroom, e-learning, self-paced study, and performance support such as job aids or coaching.

A

Blended learning

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12
Q

Process by which individuals progress through a series of stages in their careers, each of which is characterized by relatively unique issues, themes, and tasks.

A

Career development

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13
Q

Preparing, implementing, and monitoring employees’ career paths, with a primary focus on the goals of the organization.

A

Career management

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14
Q

Actions and activities that individuals perform in order to give direction to their work life.

A

Career planning

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15
Q

Diagram that maps out a list of factors that are though to affect a problem or a desired outcome.

A

Cause-and-effect diagram

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16
Q

Error that occurs when an appraiser rates all employees within a narrow rage, regardless of difference in actual performance.

A

Central tendency error

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17
Q

Simple visual tools used to collect and analyze data.

A

Check sheet

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18
Q

Set of behaviors encompassing skills, knowledge, abilities, and personal attributes that are critical to successful work accomplishment.

A

Competencies

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19
Q

Level of learning characterized by ability to translate or interpret information.

A

Comprehension

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20
Q

Error that occurs when an employee’s rating is based on how his or her performance compares to that of another employee rather than objective standards.

A

Contrast standard

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21
Q

Chart that illustrates variations from normal in a situation over time.

A

Control chart

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22
Q

Form of protection provided by the U.S. government to authors of “original works” to exclude others form printing or otherwise duplicating, distributing, or vending copies of their literary, artistic, and other creative expressions.

A

Copyright

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23
Q

Act that defines the protection provided to authors of “original works” to exclude others from printing or otherwise duplicating, distributing, or vending copies of their literary, artistic, and other creative expressions, including through the various means of technology.

A

Copyright Act

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24
Q

Skills knowledge, and abilities that employees must possess in order to successfully perform job functions that are essential to business operations.

A

Core competencies

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25
Q

Type of learning curve in which the amount of learning or skill level increases rapidly at first and then the rate of improvement slows.

A

Decreasing returns

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26
Q

Activities that focus on preparing employees for future responsibilities while increasing their capacity to perform their current jobs.

A

Developmental activities

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27
Q

Process of delivering educational or instructional programs to locations away for a classroom or site.

A

Distance Learning

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28
Q

Differences in characteristics of people. can involve personality, work style, race, age, ethnicity, gender, religion, education, functional level at work, etc.

A

Diversity

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29
Q

Training designed to inform senior management and staff about diveristy and to develop concrete skills that will facilitate enhanced productivity and communications among all employees.

A

Diversity training

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30
Q

Career development programs that identify meaningful career paths for professional and technical people whose preferences may be outside traditional management roles.

A

Dual Career Ladders

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31
Q

Delivery of formal and informal training and education materials, processes, and programs via the use of electronic media.

A

E-learning

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32
Q

Ability of an individual to be sensitive to and understanding of the emotions of others and to manage his or her own emotions and impulses.

A

Emotional intelligence

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33
Q

Level of learning characterized by ability to make judgments.

A

Evaluation

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34
Q

Coaching typically conducted by a third-party vendor to support managers in mastering the fundamental principles and practices for achieving extraordinary results and empowering staff success.

A

Executive coaching

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35
Q

Process of sending employees abroad and supporting their ability to adapt to culture changes and complete their international assignment.

A

Expatriation

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36
Q

Coaching typically available to professional, exempt, and/or high-potential employees that is done in a private ad confidential relations with a trained or certified consultant/coach.

A

External coaching

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37
Q

Rewards such as pay, benefits, bonuses, promotions, achievement rewards, time off, more freedom and autonomy, special assignments, etc.

A

Extrinsic rewards (nagrody pochodzace z zewnatrz)

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38
Q

Provision of the Copyright Act that allows the use of copyright work in certain circumstances.

A

Fair use

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39
Q

Career development programs that involve identifying a pool of potential leaders and rapidly increasing their leadership skill and development.

A

Fast-track programs

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40
Q

Strong but invisible career barrier that sometimes exists for minorities and women.

A

Glass ceiling

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41
Q

Clear statement, usually in one sentence, of the purpose and intent of a human resource development program.

A

Goal

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42
Q

Occurs when an employee is extremely competent in one area and is therefore rated high in all categories.

A

Halo effect

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43
Q

Society or group where people have close connections over a long period of time and where many aspects of behavior are not made explicit, because most members know what to do and think form years of interaction.

A

High-context culture

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44
Q

Graphic representation of the distribution of a single type of measurement; data is represented by a series of rectangles of varying heights.

A

Histogram

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45
Q

Occurs when an employee receives an overall low rating because of one weakness.

A

Horn effect

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46
Q

Set of systamatic and planned activities designed by an organization to provide its members with the necessary skills and/or competencies to meet current and future job demands.

A

Human Resource Development (HRD)

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47
Q

Type of learning curve in which progress is initially slow because basics are being learned but then performance takes off after the initial learning phase.

A

Increasing returns

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48
Q

Consists of ongoing meetings between supervisors and employees to discuss the employee’s career path.

A

Internal coaching

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49
Q

Meaningful work, good feedback on performance, autonomy, and other factors that lead to high levels of satisfaction in the job.

A

Intrinsic rewards

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50
Q

Broadening the scope of a job by expending the number of different tasks to be performed.

A

Job enlargement

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51
Q

Increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibilities for planning, organizing, controlling, and evaluation.

A

Job enrichment

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52
Q

Movement between different jobs

A

Job rotation

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53
Q

People who learn best through a hands-on approach; also called tactile learners.

A

Kinesthetic learners

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54
Q

Level of learning characterized by ability to recall specific facts.

A

Knowledge

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55
Q

Process of creating, acquiring, sharing, and managing knowledge to augment individual and organizational performance.

A

Knowledge Management (KM)

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56
Q

Ability of an individual to influence a group or another individual toward the achievement of goals and results.

A

Leadership

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57
Q

System that holds course content information and has the capability of tracking and managing employee course registration, career development, and other employee development activities.

A

Learning Management System (LMS) / Learning Management Content System (LMCS)

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58
Q

Learning elements that may be reused in a variety of context; examples include animated graphics, job aids, and print modules.

A

Learning Objects (LOs)

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59
Q

Organization characterized by a capability to adapt to changes in environment.

A

Learning organization

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60
Q

Ways individuals learn and process ideas.

A

Learning styles

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61
Q

Errors that are the result of appraisers who don’t want to give low scores.

A

Leniency errors

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62
Q

Society where people tend to have many connections but of shorter duration and where behavior and beliefs may need to be spelled out explicitly so that those coming into the cultural environment know how to behave.

A

Low-context culture

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63
Q

Directing day-to-day organizational operations.

A

Management

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64
Q

Developmentally oriented relationship between two individuals

A

Mentoring

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65
Q

Factors that initiate, direct, and sustain human behavior over time.

A

Motivation

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66
Q

Process by which an organization’s needs are identified in order to help the organization accomplish its objectives; also called needs analysis.

A

Needs assessment

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67
Q

Results that participants will be able to perform at the end of human resource development program.

A

Objectives

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68
Q

Process of new employee assimilation into the organization, which often lasts up to six months or a year.

A

Onboarding

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69
Q

Training provided to employees at the work site utilizing demonstration and performance of job tasks.

A

On-the-job training (OJT)

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70
Q

Shared attitudes and perceptions in an organization.

A

Organizational culture

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71
Q

Process of enhancing the effectiveness of an organization and the well-being of its members through planned interventions.

A

Organizational Development (OD)

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72
Q

Certain types of learning activities or processes that may occur at any one of several levels in an organization.

A

Organizational learning

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73
Q

Initial phase of employee training that covers organizational goals and strategies, job responsibilities, and organizational policies.

A

Orientation

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74
Q

Programs developed to assist displaced employees in finding jobs and adjusting to change.

A

Outplacement programs

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75
Q

Vertical bar graph on which bar height reflects frequency or impact of causes.

A

Pareto Chart

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76
Q

Study of the education of children.

A

Pedagogy

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77
Q

Process that measures the degree to which an employee accomplishes work requirements.

A

Performance appraisal

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78
Q

Process of maintaining or improving employee job performance through the use of performance assessment tools, coaching, and counseling as well as providing continuous feedback.

A

Performance management

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79
Q

Expectations of management translated into behaviors and results that employees can deliver.

A

Performance standards

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80
Q

Human resource development programs offered initially in a controlled environment with a segment of the target audience.

A

Pilot programs

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81
Q

Type of learning curve in which learning is fast at first but then flattens out with no apparent progress.

A

Plateau curve

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82
Q

Career state of employees who are no longer considered promotable.

A

Plateaued career

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83
Q

Occurs when an appraiser gives more weight to an employee’s earlier performance and discounts recent occurrences.

A

Primacy error

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84
Q

Diagram of the steps involved in a process. Also known as flow charts, these diagrams depict a process and its outputs.

A

Process-flow analysis

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85
Q

Status of work when copyright protection ends; in general, copyright protection covers the life of the author plus 70 years.

A

Public domain

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86
Q

Error that occurs when an appraiser gives more weight to recent occurrences and discounts an employee’s earlier performance during the appraisal period.

A

Recency error

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87
Q

Reintegrating employees into their home-country operations following an international assignment.

A

Repatriation

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88
Q

“Snapshot” assessment of the availability of qualified backup for key positions.

A

Replacement planning

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89
Q

Ability to keep talented employees in an organization.

A

Retention

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90
Q

Learning elements that may be reused in a variety of contexts; examples include animated graphics, job aids, and print modules.

A

Reusable learning objects (RLOs)

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91
Q

Illustration that depicts possible relationships between two variables.

A

Scatter diagram

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92
Q

Disciplined, data-driven approach and methodology for eliminating defects.

A

Six Sigma

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93
Q

Type of learning curve in which learning occurs in a series of incresing and decreasing returns; usually seen when an employee is attempting to learn a difficult tasks that also required specific insight.

A

S-Shaped curve

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94
Q

Error that occurs when an appraiser believes standards are too low and inflates the standards in an effort to make them meaningful.

A

Strictness

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95
Q

Person who is well versed in the content of a human resource development program.

A

Subject matter experts (SMEs)

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96
Q

Process of systematically identifying, assessing, and developing leadership talent.

A

Succession planning

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97
Q

Process for evaluating an organization’s identifying, assessing, and developing leadership talent.

A

SWOT analysis

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98
Q

Type of e-learning in which participants interact together in real time.

A

Synchronous learning

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99
Q

Level of learning at which the learner is able to respond to new situations and determine trouble-shooting techniques and solutions.

A

Synthesis

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100
Q

Development and integration of HR processes that attract, develop, engage, and retain the knowledge, skills, and abilities of employees that will meet current and future business needs.

A

Talent management

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101
Q

Systems management philosophy that states that every organization is hindered by constrains that come from its internal policies.

A

Theory of constraints (TOC)

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102
Q

Prohibits discrimination or segregation based on race, color, national origin, religion, and sex in all terms and conditions of employment.

A

Title VII, Civil Rights Act of 1964

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103
Q

Strategic, integrated management system for achieving customer satisfaction that involves all managers and employees and uses quantitative methods to continuously improve an organization’s processes.

A

Total Quality Management (TQM)

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104
Q

Readiness to learn, combining students’ levels of ability and motivation with their perception of the work environment.

A

Trainability

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105
Q

Process of providing knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) specific to a task or job.

A

Training

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106
Q

Effective and continuing on-the-job application of the knowledge and skills gained during a learning experience.

A

Transfer of training

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107
Q

Leadership style that motivates employees by inspiring them to join in a mutually satisfying achievement.

A

Transformational leadership

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108
Q

Federal guideline that require employers to show that they are not discriminating against or creating adverse impact on a group of applicants or employees, including selecting participants for training.

A

Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

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109
Q

Act that requires benefit continuation and crediting of service while an employee is on military active duty.

A

Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)

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110
Q

People who learn best by relying on their sense of sight.

A

Visual Learners

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111
Q

Results that participants will be able to perform at the end of a human resource development program.

A

Objectives

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112
Q

People who learn best by relying on their sense of hearing.

A

Auditory learners

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113
Q

Factors that initiate, direct, and sustain human behavior over time.

A

Motivation

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114
Q

Directing day-to-day organizational operations.

A

Management

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115
Q

Error that occurs when an employee’s rating is based on how his or her performance compares to that of another employee rather than objective standards.

A

Contrast error

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116
Q

Leadership style that offers the promise of reward or the threat of discipline to motivate employees.

A

Transactional leadership

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117
Q

Occurs when an employee is extremely competent in one area and is therefore rated high in all categories.

A

Halo effect

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118
Q

Process of providing knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) specific to a task or job.

A

Training

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119
Q

Ability of an individual to influence a group or another individual toward the achievement of goals and results.

A

Leadership

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120
Q

Level of learning characterized by ability to make judgments.

A

Evaluation

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121
Q

Increases the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, and evaluation.

A

Job enrichment

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122
Q

Process of enhancing the effectiveness of an organization and the well-being of its members through planned interventions.

A

Organizational development (OD)

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123
Q

Type of learning curve in which the amount of learning or skill level increases rapidly at first and then the rate of improvement slows.

A

Decreasing returns

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124
Q

Process of maintaining or improving employee job performance through the use of performance assessment tools, coaching, and counseling as well as providing continuous feedback.

A

Performance management

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125
Q

Strategic, integrated management system for achieving customer satisfaction that involves all managers and employees and uses quantitative methods to continuously improve an organization’s processes.

A

Total quality management (TQM)

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126
Q

Training designed to inform senior management and staff about diversity and to develop concrete skills that will facilitate enhanced productivity and communications among all employees.

A

Diversity training

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127
Q

Set of systematic and planned activities designed by an organization to provide its members with the necessary skills and/or competencies to meet current and future job demands.

A

Human resource development (HRD)

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128
Q

Delivery of formal and informal training and educational materials, processes, and programs via the use of electronic media.

A

E-learning

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129
Q

Movement between different jobs.

A

Job rotation

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130
Q

Process of new employee assimilation into the organization, which often lasts up to six months or a year.

A

Onboarding

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131
Q

Human resource development programs offered initially in a controlled environment with a segment of the target audience.

A

Pilot programs

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132
Q

Shared attitudes and perceptions in an organization.

A

Organizational culture

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133
Q

Readiness to learn, combining students’ level of ability and motivation with their perceptions of the work environment.

A

Trainability

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134
Q

Preparing, implementing, and monitoring employees’ career paths, with a primary focus on the goals of the organization.

