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ICS Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 5 key signs of inflammation?

A 
Rubor - redness
Calor - heat
Tumor - swelling
Dolor - pain
Loss of function
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2
Q

What is supparation?

A

Creation of pus

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3
Q

Which cell types are capable of regeneration?

A 
Osteocytes
Pneumocytes
Hepatocytes
Epithelial skin and gut cells
All blood cells
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4
Q

Which cell types are not capable of regeneration?

A

Neurones

Myocardial cells

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5
Q

Define hyperplasia.

A

Increase in tissue size due to increase in number of constituent cells

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6
Q

Define hypertrophy.

A

Increase in tissue size due to increase of size of constituent cells

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7
Q

Define metaplasia.

A

Change in differentiation of a cell from one fully differentiated type, to another fully differentiated type.

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8
Q

Define neoplasia.

A

Abnormal growth of a tissue which persists despite the initial stimulus being removed

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9
Q

Define apoptosis.

A

Decrease in tissue size due to programmed cell death.

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10
Q

What is the name for a malignant tumour of smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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11
Q

What is the name for a benign tumour of smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyoma

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12
Q

What is the name for a malignant striated muscle tumour?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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13
Q

What is the name for a benign striated muscle tumour?

A

Rhabdomyoma

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14
Q

What is the name for a malignant adipose tissue tumour?

A

Liposarcoma

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15
Q

What is the name for a benign adipose tissue tumour?

A

Lipoma

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16
Q

What type of white blood cells predominate during acute infection?

A

Neutrophil polymorphs

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17
Q

What white blood cell types dominate during chronic inflammation?

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, macrophages

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18
Q

What is the definition of a granuloma?

A

Aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes

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19
Q

What is granulation tissue?

A

New connective tissue and blood vessels forming on a wound surface

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20
Q

What are the 4 constituents of atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Lymphocytes
Smooth muscle cells
Connective tissue
Foam cells

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21
Q

What are the changes undergone in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium

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22
Q

What is the action of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibition of Na+/K+/2Cl- channels in the ascending limb of loop of henle

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23
Q

What is the action of thiazide diuretics?

A

Inhibition of Na+/Cl- channels in the distal convoluted tubule

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of rivaroxaban?

A

DOAC - inhibits factor Xa to prevent the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin

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25
What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
Inhibits the production of vitamin K dependent clotting factors
26
Give a side effect of isoniazid.
Peripheral neuropathy
27
What is the typical pharmacological management of tuberculosis?
Rifampicin and isoniazid for 6 months, with ethambutamol and pyrazinamide for the first two months
28
What is the mechanism of action of paracetamol?
Weak COX-2 inhibitor
29
What is the mechanism of action of P2Y12 inhibitors?
ADP receptor antagonist - binds to ADP receptors on the surface of platelets
30
Which conditions should ACE inhibitors be avoided in?
AKI, asthma
31
What common analgesia can cause constipation?
Opioids
32
What kind of foods can reduce the effect of warfarin?
Leafy green vegetables
33
What is the definition of sensitivity?
The number of people with the disease that test positive
34
What is the definition of specificity?
The number of people without the disease that test negative.
35
What is prevelance?
The number of current cases
36
What is incidence?
The number of new cases
37
How do you calculate units of alcohol?
(% ABV x number of ml consumed) / 1000
38
What is primary prevention?
Prevention of a disease
39
What is secondary prevention?
Early detection and treatment of a disease
40
What is tertiary prevention?
Treatment of the complications of a disease
41
What is the definition of autonomy?
Allowing patients with capacity to have input into their care
42
What types of drug reactions need to be reported under the MHRA yellow card scheme?
``` A - augmented B - bizarre C - chronic D - delayed E - end use ```
43
What is the process of neutrophil emigration?
Margination Adhesion Neutrophil emigration Diapedesis (other cells follow)
44
What are the effects of fluid exudate?
``` Dilutes toxins Swelling Impairs normal tissue function Improves nutrient delivery Improves immune response ```
45
What does Bax do?
Induces apoptosis
46
What does Bcl-2 do?
Inhibits apoptosis
47
Where does liver cancer commonly metastasise to?
Lungs and bones
48
How does liver cancer spread to the lungs?
Haematogenous spread
49
What mechanism stops bleeding after venepuncture?
Platelet and fibrin plug forming over the damaged endothelial wall
50
What is the concept of deontology?
The morality of an action is based upon whether you followed the rules and your duties, not the consequences of your actions
51
What are the four quadrants of medical ethics?
Medical indications, patient preferences, quality of life and contextual features
52
What is the role of TLR-4 (toll like receptor 4)?
Senses lipopolysaccharides found on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria
53
What is the role of TLR-5?
Senses flagellin (part of flagellated bacteria)
54
What does an elevated 1,3 - beta D glucan indicate?
Fungal infection
55
What is the pathogenesis of vibrio cholerae?
The cholera toxin deregulates ion transport in epithelial cells
56
How do bacteria become resistant to beta lactams?
Beta lactamases that break down the beta lactam ring in antibiotics
57
What type of bacteria is mycobacterim tuberculosis?
Acid-fast bacilli
58
What is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?
Damage to tissues mediated by the deposition of antibody-antibody complexes, resulting in the activation of complement
59
Give an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.
Systemic lupus erythematous
60
Which cell in the body can become macrophages in different parts of the body?
Monocytes
61
Which antibody response is the initial response to pathogens?
IgM
62
What is the principle molecule in viral responses?
Interferon alpha
63
What is the most common infective presentation of AIDS?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
64
What is the treatment of pneumocystis jirovecci?
Co-trimoxazole for 21 days
65
What is the most common causative organism of traveller's diarrhoea
ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)
66
What organism is associated with diarrhoea in HIV?
Cryptosporidium
67
What type of antigen circulates as a pentamer?
IgM
68
What antigen is the pentamer IgM made up of?
IgG
69
What is cancer grading?
How abnormal the cancer cells appear histologically
70
What is cancer staging?
How big the cancer is and how it has spread
71
Define inflammation.
The local physiological response to tissue injury
72
Which cells are characteristic in acute inflammation?
Neutrophil polymorphs
73
Which cells predominate in chronic inflammation?
Macrophages, plasma cells and lymphocytes
74
What is the commonest cause of granuloma?
TB
75
What are the different types of vaccinations?
Live attenuated, whole inactivated pathogen, subunit vaccines, DNA vaccines, recombinant vector
76
What is the ideal vaccine?
``` Safe Effective Easy to store and transport Strong immune response Memory Doesn't require booster ```
77
Define affinity.
Affinity is how readily a drug binds to its receptor. It is measured by the concentration of a drug that occupies 50% of available receptors
78
Define efficacy.
The maximum response that can be achieved with a drug
79
Which types of drugs show affinity?
Both agonists and antagonists
80
Which types of drugs show efficacy?
Agonists only
81
What is pharmacological tolerance?
Reduction in the efficacy of an agonist over time
82
What is desensitisation?
A procedure that alters the immune response to a drug and results in temporary tolerance
83
What is the mechanism of action of PPIs?
They bind to and inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase pump on the luminal surface of parietal cells

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