Minimum obstacle clearance is divided in to ... parts called ... and ...
primary volume (close to track where full obstacle clearance is guaranteed)
secondary volume (outside the primary where decreasing obstacle clearance is provided)
Width of obstacle clearance volume increases with what distance?
Increases with increasing distance from runway
Fix tolerance for terminal area radar (TAR) within ...NM is +/- ...km (...NM)
1.5 KM (0.8 NM)
Fix tolerance for en-route surveillance radar (RSR) within 40NM is +/- ...km (...NM)
+/- 3.1km (1.7NM)
DME fix tolerance is ...NM + ...% of distance from antenna
Minimum obstacle clearance at departure end of runway (ICAO abbreviation ???) is ... and increases by ... of the distance flown for straight out departures assuming turns less than
MOC in turning area is at least ...
For an omnidirectional departure (aircraft able to turn in any direction after take-off), what is the minimum height to maintain runway extended centreline before turning on track?
Terminal arrival altitudes (TAAs) provide 1000ft obstacle clearance within a circle of ...nm radius which centres on the ... or insome cases the ... and intended for ... approaches
Intermediate fix (IF)
Aircraft approach catergories
Max angle of interception of initial approach segment for;
a) a precision approach
b) a non-precisionn approach
a = 90 degrees
b = 120 degrees
What is a procedure turn?
What are the two types?
a manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track
Two types are the 45/180 and 80/260 procedure turns
What is a base turn?
consists of a specified outbound track and timing or DME distance from the facility, followed by a turn to intercept the inbound track where the tracks are not reciprocal
Obstacle clearance reduces to ... during the intermediate approach segment
For a straight in approach, the angle formed by the final approach track and the runway centreline must not exceed? (two categories)
30 degrees for procedures restriceted to CAT A and B only
15 degrees for other categories
The final approach fix should not be more than ... from the landing surface
On an ILS or MLS approach, the final approach segment begins at the ... and ends at the ...
final approach point (not fix)
missed approach point (MAPt)
Nominal missed appraoch climb gradient is ...
How far does the buffer area extend beyond the holding area?
Published minimum holding altitude is rounded (up or down?) to the nearest ...m or ...ft
Holding procedures described in what section of the AIP?
Turns in a hold should be made at a bank angle of ... or at a rate of ...
3 degrees per second
(which ever requires the lesser bank)
What hold entry for a sector one entry?
How to remember the three hold entry sectors?
Sector one is 110 degrees from the inbound track centre line in the direction of the race track.
sector 3 is 180 degrees from there and sector 2 makes up the remaining portion
What hold entry for a sector 2 entry?
What hold entry for sector 3 entry?
Describe a sector 1 hold entry
At the fix follow the reciprocal of the inbound leg, then at appropriate time or distance, turn left to either intercept the inbound track or return directly to the fix
Describe a sector 2 hold entry
At the fix follow a track 30 degrees offset to the left of the reciprocal of the inbound track, then at required time or distance, turn right to join inbound track to the fix
Describe a sector 3 hold entry
Fly directly to the fix and then turn right to start the outbound sector
When holding using time instead of distance from fix, turns at the end of the outbound leg should be made after ... if at or below ..., or after ... if above that
What is the zone of flexibility between hold sectors?
If the entry heading is within 5 degrees either side of the boundary, either entry procedure may be used
Describe Mode 1 - independent parallel approaches
Parallel approaches with no radar seperation
Must be a no-transgression zone at least 2000ft wide between extended centrelines and shown on controller's display
missed approach tracks must diverge by at least 30 degrees
What are mode 2 - dependent parallel approaches?
Approaches which are made to parallel runways in which radar separation between aircraft using adjacent ILS are prescribed
Independent parallel departures (mode 3) may be conducted from parallel runways provided there is suitable surveillance radar available capable of identifying aircraft within ... from the end of the runway and departure tracks must diverge by at least ... immediately after take-off
To use simultaneous instrument departure procedures and instrument approach procedures in the same direction on parallel runways (mode 4), the nominal tracks of the departure procedures and of the missed approach procedures must diverge by at least ... as soon as practicable
Minimum horizontal and vertical separation between aircraft using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures until fully established =
3nm radar separation
Are procedure turns used with Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures?
no, they are not permitted
Using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures, the final vector to intercept the localiser must be less than ...
When using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures, the final vector must allow at least ... NM of straight and level flight before localiser interception and must enable aircraft to be established on the localiser in level flight for at least ...NM prior to intercepting the glide path
When using Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approach Procedures, each parallel procedure will have a ... side and a ... side for vectoring, to provide vertical separation until aircraft are established inbound on their prospective ILS. Main objective is that both aircraft are fully established before the ... ft vertical separation is reduced
transition altitudes rounded up to nearest ...
transition levels rounded to the nearest ...
in a standard holding pattern, turns are made to the ... at ... degrees of bank or a rate one turn, whichever requires the lessor bank