A

Career management

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135
Q

Occurs when an appraiser’s values, beliefs, or prejudices distort performance ratings.

A

Bias

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136
Q

Set of behaviors encompassing skills, knowledge, abilities, and personal attributes that are critical to successful work accomplishment.

A

Competencies

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137
Q

Diagram that maps out a list of factors that are thought to affect a problem or a desired outcome.

A

Cause-and-effect diagram

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138
Q

Learning elements that may be reused in a variety of contexts; examples include animated graphics, job aids, and print modules.

A

Reusable learning objects (RLOs)

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139
Q

Certain types of learning activities or processes that may occur at any one of several levels in an organization.

A

Organizational learning

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140
Q

Human Resource Development program is best if aligned with:

A

Organizational goals. (Vision, Mission, Objectives and Goals)

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141
Q

Principles to follow by an HR professional when aligning an Human Resource Development program.

A
  • Link HRD learning objectives and outcomes to business needs and goals
  • Maintain a strong “customer focus” in design, development, and implementation
  • Manager HRD with a “system view” of performance
  • Measure HRD process for improvement
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142
Q

Keys (9) to running the HRD Function like a business

A
  • Link training to business strategies
  • Focus on business issues, not training content
  • Adapt to change in the business environment
  • Promote learning as a way to fulfill specific business objectives
  • Clarify HRD’s business mission
  • Expose hidden costs
  • Reduce costs while building reliable processes
  • Measure what matters
  • Offer service guarantees
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143
Q

Peter Senge’s five disciplined that interface and support one another required for a successful learning organization.

A
  • Systems thinking
  • Mental models
  • Personal mastery
  • Team learning
  • Shared vision
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144
Q

Conceptual framework that makes patterns clearer and helps one see how things interrelate and how change them

A

Systems thinking

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145
Q

Deeply gained assumptions that influence how we view the world and how we take actions

A

Mental models

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146
Q

High level of proficiency in a KSA area

A

Personal mastery

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147
Q

Aligning and developing capacity of a team to create desired results

A

Team learning

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148
Q

Future look that fosters genuine commitment and is shared by all who need to possess it.

A

Shared vision

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149
Q

If Peter Senge’s five disciplines are adopted, an organization has a learning climate in which:

A
  • Learning is:
    • Performance based and tied to business objective
    • Matched to people’s learning preferences
    • Part of job description
  • Importance is placed on how to learn
  • The organization continues to develop KSA
  • People are responsible for their own learning
  • Leaders are designers, stewards, and teachers
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150
Q

In a culture that supports organizational learning:

A
  • Members recognize the importance of organizational learning
  • Learning is continuous
  • There is a focus on creativity
  • People have access to information that is important
  • Individual and group learning is rewarded
  • Well-defined core competencies
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151
Q

Levels of organizational learning

A
  • Individual
  • Group
  • Organization
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152
Q

Distinction between Organizational learning and a learning organization.

A

Organizational learning is something that takes place in every organization at multiple levels.

A learning organization is a type of organization that has “learned” to react and adapt to its environment.

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153
Q

Key elements that the Knowledge Management (KM) focuses on:

A
  • Expertise sharing and organizational learning

- Knowledge retention and the reduction of knowledge loss due to employee attrition.

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154
Q

Understanding what motivates an individual is MOST useful when

A

engaging employees in a learning process.

Motivation is a key factor in an individual’s ability to learn. Understanding what motivates employees allows a manager or trainer to engage them in the learning process.

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155
Q

For HRD professionals, understanding their own learning style is important because

A

people tend to teach the way they prefer to learn.

HRD professionals need to understand their own learning styles, because they tend to teach others with the method by which they prefer to learn. Being aware of that makes them more cognizant of the need to develop activities that cater to a variety of learning styles.

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156
Q

At the end of a sales training seminar, a representative is able to list the five steps in the selling skills model. This is evidence of which level of learning?

A

Knowledge

The knowledge level requires a learner to recall specific facts. The learner is not yet able to interpret the information or apply it to work.

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157
Q

Which level of learner participation offers the best opportunity for retention?

A

Immediate use.

Immediate use of learning provides a 90% or higher retention rate.

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158
Q

Nine competency areas of the HR Success Competency Model

A
  • HR Technical expertise and practice
  • Relationship management
  • Consultation
  • Organization leadership and navigation
  • Communication
  • Global and cultural effectiveness (diversity and Inclusion)
  • Ethical practice
  • Critical evaluation
  • business acumen
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159
Q

Key Legislations in HR Development

A
  • Copy Right Act (1976)
  • Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (1964)
  • Americans with Disabilities Act (1990)
  • Age Discrimination in Employment Act (1967)
  • Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (1994)
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160
Q

The owners of “original works” have excsulsive rights to authorize others to:

A
  • reproduce the work
  • distribute copies to the public
  • prepare derivative works or creations based on the original
  • display copyrighted work publicly
  • perform copyrighted work publicly
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161
Q

Exceptions to the “original work” copyrights of the author.

A
  • “work for hire” (specially ordered r commissioned)

- works created by employees

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162
Q

In work-for-hire exception to the author’s copyrights the following conditions must be met.

A
  • The work must be listed as one of the then categories of Copyright Act
  • There must be a written agreement between both parties

BOTH CONDITIONS MUST BE MET

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163
Q

Best way to avoid disputes about copyright ownership

A

Have a well-drafted agreement in place before the work starts, at least in situations involving non-employees or work created outside of an employee’s regular duties.

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164
Q

Factors that may prevent “original work” from entering public domain

A
  • national security

- contracts

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165
Q

How long copyright protection is covered

A
  • in general life of author plus 70 years
  • anonymous and works for hire 95 years from publication or 120 years form the year of creation, whichever expires first.
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166
Q

Work is considered to be in public domain if:

A
  • Period of copyright protection has expired
  • Published prior to Jan 1, 1978 without notice of copyright
  • Published between Jan 1 1978 an Mar 1, 1989, without notice and without reasonable effort to affix notice and registration within five years
  • produced for the U.S. government by its officers or employees as part of their official duties
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167
Q

Fair use allows of copyrighted work upon five factors

A
  1. Purpose (commercial or noncommercial)
  2. Nature (critique or parody vs. business flyer)
  3. Percentage of the copyrighted work used
  4. Amount (one or two copies vs. 100)
  5. Effect on potential market value of the original
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168
Q

Coping pages from a book - is it fair use or is it a violation of Copyright Act?

A

Fair use provision will cover an excerpt that is extremely short and that has been attributed to the source. However, in general, pages from a book cannot be copied and used without permission.

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169
Q

If you are not charging for a training session, can you freely use copyrighted materials?

A

No

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170
Q

HR responsibility with Copyright

A
  • Develop a Copyright Compliance Policy
  • Communicate policy to all employees
  • Put notices on copies and printers
  • Put notices in electronics or technology use policies
  • Use disciplinary action to enforce compliance
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171
Q

How does the Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (1978) affect HR

A

Employers need to show that if they select certain individuals for a training session, they are not discriminating against or creating adverse impact on a group of potential participants.

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172
Q

Goals of Organizational Development (OD)

A
  • Improve productivity (efficiency and effectiveness)
  • People’s satisfaction with work life
  • Ability to revitalize and develop over time
  • organizational processes and outputs
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173
Q

Organizational Development (OD) initiatives

A
  • Focus on changing an entire system in comparison to a few components
  • Focus on helping and diagnose and solve problems
  • Link to the company Strategic Plan
  • Use applied behavioral science
  • Are adaptive and less rigid than formal planning processes
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174
Q

Examples of when Organizational Development (OD) are appropriate:

A
  • When organization experiences a merger or acquisition that introduces a culture that is not compatible
  • Experiences low trust, high turnover, or high stress
  • Lacks the ability to manage conflict
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175
Q

Organizational Culture basic functions.

A
  • gives members an organizational identity
  • Facilitates collective commitment
  • Promotes system stability
  • Shapes behavior by helping embers make sense of their surroundings
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176
Q

Characteristics of strong cultures (in organizational culture)

A
  • continuity of leadership
  • geographic concentration
  • small group size
  • considerable success.
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177
Q

Adverse affect of strong cultures (in Organizational Development)

A

Strong cultures can stifle individual expression

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178
Q

Which type of cultures are most likely to collapse (weaker or stronger culture) and why?

A

Since it is virtually impossible to stand still in business, organizations with weaker cultures are more likely to collapse.

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179
Q

Findings of James L Heskett and Joh P. Kotter in “Corporate Culture and Performance”

Corporate Culture….

A
  • can have a significant impact on a firm’s long-term economic performance
  • will probably be an even more important factor in determining the success or failure of organizations in the future
  • ones that inhibit long-term financial performance are not rare; they develop easily, even in firms that are full of reasonable and intelligent people
  • although difficult to change, it can be made more performance-enhancing
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180
Q

HR’s role in Organizational Development (OD)

A
  • Serve as change agent

- Conduct the evaluation of the intervention

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181
Q

Explain the role of change agent in Organizational Development (OD)

A

The HR can help the organization understand the full range of HR development programs and processes available to support the OD intervention.
A change agent is responsible for positively portraying the upcoming change during the facilitation of the actual change activities.
(ex. Team building workshops for the remaining members during layoffs)

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182
Q

Organizational Development Intervention Process Stages

A

Stage 1: Diagnose the environment

Stage 2: Develop an action plan

Stage 3: Evaluate the results

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183
Q

Activities at Diagnose the Environment, stage 1 of OD Intervention Process

A
  • Determine readiness of target audience to accept change
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184
Q

Activities at Develop an Action Plan, Stage 2 of OD Intervention Process

A
  • Identify specific variables
  • Determine the strategies to be used
  • Implement the plan
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185
Q

Activities at Evaluate the results, Stage 3 of OD Intervention Process

A
  • Measure results and evaluate to determine if behavior toward change has occurred.
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186
Q

Two categories of Organizational Development theory:

A
  • Change Process

- Implementation

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187
Q

Three stages of Kurt Lewin’s changeprocess

A
  • Unfreezing stage
  • Moving stage
  • Refreezing stage
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188
Q

Attempts to explain the dynamics through which organizational change takes place.

A

Change process theory (one of the categories in Organizational Development theory)

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189
Q

Getting people to accept that the change will occur. Ending things that resist change is vital in this stage.

A

Unfreezing (one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s change process of Organizational Development theory)

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190
Q

Getting people to accept the new, desired state.

A

Moving (one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s change process of Organizational Development theory)

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191
Q

When the new ideal becomes a regular part of the organization.

A

Refreezing (one of the stages in Kurt Lewin’s change process of Organizational Development theory)

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192
Q

Its focus is the design and implementation of specific Organizational Development interventions. It is targeted at managing the change process.

A

Implementation theory (one of the theories in Organizational Development theory)

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193
Q

Three categories of Organizational Development intervention strategies:

A
  • Interpersonal
  • Technological
  • Structural
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194
Q

This type of Organizational Development intervention strategy deals with relationships between employees.

A

Interpersonal strategy

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195
Q

This type of Organizational Development intervention strategy focus on processes; (process analysis, Job design, job specialization, job simplification, grouping jobs into departments by function or product, work flow analysis)

A

Technological strategies

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196
Q

This type of Organizational Development intervention strategies look at how the structure of the organization is helping or hindering the organization.

A

Structural strategies (ex. examine issues of span control, reporting relationships.)

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197
Q

Four types / examples of Organizational Development interventions:

A
  • team building
  • flexible work and staffing arrangements
  • diversity programs
  • quality initiatives
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198
Q

Group intervention in which a team in engaged in a series of activities designed to help them examine how they function and how they could function better.

A

Team building

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199
Q

Emphasis of Team Building intervention

A
  • early identification and solution of problems that stand in the wa of group effectiveness.
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200
Q

Purpose of a team-building intervention

A
  • facilitate the alignment of the management of the management team with the team’s mission and goals
  • develop effectiveness team dynamics for working together to accomplish the above goals
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201
Q

Focus of team building

A
  • Goals and priorities for the management
  • Role and responsibility of each member
  • Procedures and norms for team functions
  • Interpersonal relationships within the team
  • Systems affecting work processes
  • Client / Customer expectations
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202
Q

Flexible work schedule, telecommuting, phased retention are examples of what.

A

Flexible Work and Staffing, (one of the Organizational Development interventions types)

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203
Q

Creating environment with respect for a diverse culture that focuses on recruitment strategies, where everyone feels welcome, creating training and development programs that deal with employees’ fears and stereotypes, etc. are examples of what?

A

Diversity Programs

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204
Q

Developing people and their talents and skills - building excellence.

A

Quality Initiatives (type of OD intervention)

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205
Q

Benefits of Total Quality Management (TQM).

A
  • Find and eliminate problems
  • Identify / satisfy customers’ needs
  • Eliminate waste
  • Encourage pride and teamwork
  • Create an environment that is conducting to creativity
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206
Q

Well-known names in quality consulting business

A
  • Joseph M. Juran
  • Philip B. Crosby
  • W. Edwards
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207
Q

Took 14-point program for managing productivity and quality to Japan; received Japan’s award for excellence in quality; his message was that if the organization made poor products it was their own fault.

A

W. Edward Deming

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208
Q

Defined quality as “fitness to use”. His trilogy incorporates quality planning, quality control, and quality improvements.

A

Joseph M. Juran

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209
Q

Similarly to Daming, developed 14-point program for quality management. Added four qualities absolute: a definition of quality, a prevention system , a performance standard and the measurement of quality.

A

Philip B. Crosby

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210
Q

Widely applied in organizational development interventions

  • Intended to absorb inputs, process them, and produce outputs
  • essential to the quality movements ad leads to process improvements
A

Systems Theory

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211
Q

three components of Systems Theory

A
  • Inputs
  • Process
  • Outputs
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212
Q

Two Quality standards programs

A
  • Baldrige Performance Excellence Program

- ISO 9000

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213
Q

Type of quality standard program structured in seven categories.

A

Baldrige Performance Excellence

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214
Q

This type of quality standards program requires conformity to practices specified in the registrant’s own quality system.

A

ISO 9000

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215
Q

Type of analysis that depicts a diagram of the steps (and its outputs) involved in a process. Also known as flowcharts.

A

Process-flow analysis.

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216
Q

An illustration of variations from normal in a situation over time. Has upper and lower control limits drawn on either side of a process range, which allows users to see if the process is out of range.

A

Control Chart

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217
Q

Uses a visual to map our a list of factors that are thought to affect a problem or a desired outcome.

