Hypercoagulable States Flashcards

(39 cards)

1
Q

Protein C/S deficiency causes increased risk of thrombotic skin necrosis with hemorrhage after _________administration

A

Warfarin

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2
Q

Factor V Leiden is a mutated form of factor V that is resistant to degradation by:

A

Protein C

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3
Q

What is the most likely underlying etiology of DVT in a young, White patient with no obvious risk factors that presents with leg swelling, positive D-dimer, and shortness of breath?

A

Factor V Leiden

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4
Q

What is the most common inherited cause of hypercoagulable state in White populations?

A

Factor V Leiden

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5
Q

Painful purpura, hemorrhagic bullae, and areas of necrosis that appear within the first days of treatment with warfarin are highly suggestive of

A

Warfarin-induced skin necrosis

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6
Q
  • _______ and _____reverse warfarin overdose
  • ______reverses heparin overdose
A
  • Prothrombin complex concentrates (PCC)/FFP + Vitamin K (phytonadione)
  • Protamine
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7
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young woman with a history of two miscarriages and the laboratory values below?
- VDRL: positive
- FTA-ABS: negative
- PT: 12s (normal)
- PTT: 46s (high)

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

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8
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome effects:
CLOTS

A
  • Coagulation defect
  • Livedo reticularis
  • Obstetric (miscarriages)
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • SLE
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9
Q

What is the likely diagnosis in a young adult female with stroke-like symptoms and a positive RPR test despite no clinical evidence of syphilis?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

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10
Q

What are the main APS antibodies?

A

Lupus anticoagulant, anticardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein

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11
Q

What analgesics are associated with decreased metabolism of warfarin (i.e. increased bleeding risk)?

A

Acetaminophen and NSAIDs

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12
Q

What is the recommended treatment for a pregnant patient with antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Aspirin and LMW heparin

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13
Q

PTT and PT evaluate:
Platelet levels evaluate:

A
  • Clotting factors
  • Bleeding time (ability to aggregate, i.e., form a clot)
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14
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) presents with: - Platelet count
- PT
- PTT
- Fibrinogen
- D-dimer

A
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15
Q

Treatment of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) includes:

A

Transfusion of blood products and cryoprecipitate as needed

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16
Q

What peripheral blood smear finding is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

17
Q

The physician should suspect TTP if 3 out of 5 of the following symptoms are present:
LMNOP

A
  • Low platelets
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
  • Neurologic changes
  • Obsolete renal function
  • Pyrexia
18
Q

What is the potential complication of intrauterine fetal demise that is retained in utero for several weeks?

A

Coagulopathy (e.g. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)) due to systemic absorption of thromboplastin produced by the placenta and dead fetus

19
Q

The classic triad of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is:

A
  • Acute kidney injury
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
20
Q

Initial management of HUS include:

A

Supportive care (e.g., with fluid therapy)

21
Q

First-line treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

Plasma exchange therapy (PEX)

22
Q

What is the recommended treatment for patients that develop nonimmune heparin-associated thrombocytopenia?

A

None; continue heparin and monitor platelets

23
Q

Patient who was diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and subsequently started on unfractionated heparin (UFH). Laboratory studies showing a < 30% decrease in platelet count in the first 5 days after initiation of treatment with UFH. This is highly suggestive of:

A

Nonimmune heparin-associated thrombocytopenia,

24
Q

How to differentiate Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (type 2 HIT) from nonimmune heparin-associated thrombocytopenia?

A

Type 2 HIT usually manifests with > 50% reduction in platelet count. In addition, the onset of type 2 HIT is typically 5–14 days after heparin therapy has begun.

25
PT and PTT in vitamin K deficiency are:
Prolonged
26
In immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), igG antibodies are formed against:
Gp IiB/IIIa of platelets
27
What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for symptomatic immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
Corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone or prednisone)
28
The treatment for refractory cases of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is
splenectomy
29
What is the next step in treating a patient with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and a platelet count < 30,000/uL who does not respond to corticosteroids?
IVIG or anti-Rho(D) immunoglobulin
30
What is the likely diagnosis in a child that presents with scattered petechiae with isolated thrombocytopenia and enlarged platelets following a viral infection?
Immune thrombocytopenic Purpura(ITP)
31
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) presents with: - PT - PTT - bleeding time
- normal - normal - increased
32
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura commonly follows:
Viral infection
33
Blood smear findings in a patient with immune thrombocytopenia:
Megakaryocytes and normal RBC
34
What is the next step in management for a child with suspected immune thrombocytopenia that presents with only cutaneous symptoms (e.g. petechiae)?
Observation
35
What is the recommended treatment for patients that develop heparin-induced thrombocytopenia?
Discontinue heparin, begin an alternative anticoagulant (e.g., a direct thrombin inhibitor, fondaparinux)
36
What two viruses should be tested for in all adult patients with immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?
HIV and HCV
37
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is due to inhibition or deficiency of which enzyme?
ADAMTS13 (vWF metalloprotease) enzyme
38
Multiple traumatic injuries, persistent oozing from wounds, PT/PTT > 1.5× normal, and increased bleeding time is suggestive of:
Acute traumatic coagulopathy
39
What is the management in acute traumatic coagulopathy?
1:1:1 ratio of packed RBCs, fresh frozen plasma, and platelets