A

Cause-and-Effect Diagram (also referred to as an Ishikawa or fishbone diagram)

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218
Q

Depicts possible relationships between two variables.

A

Scatter diagram

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219
Q

A simple visual tool sued to collect and analyze data. Employees make a check mark to keep track of the item in question.

A

Check sheet

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220
Q

Based on a principle that 80% of effects come from 20% of causes.

A

Pareto Chart

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221
Q

In Abraham Maslow’s (1954) Hierarchy of Needs, identify five levels of needs that motivate people:

A
  • Physiological needs (food, place to live)
  • Safety needs (safe from physical and emotional harm)
  • Social needs (desire for acceptance and belonging within their social group)
  • Esteem needs (recognition for their achievements)
  • Self-actualization needs (looking for opportunities to be creative and fulfill their own potential)
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222
Q

Reinforcement is the key element in B.F. Skinner’s Stimulation-Response theory. Under this theory, what does the term “re-Enforcer” refer to?

a. Cognition: to know, to understand, and explore
b. Aesthetics: symmetry, order, and beauty
c. Anything that strengthens the desired response
d. Belonging and Love: affiliating with others, being accepted

A

c.) B.F. Skinner – Praise – encourage increase in the future frequency of a behavior desired behaviors”

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223
Q

“Katy Delancy is motivated to work harder because she believes that her efforts will yield better job performance and that better job performance will lead to rewards. Which theory has she illustrated?”

a. ) Brown’s Reward Theory
b. ) Hurt’s Theory of Effort
c. ) Weaver’s Theory of Expected Reward
d. ) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
e. ) Virgil’s Thoery

A

d.) Vroom’s Expectancy Theory asserts that employees in an organization will be motivated when they believe that effort will yield better job performance and that better job performance will lead to rewards.

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224
Q

Every organization faces constraints, and the greatest constraints come from policies and not from physical entities such as resources or materials.

A

Goldrat’s Theory (Theory of Constraints - TOC)

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225
Q

Five steps in Goldratt’s Theory of Constraints.

A
  1. Identify the system’s constraints
  2. Decide how to how to get the most out (exploit) of the constraint
  3. Subordinate and align the whole system to support the decision made above
  4. Make other major changes needed to increase the constraint’s capacity
  5. Warning! If in the previous steps a constraint has been broken, go back to step 1, but do not allow inertia to cause a system’s constraint.
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226
Q

To achieve Six Sigma a process must not produce more than xx defects per 1 million opportunities.

A

3.4

Six sigma defect is defined as anything outside of customer specifications.

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227
Q

Two improvement processes used by Six Sigma

A
  • DMAIC (define, measure, analyze, improve, control) a system for improving existing processes
  • DMADV (define, measure, analyze, design, verify) a system for developing new processes
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228
Q

Six Sigma Green belts

A

employees

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229
Q

Six Sigma Black Belts

A

Project Leaders

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230
Q

Six Sigma Master Black Belts

A

Quality Leaders

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231
Q

Which of the following is an illustration of the relationship between two variables.

a. Control Chart
b. Process-flow chart
c. Pareto chart
d. Scatter diagram

A

d. Scatter diagram depicts possible relationship between two variables.
(ex. correlation between years of education and salary)

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232
Q

Which of the following prioritizes categories from most frequent to least frequent.

a. ) Control chart
b. Process-flow analysis
c. ) Pareto chart
d. ) Scatter diagram

A

c. ) Pareto chart states that 80% of effect come from 20% of causes. This type of chart is a vertical bar graph and the bars are arranged in descending order of height , from left to right.

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233
Q

Which of the follwoing management consultants advocats a 14-point program and “four quality absolutes”?

a. ) W. Edwards Deming
b. ) Joseph M. Juran
c. ) Philip B. Crosby
d. ) All three consutants

A

c.) Philip B. Crosby

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234
Q

Findings show that there has been number of delays in response to customer inquiries due to reporting structures limiting communications to “proper channels”. Which organizational development approach should be evaluated to avoid future delays?

A

Structural strategies look at how the structure of the organization is helping or hindering the organization. The examine issues such as span of control and reporting relationships.

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235
Q

Differences between andragogy and pedagogy

A
  • Self-concept (self-directed)
  • Experience (life experience becomes resource for learning)
  • Readiness to learn (social roles)
  • Orientation to learning (immediate applicability, problem-focused)
  • Motivation to learn (internal motivation)
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236
Q

Adult Learning Principles

A
  • Focuses on “real world” issues
  • Applies to their lives and jobs
  • Meets their goals and expectations
  • Allows for debate and challenge of ideas
  • Encourages an exchange of ideas and opinions
  • Meets a current need
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237
Q

Three factors of trainability

A
  • Readiness to learn and motivation
  • Level of ability
  • Perception of the work environment
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238
Q

Obstacles to adult learning

A
  • Low tolerance for change
  • Lack of trust
  • Peer group pressure
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239
Q

Understanding your own learning style will help you better:

A
  • Solve problems
  • Work in teams
  • Manage conflicts
  • Make carer choices
  • Negotiate relationships
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240
Q

Three learning styles

A
  • Visual learners
  • Auditory learners
  • Kinesthetic learners
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241
Q

Retention rate vs degree (type) of participation

A

Lowest to highest retention level

  • Lecture
  • Reading
  • Demonstration
  • Discussion
  • Practice by doing
  • Immediate use of learning
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242
Q

Learning cureves

A
  • Decreasing returns
  • Increasing returns
  • S-Shaped curve
  • Plateau curve
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243
Q

This type of learning curve occurs when the amount of learning or skill level increases rapidly at first and then the rate of improvement slows or is complete.

A

Decreasing returns

ex. an employee learns how to accurately complete all sections of a new department form

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244
Q

This type of leaning curve is most common when a person is learning something completely new. The beginning of the curve is slow while the basics are being learned; then performance takes off as skills and knowledge are acquired.

A

Increasing returns

)ex. learning new language)

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245
Q

This type of curve is a combination of increasing and decreasing returns. There is a presupposition that the individual is learning a difficult task that also requires specific insight.

A

S-Shaped curve

ex. after learning a brand new machine employee is asked to turn our a product variation using the same machine.

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246
Q

With this type of curve, the learning is fast at first, but then it flattens out and there is no apparent progress.

A

Plateau curve

ex. an employee learned all knowledge of product lines and is regularly meeting sales-quotas

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247
Q

Ability to recall specific facts

A

Knowledge

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248
Q

Bloom’s taxonomy (principles of classification) six levels of cognitive learning:

A
  • knowledge (ability to recall specific facts)
  • comprehension (ability to translate or interpret information)
  • application (ability to use learned information in a new situation)
  • analysis (ability to break down individual information and explain how they work together)
  • synthesis (ability to trouble-shoot and respond to new situations)
  • evaluation (highest level of learning, and ability to make judgements)
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249
Q

Theories of motivation (6):

A
  • Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
  • Herzberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory
  • McClelland’s Theory X and Theory Y
  • Vroom’s Expectancy Theory
  • Adams’ Equity Theory
  • Skinner’s Reinforcement Theory
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250
Q

Maslow’s five basic human needs, arranged in a hierarchy

A
  • Basic physiological needs (air, food, drink, shelter, sex)
  • Safety and security (freedom from war, working condition, pay)
  • Belonging and love (family, friends, clients, co-workers, groups)
  • Esteem (self and others: approval, and recognition)
  • Self-actualization (education, religion, personal growth, creativity)
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251
Q

Crucial points of Maslow’s theory

A
  • Needs are arranged in a hierarchy
  • A lower level need to be satisfied in order for a higher-level need to emerge
  • no need is every totally satisfied
  • the purpose is to recognize and identify individual current needs to accordingly motivate behavior
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252
Q

Herberg’s Motivation-Hygiene Theory

A

Herberg’s theory of work motivation concludes that employees have two different categories of needs that are essentially independent of each other:

  • Extrinsic Hygiene Factors
  • Intrinsic Motivational Factors
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253
Q

Examples of these factors are: pay, working conditions, relationship with supervision and coworkers

A

Extrinsic Hygiene Factors in Herzberg’s Motivational-Hygiene Theory

254
Q

Examples of these motivational factors are personal growth, recognition, achievement.

A

Intrinsic Motivational Factors in Herzberg’s Motivational-Hygiene Theory

255
Q

This type of motivational theory is based on studies that some people have an intense need to achieve while others do not.

A

McClelland’s Theory

256
Q

According to McClellen’s Theory high achievers:

A
  • Set moderately difficult but potentially achievable goals
  • Prefer to work on a problem rather than leave the outcome to chance
  • Seem to be more concerned with personal achievements than with the rewards of success
  • Seek situation in which they get concrete feedback on how well they are doing with regard to their work.
257
Q

Three motivational needs according to McClelland’s Theory

A
  • Achievement (drive to succeed)
  • Power (drive to direct and control)
  • Affiliation (drive to be liked)
258
Q

McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y

A

Based on two approaches to motivating employees: one labels Theory Y (autonomy or participative style) and one labeled Theory X (rigid control or authoritative style)

259
Q

This motivational theory asserts that employees in an organization will be motivated when they believe that effort will yield better job performance and that better job performance will lead to rewards.

A

Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

260
Q

Three factors according to Vroom’s Expectancy Theory

A
  • Expectancy (perceived effort Influences performance)
  • Instrumentality (Belief that specific action leads to specific outcome)
  • Valence (perceived value of rewards)
261
Q

This type of theory is based on the belief that people want to be treated fairly. Thus, the individuals compare themselves to other people to see if their treatment is equitable.

A

Adam’s Equity Theory

262
Q

This type of Motivational Theory occurs when behavior provides employees with immediate knowledge of the results of their behavior. Desired behavior is recognized and rewarded ; undesired behavior is ignored or punished.

A

Skinner’s Behavioral Reinforcement Theory.

263
Q

Four intervention strategies according to Skinner’s Behavioral Reinforcement Theory

A
  • Positive Reinforcement
  • Negative Reinforcement
  • Punishment
  • Extinction
264
Q

Involves giving a person a desired reward to attain desired behavior and/or encourage its repetition.

A

Positive reinforcement

265
Q

Involves avoiding an undesirable consequence by giving the person a reward when a desired response is exhibited.

A

Negative Reinforcement

266
Q

Results in a decrease in the undesirable behavior because the response causes something negative to occur.

A

Punishment

267
Q

Involves no response; when behavior is not reinforced (positively, negatively, or via punishment), the behavior will diminish and eventually become nonexistent.

A

Extinction

268
Q

Type of positive reinforcers such as salary increase, gifts, and bonuses used to motivate employees

A

Contrived reinforcers

269
Q

Type of positive reinforcers, such as attention, recognition, praise, and job performance feedback.

A

Natural reinforcers.

270
Q

Give reinforcer after specific time passes; ex. weekly or monthly paychecks

A

Fixed interval

271
Q

Give reinforcer after specific number of responses; ex: piece-rate pay or sales commissios

A

Fixed ratio

272
Q

Give reinforcer at random times; ex: unscheduled positive comments form a supervisor

A

Variable interval

273
Q

Give reinforcer after a random number of responses; ex: random checks with praise for meeting production goals

A

Variable ratio

274
Q

Motivational theories are the basis for:

A
  • Positive reinforcement
  • Design or nature of work (intrinsic reward)
  • Work environment (coworkers, corporate culture, work relations)
  • Goal setting
  • Formal extrinsic rewards
  • Pay-for-performance systems
275
Q

According to Maslow, which of the follwoing is an exmple of an esteem need?

a. ) Opportunities for growth
b. ) Base salary
c. ) Effective work team
d. ) Recognition

A

d.) recognition

276
Q

What does ADDIE stand for?

A
A = Need assessment
D = Program design
D = Program development
I  = Implementation of programs
E = Evaluation
277
Q

In this phase in the ADDIE model data is collected to identify gaps between actual and desired organizational performance; then specific training objectives are established to address the training needs.

A

Assessment.

278
Q

Purpose of assessment in ADDIE model

A
  • Identify needs
  • Find performance gaps
  • Identify programs and target audience
  • Form basis for evaluation
279
Q

In this phase of the needs assessment of ADDIE model initial decisions regarding course content, course goals and objectives, delivery methods, and implementation strategies are made.

A

Design

280
Q

In this phase of needs assessment of ADDIE model, materials are created, purchased, and/or modified to meet the stated objectives.

A

Development

281
Q

In this phase of needs assessment of ADDIE model the program is delivered to the target audience. This phase includes pilot programs, revisions to content, participant scheduling and preparing the learning environment.

A

Implementation

282
Q

This phase of needs assessment of ADDIE model consists of comparing the program results to the established objectives to determine whether the original needs were met.

A

Evaluation

283
Q

First phase in the instructional design process that governs the development of programs.

A

Needs assessment (also called a needs analysis)

284
Q

A needs assessment can be used to identify:

A
  • Organization’s goals (needs)
  • Performance gaps
  • programs and target audience
  • content based on fact and not intuition
  • parameters for cost-effective programs
285
Q

Needs Assessment levels

A
  • Organizational
  • Task
  • Individual
286
Q

In the needs assessment ADDIE model, this level identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSA) employees will need in the future.

A

Organizational assessment level

287
Q

This level of needs assessment of ADDIE model compares job requirements with employees knowledge and skills to identify areas needing improvement.

A

Task assessment level

288
Q

This level of needs assessment of ADDIE model focuses on individual employees and how they perform their jobs, usually determined through performance reviews.

A

Individual assessment level

289
Q

This level of needs assessment of ADDIE model measures where is training needed in the organization, and what are the conditions under which training will be conducted.

A

Organizational assessment level

290
Q

This level of needs assessment of ADDIE model measures what need to be taught, and what must be done to perform the job effectively.

A

Task assessment level

291
Q

This level of needs assessment of ADDIE model measures who should be trained, and what kind of training do they need.

A

Individual assessment level.

292
Q

Five steps in the ADDIE Model Needs Assessment process

A
  1. Gather data
  2. Determine training needs
  3. Propose solutions
  4. Calculate potential cost
  5. Implement the training
293
Q

Characteristics of Needs Assessment Surveys/Questionnaires Method of the ADDIE Model

A
  • May be in the form of surveys or polls of a random or stratified sample or an entire population
  • Can use a variety of question formats: open-ended, projective, forced-choice, priority-ranking
294
Q

Advantages of Needs Assessment Surveys/Questionnaires method of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can reach a large number of people in a short time
  • Are inexpensive
  • Give opportunity of response without fear of retaliation
  • Yield data that is easily summarized and reported
295
Q

Disadvantages of Needs Assessment Surveys/Questionnaires Method of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Make little provision for free response
  • Required substantial time for development of effective survey or questionnaire
  • Do not effectively get at causes of problems or possible solutions
296
Q

Characteristics of Needs Assessment Interviews Method of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can be formal or casual; structured or unstructured
  • May be used with a representative sample or whole group
  • Can be done in person, by phone, at the work site, or away from it
297
Q

Advantages of Needs Assessment Interviews Method of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Uncover attitudes, causes of problems, possible solutions
  • Gather feedback; yield of data is rich
  • Allow for spontaneous feedback
298
Q

Disadvantages of Needs Assessment Interviews Method of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Are usually time-consuming
  • Can be difficult to analyze and quantify results
  • Need a skillful interviewer who can generate data without making interviewee self-conscious or suspicious
299
Q

Characteristics of Performance Appraisals Method in Needs Assessment of the ADDIE Model

A
  • May be conducted informally or systematically
  • Conducted by manager; appraisal developed by HR
  • Should be conducted on a regular basis ad separately fro merit discussions
300
Q

Advantages of Performance Appraisals Method of Needs Assessment of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Indicate strengths and weaknesses in skills and identify training and development needs
  • Can also point out candidates for merit raises or promotions
301
Q

Disadvantages of Performance Appraisals Method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can be costly to develop and implement and process results
  • May enable managers to manipulate ratings to justify a pay raise
  • May invalidate appraisal because of supervisor bias
  • May be prohibited for union employees
302
Q

Characteristics of Observations Method of Needs Assessment of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can be technical, functional, or behavioral
  • Can yield qualitative /Quantitive feedback
  • May be unstructured
303
Q

Advantages of Observations Method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Minimize interruption of routine work flow or group activity
  • Generate real-life data
304
Q

Disadvantages of the Observations Method of the Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Require a highly skilled observer with process and content knowledge
  • Allow data collection only in the work setting
  • May cause “spied on” feeling
305
Q

Characteristics of the Tests method of the Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can be functionally oriented to test board, staff, or committee member’s understanding
  • Can be administered in monitored setting or “take home”
306
Q

Advantages of the Tests method of the Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can determine deficiencies in knowledge, skills, or attitudes
  • Easily quantifiable and comparable
307
Q

Disadvantages of the Tests Method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Must be constructed for audience, and validity can be questionable
  • Don’t indicate if measured knowledge and skills are being used on the job
308
Q

Characteristics of Assessment Centers method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • For management development
  • Require participants to complete exercises to determine strengths/areas for development
  • Assess potential by having people work in simulated management situations
309
Q

Advantages of Assessment Centers method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can provide early identification of people with advancement potential
  • More accurate than “intuition.”
  • Reduce bias and increase objectivity in selection process
310
Q

Disadvantages of Assessment Centers method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Selecting people to be included in high-potential process difficult
  • Time-consuming and costly to administer
  • May be used to diagnose developmental needs rather than high potential
311
Q

Characteristics of Focus groups/group discussions method of Needs Analysis in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Can be formal or informal
  • Widely used method
  • Can be focused on a specific problem, goal, task, or theme
312
Q

Advantages of Focus groups/group discussions method of Needs Analysis in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Interaction between viewpoints
  • Enhance buy-in; consensus
  • Group becomes better analyzers and problem solvers
313
Q

Disadvantages of Focus groups/group discussions method of Needs Analysis in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Are time-consuming for both consultants and group members

- Can produce data that is difficult to quantify

314
Q

Characteristics of Document Reviews method of Needs Analysis in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Organizational charts, planning documents, policy manuals, audits, and budget reports
  • Include employee record (grievances, etc.)
  • Also include meeting minutes, programs reports, and memos
315
Q

Advantages of Document Reviews method of Needs Analysis in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Provide clues to trouble spots
  • Provide objective evidence of results
  • Easily collected / compiled
316
Q

Disadvantages of Document Reviews method of Needs Analysis in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Often do not indicate causes of problems or solutions
  • Reflect past rather than current situation
  • Must be interpreted by skilled data analysts
317
Q

Characteristics of Advisor Committees method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Secure information from people who know the training needs of particular group
  • Supply data gathered form consultants by using techniques such as interviews
318
Q

Advantages of Advisor Committees method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Simple, inexpensive
  • Input of those with personal views of group’s needs
  • Strengthen communication
319
Q

Disadvantages of Advisor Committees method of Needs Assessment in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Carry biased organizational perspective
  • May not represent complete picture because information is from group that is not representative of the target audience.
320
Q

Potential costs of training of Needs Assessment in ADDIE Module

A
  • Trainer’s and Trainee’s salary or wage
  • Materials, supplies for training, equipment costs
  • Consultant’s or contractor’s services, legal and administrative help
  • Living expense, etc.
  • Facilities costs
  • Lost production (opportunity cost)
  • Development costs
  • Postage, Data maintenance
321
Q

Potential Savings/ Benefits of training in Needs Assessment of the ADDIE Model

A
  • Reduction in errors, turnovers, required supervision
  • Increase in production, advancement opportunities, ability to perform more jobs, motivation, customer satisfaction, organizational competencies
322
Q

In the Design aspect of the ADDIE Module, design consits of:

A
  • Composing goals
  • Objectives
  • Target audience
  • Instructional designer (in house or off-the-shelf)
323
Q

Three components of the goal in the design aspect of the ADDIE Module

A
  • Who is the training for?
  • What is the training about?
  • Why is the training being conducted?
324
Q

Purpose of the objectives in the design aspect of the ADDIE Module

A
  • Provide a focus for design
  • Define what should be known at the end of the training
  • Measure training effectiveness
325
Q

Words to be avoided when writing an obective

A
  • “understand”

- “learn about”

326
Q

Words to be used when writing an objective

A
  • “identify”
  • “list”
  • “describe”
  • “define”
  • “operate”
  • “compare”
327
Q

Acronym for composing training objectives

A
S  Specific
M  Measurable
A  Attainable
R  Realistic
T  Timely
328
Q

What does acronym SMART stand for in the SMART Model for composing training objectives

A
Specific
Measurable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely
329
Q

When defining target audience in the design aspect of the ADDIE Module, what factors should be considered.

A
  • Aptitude (one’s ability to learn information or acquire a skill)
  • Prior knowledge and skills
  • Attitudes and perceptions
330
Q

Major factor in selecting an Instructional Designer in the Design aspect of the ADDIE Module

A

Company size and structure

331
Q

Two options when selecting a training program in the Selecting an Instructional Designer of the Design in the ADDIE Model

A
  • In-House

- Off-the-Shelf

332
Q

Advantages of the In-House option training program in the Selecting an Instructional Designer of the Design aspect in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Knowledge of organizational culture is useful
  • Learning objectives can be tailored to specific needs
  • Management may buy in more quickly; trust has already been developed
333
Q

Disadvantages of the In-House option training program in the Selecting an Instructional Designer of the Design aspect in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Development time may be lengthy
  • Training staff often already overloaded with administrative duties
  • Expertise needed is often no on staff
  • Assumption that experts are always “somewhere else”
334
Q

Advantages of the Off-the-Shelf option training program in the Selecting an Instructional Designer of the Design aspect in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Training is immediately available
  • Developer’s expertise is usually available to organization to assist in tailoring the product to meet specific needs
  • It is often less expensive than developing in-house programs
335
Q

Disadvantages of the Off-the-Shelf option training program in the Selecting an Instructional Designer of the Design aspect in the ADDIE Model

A
  • Training doesn’t always target specific needs
  • There is usually a need for orientation to assist in understanding the corporate culture
  • It may not be possible to truly customize the product
  • It can sometimes be expensive
336
Q

Skills training categories in the Development aspect of the Addie Module

A
  • Basic or remedial
  • Technical
  • Sales
  • Interpersonal
  • Quality
  • New Technology
337
Q

Other Training Programs than Skills Training in the Design aspect of the ADDIE Module

A
  • Executive training
  • Personal development
  • Wellness training
  • Diversity training
  • Violence in the workplace
  • Board of directors’ training on ethics
  • Harassment or discrimination prevention
338
Q

Consider the following questions in the Design phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • What are the program learning objectives
  • What are the cost limitations
  • What is the program time frame
  • What equipment is available
  • Who is the audience
339
Q

Different training approaches in the Design phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Classroom training
  • Self-directed study
  • E-Learning (Synchronous or asynchronous)
  • Blended learning
  • On-The-Job training
  • Vestibule training
340
Q

Face-to-face classroom learning methods in the Design phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Presentation
  • Case studies
  • Reading
  • Demonstration
  • Structures exercise
  • Group discussions
  • Simulations
  • Self-directed study
341
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when information must be delivered to a large group, possibly at various geographical locations.

A

Presentation

342
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when participants will need to immediately apply the knowledge on the job.

A

Case study

343
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when quite reflection is needed to process a large amount of new information.

A

Reading

344
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when new, detailed information is being presented.

A

Demonstration

345
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when practice is needed to develop new skills.

A

Structured exercise

346
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when participants will benefit from the exchange of information, experience, and knowledge with their peers.

A

Group discussion

347
Q

This classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model is best used when participants need to learn information and process in a risk-free environment and need to come up to speed quickly.

A

Simulation

348
Q

Disadvantages of presentation classroom training method in the Design phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • no longer than 20 minutes
  • does not allow for two-way communication
  • does not allow for differences in learning styles
349
Q

Advantages of self-directed study in the training methods of the Design phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • flexible, self-paced learning
  • opportunities for testing and retesting
  • can focus on certain areas
  • cost-effective and used in many settings
350
Q

Disadvantages of self-directed study in the training methods of the Design phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Learners must be highly motivated and organized or the effort ca fail
  • Little direct feedback unless online feedback is built in.
  • Self- directed learners sometimes skip over important concepts
  • May be expensive to develop thorough content
351
Q

Two types of E-learning method in the training methods of the Design phase in the ADDIE model.

A
  • Synchronous

- Asynchronous

352
Q

E-learning Advantages in the training method of the Design phase in ADDIE model.

A
  • Distributes information widely and quickly to many employees
  • Assists globalization efforts through virtual communication
  • Keeps information consistent and current
  • Permits schedule flexibility for employees
  • Uses synchronous or asynchronous methods
  • Permits practice and repeat opportunities
  • Provides opportunities for simulation and higher-level learning
  • Shows cos efficiencies compared to face-to-face sessions
353
Q

E-learning disadvantages in the training method of the Design phase in ADDIE model.

A
  • Technology constraints affect multimedia options and learner access
  • security concerns with intellectual property and electronic security
  • Developers and technical staff need to monitor program
  • High dropout rate for e-learning programs
  • Learner anxiety for some; online support needed
  • More effort to design and provide meaningful interactions
  • A challenge to make activities meaningful
  • Development and other start up costs can be high
354
Q

Advantages of Blended learning method in the design phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Multiple methods to meet learning objectives
  • Serves the global workforce
  • Appeals to different learning styles
  • Facilitates independent and collaborated learning activities
  • Scheduling and facility flexibility
  • Lower delivery costs than face-to-face options alone
  • More options for facilitators - SMEs, peers, etc.
  • Array of possibilities for interaction and enhanced learning
355
Q

Disadvantages of Blended learning method in the design phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Methods must be carefully chosen based on strategic objectives
  • Technology and security constraints
  • Participants must be organized and motivated
  • Encouragement and online help
  • Costs of all strategies
  • More coordination is necessary; must determine who is accountable
  • Takes more time to develop all aspects than a singe strategy
356
Q

Advantages of on-the-job learning method in the design phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Relevant to the job and “just in time”
  • Demonstrations / simulations in the real environment
  • Opportunities for immediate feedback
  • Pertinent for individuals or small groups
357
Q

Disadvantages of on-the-job learning method in the design phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • May be difficult to schedule in the work settings
  • Potential safety issues in the real environment
  • May be distracting to coworkers
  • Subject matter or process experts need to be available to demonstrate and critique
358
Q

Primary tasks of implementation phase in the ADDIE model.

A
  • Utilizing pilot programs
  • Revising content
  • Scheduling the program
  • Announcing and implementing the program
359
Q

Most visible phase of the ADDIE model.

A

Implementation

360
Q

Most beneficial step in implementing an HRD program.

A

Pilot program

361
Q

Different types of facilitators in the implementation phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Training expert
  • Subject matter expert (SME)
  • Technical expert
  • Consultant
  • Communications expert
362
Q

Training expert strengths in the implementation phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Versed in adult learning and motivation concepts
  • Experienced in teaching, facilitation techniques, and group processes.
  • Deploys active learning exercises and strategies
  • Understands workplace dynamics
363
Q

Subject Matter Expert (SME) strengths in the implementation phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Expert in program content

- Able to answer questions, conduct problem-solving exercises, and relate practical experience

364
Q

Technical expert strengths in the implementation phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Technical expertise in areas such as systems, processes, and information technology
  • Can demonstrate technology, lead simulations, problem-solve, and give immediate feedback
365
Q

Consultant strengths in the implementation phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Uses consultative skills
  • Understands the business and develop relationships through analytical and problem-solving skills
  • Enhances learning by observing, describing, and coaching
366
Q

Communications expert strengths in the implementation phase of the ADDIE model.

A
  • Exhibits strong communication skills through active listening, summarizing, and refocusing participants.
  • Familiar with group process techniques and experienced facilitator of meetings, training, negotiation process, etc.
367
Q

Tips for Trainers

A
  • Listen and acknowledge ideas
  • Praise people as they learn
  • Direct questions back to the audience
  • Ask for examples from participants
  • Share your experience
  • Admit to not knowing an answer
  • Avoid win-lose judgments
  • Show you enjoy helping people learn
  • Spend additional time if necessary
  • Focus on participant’s concerns
  • Express confidence in participants
  • Create positive reinforcement
  • Use participant’s words on flip charts
368
Q

Different types of seating arrangements in scheduling the Program process of the Implementation in ADDIE model.

A
  • Classroom / theater
  • Banquet
  • U Shape
  • Circle
  • Chevron
  • Rectangle
369
Q

Advantages of Classroom/Theater type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Suited for large groups

- Great for presentations

370
Q

Disadvantages of Classroom/Theater type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Low interaction

- May be hard to hear or see facilitator

371
Q

Advantages of Banquet type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Suited for large groups

- Can easily be broken into small groups for interaction

372
Q

Disadvantages of Banquet type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Some participants may be seated with their back to the facilitator
373
Q

Advantages of U Shape type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Good for small interactive groups
374
Q

Disadvantages of U Shape type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Not suitable for large groups
375
Q

Advantages of Circle type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Good for small interactive groups
376
Q

Disadvantages of Circle type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Not suitable for large groups
377
Q

Advantages of Chevron type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Suited for large groups

- Great setup for PC-based training

378
Q

Disadvantages of Chevron type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Easy for participants to feel disconnected if sitting at PC terminals
379
Q

Advantages of Rectangle type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Good for small interactive groups
380
Q

Disadvantages of Rectangle type of seating arrangement in the implementation phase of ADDIE model.

A
  • Not suitable for large groups
381
Q

Purpose of Training Evaluation

A

Determine or identify:

  • If a program achieved its objectives
  • Strengths and weaknesses
  • Cost-benefit ratio, break-even analysis, and return on investment
  • Which participants benefited the most from the training
  • If the program was appropriate
  • informational database
382
Q

Training Barriers

A
  • Interference from work environment
  • Non-supportive culture
  • Impractical or irrelevant training
  • Discomfort with change
  • Separation from inspired or support of the facilitator
  • Poorly defined / delivered training
  • Pressure from peers to resist training
  • Newly learned behaviors are not valued by managers
383
Q

Kirkpatrick’s training evaluation levels

A

Level 1. Reaction (how participant felt about the training)
Level 2. Learning (how participant increased or otherwise changed their knowledge, skills, and attitudes)
Level 3. Behavior (how participants changed their behavior on the job)
Level 4. Results (how the program affected the organizational goals)

384
Q

Needs assessments may not be conducted in organizations because

a. ) gaps between employees’ skills and knowledge are already known
b. ) managers may prefer action over research
c. ) there is no existing job description
d. ) knowledge of what other organizations are doing precludes a costly study

A

b.) Manager may prefer action over research
Other reasons may include:
- lack of support
- time-consuming
- difficult to summarize findings
- demands from the senior management take precedence
- Don’t know how

385
Q

Which level is a needs assessment targeting when measuring what skills are required to perform a job effectively?

a. ) Individual
b. ) Task
c. ) Organizational
d. ) Strategic

A

b.) Task

Individual assessment level measures who should be trained, and what kind of training do they need.

Organizational assessment level measures where is training needed in the organization, and what are the conditions under which training will be conducted.

There is no strategic level of needs assessment.

386
Q

To determine the cost of training per participant, the toal cost of training is divided by which of the following?

a. ) Number of people actually trained
b. ) Percentage increase in production
c. ) Percentage decrease in turnover
d. ) Number of people selected for training

A

a.) Cost per trainee = total cost of training / Number of people trained

387
Q

Which of the following should HR consider when defining the target audience for a training program?

a. ) Potential productivity gains
b. ) Incentives for completing the training
c. ) Peer group pressure
d. ) Knowledge and skill of participants

A

d.) Knowledge and skill of participants

the following factors must also be considered when designing the training:

  • Aptitude of the participants
  • Attitudes ad perceptions
  • KSA competencies
388
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of conducting a pilot program?

a. ) It allows you to evaluate the sequencing of content
b. ) Participants can be put at ease concerning the training
c. ) it provides the instructional designer with more time to design the program
d. ) It creates interest from key stakeholders

A

a.) It allows you to evaluate the sequencing of content

Other advantages of conducting a pilot program:

  • Measure the effectiveness of the chosen learning activities
  • Assess the time allotted
  • Examine the physical space in which the program will occur
389
Q

Which of the following is a primary advantage of conducting training off-site?

a. ) It will be easier to diagnose individual learning needs
b. ) Participants will know exactly when the training will start and end
c. ) A property selected off-site will be more conductive to effective training
d. ) It will be easier to evaluate the extent to which the training objectives are achieved

A

c.) A property selected off-site will be more conductive to effective training

Off-site training is often selected for multi-day programs.

390
Q

Which of the following evaluation methods provide the MOST valuable measurement information?

a. ) Reaction
b. ) Learning
c. ) Behavior
d. ) Results

A

d.) Results

from highest to lowest: Results, Behavior, Learning, Reaction

391
Q

Which of the following evaluation methods provide the MOST frequency of use?

a. ) Reaction
b. ) Learning
c. ) Behavior
d. ) Results

A

a.) Reaction

from highest to lowest: Reaction, Learning, Behavior, Results

392
Q

Which of the following evaluation methods provide the LEAST valuable measurement information?

a. ) Reaction
b. ) Learning
c. ) Behavior
d. ) Results

A

a.) Reaction

393
Q

Which of the following evaluation methods provide the greatest ease of use?

a. ) Reaction
b. ) Learning
c. ) Behavior
d. ) Results

A

a.) reaction

394
Q

The best way for managers to measure observable changes in behavior is through the use of

a. ) pre-/post-measures
b. ) performance tests
c. ) performance appraisals
d. ) questionnaires

A

b.) performance tests

395
Q

What is the goal of the Talent Management?

A

Increase workplace productivity

396
Q

Factors affecting talent management

A
  • Economy and job market
  • Demographic trends and likely labor shortage
  • Increasing reliance on contingent workers
  • Baby boomer retirements
  • Workforce diversity
  • Technological growth and change
  • Demand for knowledge worers
  • Competition for talent resources
397
Q

Orientation gives new employees initial exposure to three different types of information:

A
  • Organizational information
  • Policies, procedures, and benefits
  • Work context
398
Q

Successful orientation programs include the following factors:

A
  • Active rather than passive participation by new employees
  • Orientation spread out over a period of time
  • Use of orientation checklists
  • Avoidance of information overload
399
Q

On-boarding promotes assimilation into:

A
  • Organizational culture and norms
  • Specific departments and functions
  • Job expectations and job resources
  • Support systems (e.g. mentoring, work/life balance)
400
Q

Two processes of career development.

A
  • Career planning

- Career management

401
Q

Career development occurs when…..

A

… the needs of the organization (Career Management) and the individual (Career Planning) coincide.

402
Q

Four Roles in Managing Career Development:

A
  • Individual
  • Manager
  • HR professional
  • Organizational Leaders
403
Q

Four roles managers should perform in order to serve their employees in their career development.

A
  • Coach (listens, clarifies, probes, defines career concerns)
  • Appraiser ( gives feed back, clarifies performance standards and job responsibilities)
  • Adviser ( generates options, helps set goals, gives advice, makes recommendations)
  • Referral agent (consults with employees on action plans and links them to available organizational resources)
404
Q

When designing a career path, HR must:

A
  • Complete a job analysis to determine the performance requirements
  • Develop a natural jobs progression
  • Communicate potential career paths to employees
  • Obtain / update skill inventory database (experience, education, etc.)
  • Determine training and development needs of employees
405
Q

Ways Organizational Leaders might be involved in career development:

A
  • Communicating organization’s goals so that career management plans are aligned with organization’s systems and needs
  • Linking career development to the organization’s vision and mission
  • Placing value on/ rewarding managers who help with career planning
  • Participate in career development meetings
  • Require annual review of management planning versus actual actions taken
406
Q

Stages in carer development model.

A
Stage 1. Occupational preparation
Stage 2. Organizational entry
Stage 3. Early career establishment and achievement 
Stage 4. Mid career
Stage 5. Late career
407
Q

Major tasks of Stage 1 (occupational preparation) in career development model.

A
  • Develop occupational self-image
  • Assess alternative occupations
  • Develop initial occupational choice
  • Pursue necessary education
408
Q

Major tasks of Stage 2 (Occupational Entry) in career development model.

A
  • Obtain job offers form desired organizations

- Select appropriate offer

409
Q

Major tasks of Stage 3 (Early Career Establishment and Achievement) in career development model.

A
  • Learn job
  • Learn organizational rules and norms
  • Fit into chosen occupation and organization
  • Increase competence
  • Pursue career dream
410
Q

Major tasks of Stage 4 (Mid Career) in career development model.

A
  • Reappraise early career plans
  • Reaffirm or modify career dream
  • Make choices appropriate to middle adult years
  • Remain productive in work
411
Q

Major tasks of Stage 5 (Late Career) in career development model.

A
  • Remain productive in work
  • Maintain self-esteem
  • Prepare for effective retirement
  • May contribute to career development of others at earlier stages
412
Q

Two types of tools/activities in Career Development program

A
  • self-assessment tools

- individual coaching/counseling

413
Q

In career development program, the self-assessment should answer the following questions about a person’s career.

A
  • Where am I today?
  • Where do I want to be?
  • What gaps do I need to fill to get there?
414
Q

Types of employee self-assessment tools.

A
  • self-study workbook with exercises
  • web-based planning tools
  • structural career planning workshops
415
Q

Involves one-on-one discussions between the employee and an experienced individual (HR, a supervisor, a hired consultant)

A

Individual coaching/counseling

416
Q

Types of individual coaching and counseling activities.

A
  • Mentoring
  • Internal coaching
  • External coaching
  • Executive coaching
417
Q

Internal coaching between a supervisor and an employee may focus on:

A
  • employee’s new skill or interest
  • employee’s feedback
  • employee’s interest in a change in the organization
  • employee’s a poor job fit
  • employee’s desire for development opportunities
418
Q

External coaching, available to professional, exempt, and/or high-potential employees and done in a private with a trained or certified consultant/coach, would typically include:

A
  • Individual and environment assessment
  • Identifying desired outcome
  • Setting personal and professional goals and objectives
  • Attaining commitment along the way
  • Generating accountability
  • Celebrating accomplishments
419
Q

In an executive coaching, performed by a third-party vendor in support of managers, the employee:

A
  • Identifies strengths and weaknesses
  • Chooses specific results the coaching will help produce
  • Focuses on what is tho be accomplished
  • Learns to produce results reliably and with less effort
  • Develops and enhances communication skills
  • Adopts effective management practices
420
Q

One of the aspects of talent management; These activities provide employees with opportunities to learn new ideas and skills, thus preparing them for future positions and challenges.

A

Employee development

421
Q

Employee development programs

A
  • College/ University and continuing education
  • Committee/ Team Participation
  • Apprenticeship
  • Job rotation
  • Job Enlargement
  • Job Enrichment
  • Internal mobility
  • Dual Career Ladders
422
Q

This type of Employee Development Program usually involves tuition reimbursement.

A

College/ University and Continuing Education

423
Q

This type of Employee Development Program exposes employees to group decision making and collaborative processes, other areas of the organization, and outside agencies.

A

Committee / Team Participation

424
Q

Who regulates the U.S. apprenticeship system.

A
  • Bureau of Apprenticeship and training (BAT)

- U.S. Department of Labor

425
Q

The rules on this type of Employee Development Program can be found at 29 CFR 520; also some of the jobs performed under this program may be paid a “sub-minimum wage” under federal law.

A

Apprenticeship

426
Q

Different tasks under the same jobs

A

Job enlargement

427
Q

Increases the depth of a job by adding responsibilities.

A

Job enrichment

428
Q

An example of one of employee development programs:
A receptionist who greets visitors and answers the phones as his primary job responsibilities may be asked to sort the mail, maintain office supplies, and perform data entry in an effort to stay busy and be productive between visitors and phone calls.

A

Job enlargement

429
Q

This is an example of what type of employee development program:
An assembly-line worker may take on some quasi-supervisory responsibilities such as ensuring that materials or parts are fully stocked to keep the line running and that employees are at their workstations when needed.

A

Job enrichment

430
Q

This is an example of which type of employee development program?
A factory employee may work one day in assembly and then work the next day in inspection.

A

Job rotation

431
Q

This type of employee development program involves a number of activities, including promotions, demotions, relocation, and transfers.

A

Internal Mobility

432
Q

Related to the importance of strategic alignment, new positions should be created only in response to the organization’s mission and strategic objectives. HR must be diligent to guard against “creeping carer paths” (creating jobs). Arbitrary or artificial career paths can lead to unrealistic expectations and unnecessary organizational structure and costs.

A

Promotions in the Internal Mobility type of career development.

433
Q

Occurs when employees have been advanced beyond their skills and capabilities, and they should be given the opportunity to move back or laterally to positions that are geared to their talents.

A

Demotions

434
Q

Demotions are usually the results of:

A
  • Staff reductions/consolidations.reorganizations
  • An attempt to move an under-qualified employee to a more suitable position
  • An employee’s request
435
Q

Moving employees to another geographic location, domestically or internationally.

A

Relocation

436
Q

Factors to consider when managing employee relocation.

A
  • How the organization benefits
  • Effect on employee morale and productivity
  • The costs, including moving costs and possible adjustments in compensation and other allowances
  • Employment opportunities for the spouse
  • Need for orientation programs to adjust employees and their families to the new location
437
Q

Shifting employees in jobs to match their abilities and the organization’s staffing needs.

A

Transfers

438
Q

Benefits of job transfers

A
  • helps organizations balance staffing
  • facilitate career development
  • reduce the need for terminations
439
Q

Identify meaningful career paths for people who are not interested in traditional management roles.

A

Dual-Ladder Programs

440
Q

A talent management strategy to help identify and foster the development of high-potential employees.

A

Succession Planning / Replacement Planning

441
Q

A successful Succession Planning contains the following:

A
  • Managerial position requirements
  • Succession requirements
  • Candidate data
  • Appraisal of performance and development needs
442
Q

A successful succession plan provides the following:

A
  • Individual’s aspirations and related development plans
  • Planned broadening experiences
  • Summaries of candidate availability
  • Tentative plans for meeting shortages or surpluses
443
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the time frame variable.

A

Replacement Planning: 0-12 months

Succession Planning: 12-3 months

444
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “readiness” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Best candidate available

Succession Planning: Candidate with the best development potential

445
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “commitment level” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Designates a preferred replacement candidate

Succession Planning: Merely possibilities until vacancies occur

446
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “Planning focus” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Vertical lines of succession within units or functions

Succession Planning: A pool of talented candidates with capabilities for several assignments.

447
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “Planning development” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Usually informal, a status report on strengths and weaknesses.

Succession Planning: Specific plans and goals set for the individual

448
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “flexibility” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Limited by plan structure; however, in practice has a great deal of flexibility.

Succession Planning: Flexible plans that are intended to promote development and thinking about alternatives.

449
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “plan basis” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Each manager’s best judgment based on observation and experience.

Succession Planning: The result of input and discussion among multiple managers.

450
Q

Comparison of Replacement Planning and Succession Planning in the “evaluation” variable.

A

Replacement Planning: Observation of performance on the job over time demonstrated competence; progress through the unit.

Succession Planning: Multiple evaluations by different managers on different assignments; testing and broadening early in career.

451
Q

Suggestions for fast-tracking.

A
  • Develop competencies through on-the-job experiences
  • Provide behavioral training
  • Facilitate feedback on development progress
  • Encourage self-management of the development process
  • Provide executive coaches
452
Q

Often provided as an alternative to layoffs, this type of program offer incentives to employees who meet length-of-service and/or age requirements to retire voluntarily.

A

Retirement / Transition Planning

453
Q

Which of the following is the organization’s responsibility in career management?

a. ) Assess career options inside and outside the organization
b. ) Design a career path that matches organizational goals
c. ) Match organizational needs with individual abilities
d. ) Identify personal abilities and interests

A

c.) Match organizational needs with individual abilities

other responsibilities are:

  • Identify future organizational staffing needs
  • Assess career strategies and training programs
  • Develop career development programs (career paths and ladders)
  • Provide career training, no-the-job development, and counseling
454
Q

An employee who is reappraising her early career plans, modifying those plans, and maintaining her work productivity is in which stage of the career development model?

A

Mid Career

455
Q

In executive coaching experience, the employee does all of the following except:

a. ) develop communication skills
b. ) learn to produce results
c. ) identify strengths and weaknesses
d. ) design a new self-performance appraisal

A

d.) design a new self-performance appraisal

In an executive coaching experience, the employee also may:

  • Chose specific results the coaching will help produce
  • Focuses on what is being accomplished
  • Adopts effective management practices
456
Q

Succession plans provide which of the following outputs?

a. ) Summaries of candidate availability
b. ) Candidate data
c. ) Compensation data
d. ) Position requirements

A

a. ) Summaries of candidate availability

In addition, a succession plan provide s the following:

  • Individual’s aspirations and related development plans
  • Planned broadening experiences
  • Tentative plans for meeting shortages or surpluses
457
Q

An organization has defined a group of high-performing key managers in various departments. The organization has decided to provide special development for these individuals. What career development program is this organization implementing?

A
  • Fast-track program
458
Q

Which level of learner participation offers the best opportunity for retention?

a. ) Reading
b. ) Demonstration
c. ) Immediate use
d. ) Lecture

A

c.) Immediate use

Immediate use of learning provides a 90% or higher retention rate.

459
Q

Which of the following factors has reinforced the need for talent management systems?

a. ) Reduced competition for talented workers
b. ) Decreased reliance on contingent workers
c. ) Faltering economy
d. ) Retirement of baby boomers

A

d.) Retirement of baby boomers

With the retirement of baby boomers, organizations must use talent management strategies to replace these workers and find ways to harness their institutional knowledge.

460
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of an HRD program designed for adult learners?

a. ) The instructor is seen as having all the answers.
b. ) Learners may not have immediate use for training knowledge.
c. )Employees’ learning is subject-focused.
d. ) The debate and challenge of ideas is encouraged.

A

d.) The debate and challenge of ideas is encouraged.

In an environment focused on adult learners, the participants are resources to each other and bring a wealth of knowledge and experience. The instructor should encourage debate of ideas and create a participative and collaborative environment.

461
Q

Which of the following learning activities would appeal primarily to an auditory learner?

a. ) Lecture and review tapes
b. ) Group activities and model building
c. ) Video demonstrations and field trips
d. ) Diagrams and illustrated handouts

A

a.) Lecture and review tapes

Auditory learners learn best by listening. They prefer to listen to lectures and talk things through. They often like to listen to audiotapes and will frequently record lectures. They also benefit from reading aloud.

462
Q

Which of the following performance appraisal tools provides a quantitative rating for each employee and is the simplest to use?

a. ) MBO
b. ) Ranking
c. ) Graphic scales
d. ) Critical incidents

A

c.) Graphic scales

Graphic scales are the simplest quantitative tool. Participants are rated on key aspects of the job using a 1-5 scale. Space is provided for comments.

463
Q

A warehouse distribution organization has been concentrating on coaching and developing its employees. The manager of the distribution department adjusts his leadership style to what is necessary for each employee, depending on the employee’s level of job development and maturity. The manager of the marketing department does not change his leadership style but rather changes the factors surrounding a situation to manage the marketing department employees. Which theory is the marketing manager exhibiting?

a. ) Blake-Mouton’s managerial theory
b. ) Transformational leadership theory
c. ) Hersey-Blanchard’s situational theory
d. ) Fiedler’s contingency theory

A

d.) Fiedler’s contingency theory

Fred Fiedler proposed that three factors determine the favorableness of the leadership environment: leader-member relations, task structure, and position power. The factors are identified from most important to least important. Together, they determine how favorable situations are for leaders.

464
Q

Which of the following is an example of reinforcement according to a fixed ratio?

a. ) Yearly review
b. ) Occasional praise
c. ) Monthly paycheck
d. ) Sales commission

A

d.) Sales commission
A sales commission is a fixed-ratio reinforcer. The reinforcement is provided after a specific number of responses. A commission is linked to dollars sold, thus establishing a fixed ratio. A monthly paycheck or a yearly review is a fixed-interval reinforcer, given after a specific interval of time passes. Occasional praise is a variable-ratio reinforcer, given after a random number of responses.

465
Q

The PRIMARY purpose of an organizational needs assessment is to

a. ) develop a pool of talented employees that meet the organization’s needs.
b. ) identify skills that the organization needs today and in the future.
c. ) determine what employees need to succeed in their current jobs.
d. ) identify employees whose performance needs to be improved.

A

b.) identify skills that the organization needs today and in the future.
An organizational assessment helps companies to plan ahead and identify the key knowledge, skills, and abilities that employees will need as the organization and their jobs change. It also looks for ways that HRD programs can improve organizational performance. The purpose of an organizational assessment is to identify skills that are needed, not to develop a pool of talented employees.

466
Q

A manager uses his skill with people to smooth over problems and to make his employees feel secure in their positions. According to the Blake-Mouton leadership styles, the manager’s leadership style is referred to as

a. ) high task, high people.
b. ) high task, low people.
c. ) low task, low people.
d. ) low task, high people.

A

d.) low task, high people.
Managers who exhibit low task, high people leadership styles avoid using their authority because they fear that it will jeopardize their relationships. They try to create a supportive atmosphere and trust that employees will respond positively.

467
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the BEST training programs?

a. ) They can be easily evaluated.
b. ) They build in technology applications.
c. ) They allow for transfer of training.
d. ) They are inexpensive to deliver.

A

c.) They allow for transfer of training.
The best training programs ensure that knowledge and skills learned in the classroom will be used in the work environment. Regardless of the type of training program, transfer of learning should occur.

468
Q

Which of the following are aimed at preparing for long-term future job responsibilities as well as increasing skills for performing an employee’s current job?

a. ) Knowledge activities
b. ) Developmental activities
c. ) Skills activities
d. ) Training activities

A

b.) Developmental activities
Developmental activities have a long-term focus on preparing for future responsibilities while increasing the capacities of employees to perform their current jobs. These activities are broader in scope than training activities.

469
Q

Two Leadership Theries

A
  • Trait Theories

- Behavioral Theories

470
Q

In the Leadership Trait Theory, what five personal characteristics appear to be related to effective leadership.

A
  • Intelligence
  • Dominance
  • Self-confidence
  • High levels of energy and activity
  • Task-relevant knowledge
471
Q

Two Behavioral Dimensions of Leadership

A
  • Consideration (employee-centered)

- Initiating structure (job-oriented)

472
Q

In this behavioral dimension of Leadership, behavior is aimed at meeting the social and emotional needs of groups and individuals and helping group members and explaining decisions.

A

Consideration (employee-centered)

473
Q

In this behavioral dimension of leadership, behavior is aimed at at careful supervision of work method and performance levels, and at clarifying roles and setting roles.

A

Initiating change (job-oriented)

474
Q

This type of leadership theory focuses on how a person behaves, behavioral patterns, styles, and functions fulfilled by an individual. It also examines the impact of leadership on performance and satisfaction.

A

Behavioral Management Theory

475
Q

Common Leadership practices of successful leaders:

A
  • Challenging the process (seek challenge and take risks)
  • Inspiring a shared vision (a desire to change, create)
  • Enabling others to act (enlist support of others)
  • modeling the way (lead by example)
  • encouraging the (heart encourage the heart despite adversity and celebrate successes with the followers)
476
Q

Obstacles to leadership development

A
  • Slowly developing crisis
  • Suppressive effects of large and complex organizations and communities
  • Educational system and business rewards that value individual performance over teamwork
  • Negative publicity over high visibility
477
Q

This behavioral leadership theory uses two axes to describe leadership/management behavior of:

  • Concern for people
  • Concern for production
A

Blake-Mouton’s theory

478
Q

Four types of leaders (extremes) according to Blake-Mouton’s behavioral leadership theory.

A
  • Authoritarian Task managers
  • Team leaders
  • Country club managers
  • Impoverished managers
479
Q

What two axes does the Blake-Mouton Managerial Gird use to describe leadership / management behavior.

A
  • concern for people

- concern for production

480
Q

On the Blake-Mouton Grid, where does the Country Club managers score?

A

One on production

Nine on people

481
Q

On the Blake-Mouton Grid, where does the Impoverished managers score?

A

One on production
One on people

“delegate and disappear” management style

482
Q

On the Blake-Mouton Grid, where does the Authoritarian managers score?

A

Nine on production
One on people

strong on schedules, tend not to foster collaboration, “no questions asked” type managers

483
Q

On the Blake-Mouton Grid, where does the Middle-of-the-road managers score?

A

Five on production
Five on people.

These type of managers are NOT at the level necessary for successful leadership.

484
Q

This type of leadership theory matches leadership style to the situation.

A

Situational Leadership Theory

485
Q

Two different Situational Leadership Theories.

A

Hersey-Blanchard’s Theory

Fiedler’s contingency theory

486
Q

This Situational Leadership theory does not depict an ideal mode of behavior that is appropriate for all situations. It suggests that leadership style should be matched to the maturity of the employees.

A

Hersey-Blanchard’s Theory

487
Q

This situational leadership theory has two key aspects: task behavior and relationship behavior.

A

Hersey-Blanchard’s Theory

488
Q

This type of behavior in Hersey-Blanchard’s Theory refers to the extent to which leaders are likely to organize and define the roles and activities of members of the group.

A

Task behavior

489
Q

This type of behavior in the Hersey-Blanchard’s Theory refers to the extent to which leaders are likely to maintain personal relationship with members of the group.

A

Relationship behavior.

490
Q

Two parts of maturity in relation to a specific task in the Hersey-Blanchard’s Theory.

A
  • Psychological maturity

- Job maturity

491
Q

This type of maturity in the Hersey-Blanchard’s theory combines self-confidence, ability and readiness to accept responsibility.

A

Psychological maturity

492
Q

This type of maturity in the Hersey-Blanchard’s theory combines relevant skills and technical knowledge.

A

Job maturity

493
Q

Four Leadership tasks based on employee’s maturity according to Hersey-Blanchard’s theory

A
  • Delegating (for employees who need the least guidance)
  • Participating with employees
  • Selling ideas to employees
  • Telling what to do (for employees who need the most guidance)
494
Q

Which of the following are aimed at preparing for long-term future job responsibilities as well as increasing skills for performing an employee’s current job?

a. ) Knowledge activities
b. ) Developmental activities
c. ) Skills activities
d. ) Training activities

A

b.) developmental activities

Developmental activities have a long-term focus on preparing for future responsibilities while increasing the capacities of employees to perform their current jobs. These activities are broader in scope than training activities.

495
Q

In SMART training objectives, S represents

a. ) specifics of what the learner will accomplish.
b. ) support the learner will need.
c. ) skills the learner will develop.
d. ) standards the learner will meet.

A

a.) specifics of what the learner will accomplish.

S represents the specific objectives that the learner hopes to accomplish.

496
Q

The process by which an organization articulates its development requirements in order to accomplish its goals and objectives is called a/an

a. ) ROI analysis.
b. ) SWOT analysis.
c. ) impact assessment.
d. ) needs analysis.

A

d.) needs analysis.

A needs analysis (also called a needs assessment) is the first step in the ADDIE process model.Conducting a needs assessment should lead to the alignment of organizational and HRD goals.

497
Q

A trainee comes late to training class and is not allowed to attend. This is an example of what type of behavioral reinforcement?

a. ) Punishment
b. ) Extinction
c. ) Negative reinforcement
d. ) Positive reinforcement

A

a.) Punishment

Punishment results in a decrease of negative behavior due to an undesirable consequence. If late attendees are denied access to training, they may learn to come on time.

498
Q

Which of the following statements about Maslow’s motivational theory is true?

a. ) It is based on the belief that people want to be treated fairly.
b. ) It identifies the key factors that lead to job dissatisfaction.
c. ) It identifies the role of the leader in motivating employees.
d. ) It recognizes the role of individual needs in motivating people.

A

d.) It recognizes the role of individual needs in motivating people.
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs illustrates the importance of recognition and identification of individual needs for the purpose of motivating behavior. The hierarchy indicates that no need will ever be totally satisfied; thus, an opportunity for motivating an individual’s behavior is always present.

499
Q

An organization needs to implement a performance management system to accommodate new acquisitions. Which performance management system will avoid rater biases from the newly acquired managers?

a. ) Ranking
b. ) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)
c. ) Critical incidents
d. ) Management by objectives (MBO)

A

b.) Behaviorally anchored rating scales (BARS)

BARS is a performance appraisal approach specifically designed to avoid the issues of category ranking systems. Each employee is rated against the position’s behavioral anchors rather than against another employee’s performance.

500
Q

A supervisor assigns an employee to teach a new employee how to run a computer report. Which of the following levels of learning does the employee exhibit when teaching?

a. ) Analysis
b. ) Comprehension
c. ) Synthesis
d. ) Application

A

c.) Synthesis

At the synthesis level, an individual can be an effective trainer. The trainer should be able to respond to new situations and determine trouble-shooting techniques and solutions. For example, the trainer should be able to handle any problems encountered while running the report.

501
Q

A talent management program will be LESS effective if it focuses mostly on

a. ) recruitment strategies.
b. ) training activities.
c. ) short-term goals.
d. ) retention goals.

A

c.) short-term goals.

Talent management requires an integrated approach to attracting, recruiting, developing, and retaining employees. It must include short- and long-term goals.

502
Q

Salespeople are polled to determine their top training needs. The majority say they want to be able to identify key decision makers and their needs. Which of the following would work BEST for this group?

a. ) Lecture
b. ) Role plays
c. ) Case studies
d. ) Demonstration

A

c.) Case studies

Case studies give participants a chance to analyze sales situations and determine how best to approach each of the key decision makers and determine the needs of each. The case study format allows the salespeople to play an active role in their learning, share their account management tips, and learn from each other.

503
Q

An HR professional wants to represent the percentage of turnover for each of the last five years. Which quality tool will be most effective for visualizing yearly turnover trends?

a. ) Pareto chart
b. ) Check sheet
c. ) Histogram
d. ) Control chart

A

c.) Histogram

A histogram uses a bar-graph chart to summarize key data. It works best for visualizing how change has occurred over time. The histogram makes it easy to see the data for each year and makes trends easy to spot.

504
Q

According to the Hersey-Blanchard theory, which of the following is generally the MOST suitable situational leadership approach for entry-level employees?

a. ) Low task, low relationship
b. ) High task, high relationship
c. ) High task, low relationship
d. ) Low task, high relationship

A

c.) High task, low relationship
Entry-level employees require leadership that provides structure to project scheduling, methodologies, procedures, etc. This involvement requires a high task structure by the supervisor. However, because the new employee does not possess sufficient experience or insight into best practices, he/she cannot adequately participate in joint problem solving or decision making, thus the low relationship.

505
Q

An OSHA-mandated seminar on safety was recently converted to an e-learning course and is available on the organization’s intranet. The Web course consists of self-study units with accompanying quizzes and e-mail access to a subject matter expert. What is the PRIMARY benefit of this approach?

a. ) The organization can track the training that each employee completes.
b. ) Participants can complete the training when it is convenient for them.
c. ) Employees have easy access to someone who can answer questions.
d. ) Trainers can be eliminated, reducing salary costs.

A

b.) Participants can complete the training when it is convenient for them.
The most important benefit of e-learning is that participants can complete the course at their convenience, making it more likely that they will actually complete the training. While it is nice to have access to a subject matter expert and track training results (especially for mandated courses), it is most important that the training is actually completed.

506
Q

Planned approach to learning that includes a combination of methods such as classroom, e-learning, self-paced study, and performance support such as job aids or coaching.

A

Blended learning

507
Q

Study of how adults learn.

A

Andragogy

508
Q

Organization characterized by a capability to adapt to changes in environment.

A

Learning organization

509
Q

Expectations of management translated into behaviors and results that employees can deliver.

A

Performance standards

510
Q

Coaching typically conducted by a third-party vendor to support managers in mastering the fundamental principles and practices for achieving extraordinary results and empowering staff success.

A

Executive coaching

511
Q

Training provided to employees at the work site utilizing demonstration and performance of job tasks.

A

On-the-job training (OJT)

512
Q

Type of learning curve in which learning is fast at first but then flattens out with no apparent progress.

A

Plateau curve

513
Q

Meaningful work, good feedback on performance, autonomy, and other factors that lead to high levels of satisfaction in the job.

A

Intrinsic rewards

514
Q

Type of learning curve in which learning occurs in a series of increasing and decreasing returns; usually seen when an employee is attempting to learn a difficult task that also requires specific insight.

A

S-shaped curve

515
Q

Relates to technical skills training; often a partnership between employers and unions.

A

Apprenticeship

516
Q

Clear statement, usually in one sentence, of the purpose and intent of a human resource development program.

A

Goal

517
Q

Learning elements that may be reused in a variety of contexts; examples include animated graphics, job aids, and print modules.

A

Learning objects (LOs)

518
Q

This situational leadership theory states that group performances dependent upon the interaction between leadership style and situational favorableness.

A

Fiedler’s contingency theory

519
Q

Fiedler’s three favorable factors of the leadership environment

A
  • Leader- member relations (the degree of trust that followers have in their leader)
  • Task structure (the extent to which tasks are defined)
  • Position power (the degree of power and influence a leader has over subordinates)
520
Q

Fiedler contends that certain leadership styles are more effective for certain situations. However, rather than suggesting that leaders be trained to change their preferred styles, he suggest that a better alternative is to change the favorableness of the situation by making changes to one or more of the three factors proposed by Fiedler.

A

Part of Key Knowledge

521
Q

Characteristics of transactional leadership.

A
  • Contingent reward (reward for effort, recognition of accomplishment)
  • Management by exception-active. (Looks for deviations from rules)
  • Management by exception - passive. (Intervenes when standards are not met)
  • Laissez faire (abdicates responsibility and avoids making decisions)
522
Q

What type of transactional leaderships characteristics does a manager have who often looks for deviation from the rules?

A
  • Management by exception (active)
523
Q

If a manager intervenes only if standards are not met, what type of characteristic does he/she demonstrate?

A

Transactional leadership Management by exception (passive)

524
Q

Characteristics of transformational leadership

A
  • Charisma (provides vision and sense of mission)
  • Inspiration (communicates high expectations)
  • Stimulation (promotes intelligence, rationality, and problem solving)
  • Individualism (gives personal attention and coaches)
525
Q

Four branches of Emotional Intelligence (EI) according to Peter Saloey and John D. Mayer.

A
  • Perceiving emotion
  • Using emotion to facilitate thought
  • Understanding emotion
  • Regulating emotion
526
Q

The ability to identify and appraise emotion in oneself and others as well as in stimuli such as object or stories.

A

Perceiving emotion (one of four branches of emotional intelligence)

527
Q

The ability to capitalize on feelings to inform decision making, problem solving, and other cognitive activities.

A

Using emotion to facilitate thought (one of four branches of emotional intelligence)

528
Q

The ability to interpret complex feelings and the ways in which they are related.

A

Understanding emotions. (one of four branches of emotional intelligence)

529
Q

The ability to monitor and manage emotions in oneself and others (detaching from feeling angry)

A

Regulating emotion (one of four branches of emotional intelligence)

530
Q

Measure of an individual’s emotional intelligence

A

Emotional Intelligence Quotient (EQ)

531
Q

It is commonly accepted that there is a positive correlation between leadership effectivness and emotional intelligence quotient

A

Key knowledge

532
Q

Issues affecting leadership style.

A
  • Gender differences
  • Generational characteristics
  • Cross-cultural differences
  • Emotional intelligence
533
Q

A difference between management and leadership is that

a. ) management aligns people to the vision and strategies, leadership establishes a structure for accomplishing plan requirements
b. ) management energizes people; leadership organizes people to solve problems
c. ) management establishes the vision; leadership establishes detailed steps and timetables
d. ) management delegates responsibility and authority for carrying out the plan; leadership communicates the direction by words and deeds

A

d.) management delegates responsibility and authority for carrying out the plan; leadership communicates the direction by words and deeds

534
Q

When creating an agenda what is the difference between Management and Leadership

A
  • Management: Planning and budgeting (establishing detailed steps and timetables; allocating the resources)
  • Leadership; Establishing direction (developing a vision of the future and strategies for producing the changes)
535
Q

When developing a human network for achieving the agenda, what is the difference between Management and Leadership.

A

Management: Organizing and staffing (Establishing and staffing a structure, planning the requirements, delegating responsibilities, carrying out the plan, providing policies and procedures)
Leadership: Aligning people (communicating the direction by words and deeds, influencing the teams)

536
Q

When executing, what is the difference between Management and Leadership?

A

Management: Controlling and problem solving (monitoring results, identifying deviations, planning and organizing to solve problems)
Leadership: Motivating and inspiring (energizing people to overcome barriers)

537
Q

When it comes to outcomes, what is the difference between Management and Leadership.

A

Manager: produces a degree of predictability and order, consistently produces key results (on time and on budget)
Leadership: Produces change (new product, new approach)

538
Q

The two primary dimensions of behavioral theories of leadership are:

a. ) intelligence and task-relevant knowledge
b. ) consideration and self-confidence
c) consideration and initiating structure
d. ) initiating structure and intelligence

A

c) consideration and initiating structure

539
Q

Which of the following exemplifies Hersey-Blanchard’s situational theory?

a. ) a leader’s style must change over time as individual develop and require a different type of direction and leadership
b. ) leaders don’t necessarily need personal relationship with mentors to learn from them
c. ) Leaders need to be charismatic because employees dislike rigid controls and inherently want to accomplish something
d. ) A team leader is one equally concerned with people and production (task) to the maximum degree

A

a.) a leader’s style must change over time as individual develop and require a different type of direction and leadership

540
Q

According to the Hersey-Blanchard’s situational leadership model, leaders will have a natural style, but effective leaders should adapt themselves to given situation to help employees become more self-reliant.

A

Key knowledge

541
Q

According to the Hersey-Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model, consistency refers to using the same style for similar situations, and varying the style appropriately as the situation changes. A leader’s style must change over time as individuals develop and require different type of direction and leadership.

A

Key knowledge

542
Q

In the contingency theory of leadership, which of the following refers to the degree of confidence, trust, and respect that followers have in their leader?

a. ) Task structure
b. ) Position power
c. ) situational favorableness
d. ) Leader-member relations

A

d.) Leader-member relations

543
Q

Emotional intelligence generally describes the ability to

a. ) subordinate the emotions of others in favor of oneself
b. ) empathize and manage emotions
c. ) eliminate emotions from strategic decision making
d. ) exhibit positive rather than negative emotions

A

b.) empathize and manage emotions

544
Q

Ways of maintaining or improving employee job performance

A
  • Performance assessment tools
  • Coaching
  • Counseling
  • Providing feedback
545
Q

Elements of a performance management system.

A
  • Organizational values and goals
  • Performance management standards
  • Employee performance / behavior
  • Measurement and feedback
  • business results and employee growth
546
Q

In the Performance Management process development plans and ………… contribute to organizational goals and the professional growth of the employee.

A

individual action

547
Q

Principles, standards, or qualities that are considered worthwhile.

A

Organizational Values and Goals

548
Q

Values are often displayed by …….

A

behavior

Values are usually expressed in the mission statement.

549
Q

In setting and communicating performance standards, the HR professional needs to consider the following:

A
  • Behaviors (what does the organization want the employees to do)
  • Results (what does the organization want employees to produce)
550
Q

Ways for the organization to foster a high-performance workplace.

A
  • Executive support
  • Challenging work environment
  • Employee engagement activities
  • Performance management training
  • Continual feedback
  • Resources and tools
  • Consistent management practices
551
Q

Process that measures the degree to which an employee accomplishes work requirement.

A

Performance appraisal.

552
Q

Three purposes of performance appraisals

A
  • Provide feedback and counseling
  • Help in allocating reward and opportunities
  • Help in determining employees’ aspirations and planning developmental needs
553
Q

What can performance appraisal do?

A
  • Improve productivity through constructive feedback
  • Identify training and developmental needs
  • Communicate expectations
  • Foster commitment and mutual understanding
554
Q

Performance appraisals can be administrated on an individual or group basis: true or false?

A

True.

Performance appraisals can be administrated on an individual or group basis.

555
Q

Steps in individual performance appraisal.

A
  1. Observe employee
  2. Identify and record strengths and weaknesses
  3. Rate employee
  4. Provide feedback
  5. Set goals
556
Q

Appraisal methods.

A
  • Category rating methods
  • Comparative methods
  • Narrative methods
  • Special methods
557
Q

The least complex method of appraising performance, require the appraiser to mark an employee’s level of performance on a designated form.

A

Category rating performance appraisal method.

558
Q

Catagory rating performance appraisal method examples:

A
  • Graphic scale
  • Checklist
  • Forced choice
559
Q

In this type of performance appraisal method, the appraiser directly compares the performance of each employee with that of the other.

A

Comparative method

560
Q

Types of Comparative performance methods.

A
  • rankings
  • paired comparison
  • forced distribution
561
Q

This type of comparative performance appraisal method is used when employees are rated and placed at different percentage points along a bell-shaped curve.

A

Forced distribution

562
Q

Type of performance appraisal method where appraiser submits written narrative performance appraisal.

A

Narrative appraisal performance method.

563
Q

Examples of Narrative performance appraisal methods.

A
  • Essay
  • Critical incidents
  • Field reviews
564
Q

Special performance appraisal methods.

A
  • Management by objectives (MBO)

- Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)

565
Q

In this type of performance appraisal method, employees help set objectives for themselves, defining what they intend to achieve within a specific time period.

A

Management by objective (MBO) - special appraisal method.

566
Q

This type of performance appraisal method was designed to combat the problems of category rating by describing examples of desirable and undesirable behavior. Examples are measured against a scale of performance levels.

A

Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS)

567
Q

Advantages of Behavioral Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)

A
  • works best when employees perform the same tasks
  • more accurate gauge
  • clearer standards
  • feedback
  • independent dimensions
  • consistency across ob descriptions
568
Q

Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) requires an organization to:

A
  • generate critical incidents
  • develop performance dimensions
  • reallocate incidents
  • scale the incidents
  • develop the final instrument
569
Q

Errors in performance appraisal

A
  • Halo/horn effect
  • Recency
  • Primacy
  • Bias
  • Strictness
  • Leniency
  • Central tendency (all employees rated within a narrow range)
  • Contrast (rating compares to others instead of an objective standards)
570
Q

Advantage of graphic scale as a performance appraisal tool.

A

Scales are simple to use and provide a Quantitive rating for each employee.

571
Q

Disadvantage of graphic scale as a performance appraisal tool.

A

Standards may be unclear

572
Q

Advantage of Ranking as a performance appraisal tool

A

Ranking is simple to use bt not as simple as graphic scales.

573
Q

Disadvantage of Ranking as a performance appraisal tool

A

Ranking can cause disagreements among employees and may be unfair if all employees are excellent.

574
Q

Advantage of forced distribution as a performance appraisal tool

A

Distribution forces a predetermined number of people into each group.

575
Q

Disadvantage of forced distribution as a performance appraisal tool

A

Appraisal results depend on the adequacy of your original choice of cutoff points.

576
Q

Advantage of Critical incidents as a performance appraisal tool

A

Tool helps specify what is “right” and “wrong” about the employee’s performance; it forces supervisor to evaluate subordinates on an ongoing basis.

577
Q

Disadvantage of critical incidents as a performance appraisal tool

A

It may be difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another.

578
Q

Advantage of MBO as a performance appraisal tool

A

Tool is tied to jointly agreed-upon performance objectives.

579
Q

Disadvantage of MBO as a performance appraisal tool

A

Tool may be time-consuming to implement.

580
Q

Advantage of BARS as a performance appraisal tool

A

Behavioral “anchors” are very accurate.

581
Q

Disadvantage of BARS as a performance appraisal tool

A

BARS may be difficult to develop.

582
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when an appraisal gives more weight to the employee’s earlier performance and discounts recent occurrences.

A

Primacy

583
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when an appraiser gives more wights to recent occurrences and discounts the employee’s earlier performance during the appraisal period.

A

Recency

584
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when en employee is extremely competent in one area and is therefore rated high in all categories.

A

Halo effect

585
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when employee’s one weakness in one area results i an overall low rating.

A

Horn effect

586
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when an appraiser’s values, beliefs, or prejudices distort ratings.

A

Bias

587
Q

This type of performance appraisal error when an appraiser is reluctant to give high ratings.

A

Strictness

588
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when an appraiser do not want to give low scores.

A

Leniency

589
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when an appraiser rates all employees within a narrow range, regardless of differences in actual performance.

A

Central tendency

590
Q

This type of performance appraisal error occurs when an employee’s rating is based on how his or her performance compares to that of another employee instead of an objective performance standards.

A

Contrast

591
Q

Legal considerations i performance appraisals.

A
  • Absence of evidence that may imply discrimination
  • Evidence that proves validity of appraisal
  • Evaluation criteria that limit subjective responses
  • Personal knowledge of and interaction with the rate employee
  • A review process that prevents one manager from over-influencing an employee’s career
  • Equitable employee treatment
592
Q

Guidelines for giving feedback

A
  • Describe the behavior; don’t judge it
  • Assume an attitude of helpfulness rather than power and domination
  • Empathize with the employees
  • Give specific examples of good and substantial employee performance
593
Q

An anecdotal record of critical incidents or tasks that are performed by the employees.

A

Performance diary / log

594
Q

Notes that contain any of a number of measures, including unit measures, quantity and quality measure, and accounting and cost measures, as tehy relate to the employee.

A

Performance records

595
Q

A forced choice method of appraisal requires an appraiser to

a. ) measure employees against a five-point scale
b. ) mark items on a checklist
c. ) check two of four statement; one most likely and one least likely
d. ) select key statement from a list of positive and negative statements

A

c.) check two of four statement; one that is most like the employee and one that is least like the employee

596
Q

Which of the following narrative appraisal method is completed by a supervisor and a human resource professional

a. ) critical incidents
b. ) field review
c. ) essay
d. ) paired comparison

A

b. Field review

The HR professional interviews the supervisor and takes notes concerning the performance of each employee.

597
Q

Which of the following appraisal methods include the employee in setting goals?

a. ) 360-feedback
b. ) Behaviorally anchored rating scale
c. ) behavior observation scale
d. ) Management by objective

A

d.) Management by Objective (MOB)

598
Q

Which of the following performance appraisal method was designed to combat the problems of category rating?

a. ) BARS
b. ) MOB
c. ) MOS
d. ) 360-degree feedback

A

a.) BARS

Behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) was designed to combat the problems of category rating by describing examples of desirable and undesirable behavior.

599
Q

OD intervention strategies are generally characterized as

a. ) interpersonal, operational, or team.
b. ) functional, dynamic, or static.
c. ) interpersonal, technological, or structural.
d. ) task, individual, or organizational.

A

c.) interpersonal, technological, or structural.

OD (Organizational Development) intervention strategies are generally characterized as interpersonal, technological, or structural.

600
Q

Supervisors managing in a total quality environment must adapt by

a. ) learning to manage in a more participative environment.
b. ) participating in critical incident training.
c. ) paying closer attention to control mechanisms.
d. ) encouraging employees to keep the department clean.

A

a.) learning to manage in a more participative environment.

The need for teamwork in total quality calls for more open communication between managers and line employees. Supervisors must learn to manage and coach in a more participative environment, and employees have to learn skills to help them run meetings, be a part of teams, and make decisions on their own.

601
Q

Which of the following is the BEST solution when a skilled facilitator is not a subject matter expert (SME)?

a. ) The SME attends facilitator training.
b. ) The facilitator teaches with an SME.
c. ) The SME teaches the program.
d. ) The facilitator learns the material.

A

b.) The facilitator teaches with an SME.
Often, knowledge resides in an individual who is not a skilled facilitator. While the SME may have all the answers, he or she may not possess the skills to create a comfortable learning environment. In these instances, pairing a willing SME with a confident facilitator will yield the best results for participants.

602
Q

A conceptual framework that makes patterns clearer is referred to as

a. ) systems thinking.
b. ) a shared vision.
c. ) a mental model.
d. ) team learning.

A

a.) systems thinking.

Systems thinking is one of the five disciplines of a learning organization. This discipline helps individuals create organizational change by providing a framework that highlights the interconnectedness of all processes.

603
Q

An auto repair chain uses manual procedures for checking cars in and out and has received complaints about delays. The CEO attributes the problem to employee laziness. Which motivational theory does the CEO exhibit?

a. ) Situational
b. ) Contingency
c. ) Theory X
d. ) Theory Y

A

c.) Theory X
Theory X managers believe that employees inherently do not like to work and must be strictly controlled. The CEO exhibits this authoritative style by stating that problems are due to employee laziness.

604
Q

An OSHA-mandated seminar on safety was recently converted to an e-learning course and is available on the organization’s intranet. The Web course consists of self-study units with accompanying quizzes and e-mail access to a subject matter expert. What is the PRIMARY disadvantage of this approach?

a. ) OSHA will not be able to determine if the course was completed effectively.
b. ) The organization will have to pay overtime for exempt employees who complete the course outside of work hours.
c. ) The training does not allow for interaction among participants.
d. ) Participants will take longer to complete the training if they are not familiar with computer-based training.

A

c.) The training does not allow for interaction among participants
The biggest drawback may be the fact that the training does not develop teamwork among employees or allow them to share ideas with each other. While overtime could be an issue, the training is mandated and the company will probably find a way to incorporate training into the workday or pay the overtime.

605
Q

One of the most important reasons to cite sources when making a training presentation is to

a. ) add relevant information.
b. ) ensure that all royalties are paid.
c. ) comply with copyright law.
d. ) allow participants to research errors.

A

c.) comply with copyright law.

The Copyright Act protects a known author’s work for the life of the author plus 70 years. An anonymous work is protected for 95 years from the first year of publication or 120 years from the year of creation.

606
Q

In an e-learning environment, when participants gather for discussion online at a specific time, this is considered to be

a. ) synchronous learning.
b. ) asynchronous learning.
c. ) distance learning.
d. ) virtual classroom learning.

A

a.) synchronous learning.

Synchronous learning is when participants interact in real time.

Asynchronous learning is when participants access the learning materials at different times. Distance learning is when instruction is delivered to locations away from a classroom with no specific time element.

607
Q

Which of the following is the best basis for developing an HRD program?

a. ) Request of supervisors
b. ) Results of a needs assessment
c. ) Employee career plans
d. ) Top management directives

A

b.) Results of a needs assessment
An HRD program risks being unsuccessful when not based on the results of a thorough needs assessment. Management directives, supervisor requests, or employee career plans would all be reasons why an HRD professional would begin the needs assessment process. Then, with the data gathered, it would be determined if the issue raised was one that could be solved by an HRD initiative.

608
Q

An employee is late for a meeting. The members of the group continue the meeting and do not acknowledge the employee. No attempt is made to summarize previous discussion. This is an example of

a. ) negative reinforcement.
b. ) punishment.
c. ) extinction.
d. ) positive reinforcement.

A

c.) extinction.
Extinction is the absence of a response to a situation. In this case, the group’s lack of response may make the employee feel uncomfortable, and the employee will get the message about being on time for meetings.

609
Q

In performance management, the comparative method that uses a bell-shaped curve for rating employees is called

a. ) paired comparison.
b. ) forced choice.
c. ) forced distribution.
d. ) ranking distribution.

A

c.) forced distribution.
The forced distribution method places employees on a curve that is divided into multiple sections (i.e., the lowest 10% is poor, the next 20% is below standard, the largest group is standard, and so on), representing the shape of a bell curve.

610
Q

At which level of learning is an employee able to make judgments as to which manufacturing process produces better results?

a. ) Analysis
b. ) Evaluation
c. ) Application
d. ) Synthesis

A

b.) Evaluation

At the evaluation level, a trainee can make judgments about which process, product, or solution is better than another.

611
Q

An HRD professional who helps individuals understand their strengths and weaknesses in order to achieve job and personal goals is demonstrating which HRD competency?

a. ) Technical
b. ) Interpersonal
c. ) Business
d. ) Intellectual

A

b.) Interpersonal
The interpersonal competency requires HRD professionals to understand and practice actions that involve human relationships at individual and group levels. The ability to communicate in these relationships, both verbally and in writing, is central to this competency. It is from this competency that HRD professionals derive their facilitation skills.

612
Q

The MOST appropriate method for training supervisors to conduct effective discipline meetings is

a. ) case study.
b. ) presentation.
c. ) demonstration.
d. ) structured exercise.

A

d.) structured exercise
Structured exercises enable participants to immediately practice new skills in the learning environment. In the case of the supervisors’ training, after observing the facilitator properly conducting a disciplinary meeting, the supervisors would be paired up and asked to practice the skill. While case studies, demonstrations, and presentations could be used, these methods do not provide the opportunity to practice the skill in training. Providing practice time is critical because it will increase the supervisors’ retention level. The supervisors may not use this skill immediately when back on the job, so the higher the retention level, the better.

613
Q

A performance management system does NOT include which of the following?

a. ) Developing employees
b. ) Rewarding good performance
c. ) Comparing performance to the organization’s competitors
d. ) Monitoring employee performance

A

c.) Comparing performance to the organization’s competitors
A performance management system does not include a comparison to the organization’s competitors. The system should be correlated to the goals of the organization.

614
Q

__________ is one of several learning organization characteristics.

a. ) An assessment center
b. ) Massed practice
c. ) System thinking
d. ) Programmed instructions

A

c.) Systems thinking
Systems thinking refers to the characteristics of a learning organization that uses a variety of information-gathering techniques to acquire knowledge of new technology, determine its value, and convert this knowledge into new and improved practices and procedures.
Systems thinking is one of the five disciplines in the Learning Organization.

615
Q

_______ is/are used to determine what kind of training an individual needs.

a. ) Assessment centers
b. ) Massed practice
c. ) Systems thinking
d. ) Programmed instruction

A

a.) Assessment centers
Assessment centers are characterized by multiple tests designed to measure different aspects of the job. Generally used to assess candidates for management potential and decision-making skills, they have been demonstrated to be valid predictors of success on the job. Limited use due to the high costs. Used for assessing internal candidates for promotion.

616
Q

_________ is/are form/forms of practicing job tasks during training in which all tasks are practiced at the same time.

a. ) Assessment centers
b. ) Massed practice
c. ) Systems thinking
d. ) Programmed instruction

A

b.) Massed practice

617
Q

Which of the following should be included in a supervisory training program?

a. ) Conflict resolution skills
b. ) Budgeting
c. ) Rotation through various divisions
d. ) Internal controls

A

a.) Conflict resolution skills
Supervisory training programs should concentrate on topics related to interactions with employees, such as conflict resolution skills.

618
Q

__________ is/are part of management development programs.

a. ) Conflict resolution skills
b. ) Budgeting skills
c. ) internal control training
d. ) Rotation through divisions

A

b. ) Budgeting skills and

c. ) Internal control training

619
Q

__________ is/are part of a leadership program

a. ) Conflict resolution skills
b. ) Budgeting skills
c. ) Rotation through divisions
d. ) Internal control training

A

c.) Rotation through divisions

620
Q

In the evaluation phase, the ________ evaluation method focuses on how well the training resulted in learning new skills and competencies:

a. ) reaction
b. ) learning
c. ) behavior
d. ) results

A

b.) the learning evaluation method

The learning evaluation method focuses on how well the training resulted in learning new skills.

621
Q

The _______ evaluation method focuses on participant reactions.

a. ) reaction evaluation
b. ) learning evaluation
c. ) behavior evaluation
d. ) results evaluation

A

a.) The reaction evaluation

622
Q

The _______ evaluation method measures on-the-job behavior changes as a result of training.

a. ) reaction evaluation
b. ) learning evaluation
c. ) behavior evaluation
d. ) results evaluation

A

c.) The behavior evaluation method

623
Q

The ________ evaluation method measures organizational results.

a. ) reaction evaluation
b. ) learning evaluation
c. ) behavior evaluation
d. ) results evaluation

A

d.) The result evaluation method.

Of the four methods, the results evaluation method is considered the most valuable for the organization.

624
Q

Which of the following factors can adversely affect transfer of training?

a. ) The trainer’s expertise
b. ) A lack of job reinforcement
c. ) The subject of the training
d. ) None of the above

A

b.) A lack of job reinforcement can adversely affect transfer of training.

625
Q

Organization with several employees in technical and scientific careers can most effectively impact retention by providing

a. ) Dual-career ladders
b. ) An employee wellness program
c. ) A validated succession planning program
d. ) Various telecommuting options

A

a.) Dual-career ladders provide opportunities for a parallel occupational track that recognizes and rewards different skill sets. This allows organizations to retain their technical and professional employees at a similar rate as their managerial track employees.

626
Q

Organization with several employees in technical and scientific careers can most effectively impact retention by providing

a. ) Dual-career ladders
b. ) An employee wellness program
c. ) A validated succession planning program
d. ) Various telecommuting options

A

a.) Dual-career ladders provide opportunities for a parallel occupational track that recognizes and rewards different skill sets. This allows organizations to retain their technical and professional employees at a similar rate as their managerial track employees.

627
Q

Also called “needs analysis”

A

Needs assessment. First step in ADDIE model.

628
Q

Levels of needs assessment

A
  • organizational assessment
  • task assessment
  • individual assessment
629
Q

Identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities employees will need in the future. Measures/asks the “where is training needed”

A

Organizational assessment level in the needs assessment of the ADDIE model

630
Q

Compares job requirements with employee knowledge and skills to identify areas needing improvement. Measures/asks the “what needs to be taught”.

A

Task assessment level in the needs assessment of the ADDIE model.

631
Q

Focuses on individual employees and how they perform their jobs, usually determined through performance reviews. Measures/asks “who should be trained”.

A

Individual assessment level in the needs assessment of the ADDIE model.

632
Q

This model provides an easy way to remember to include its elements when composing training objectives.

A
S (Specific)
M (Measurable)
A (Attainable)
R (Realistic)
T(Timely)
633
Q

Hat is the primary focus of Kirkpatrick’s model?

A

Evaluating effectiveness after the program has been conducted, using different data collection method.