Microbio Flashcards

(69 cards)

1
Q

What does the catalse test distinguish between?

A

Streptococci (negative) and staphlycoccus (positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the coagulase test distinguish between?

A

Staph aureus (positive) and other staphylococci (negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which group of bacteria can you perform haemolysis on to distinguish further?

A

Streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What type of bacteria does lancefield grouping distinguish between?

A

Beta haemolytic streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of bacteria show complete haemolysis?

A

Beta haemolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of bacteria show partial haemolysis?

A

Alpha haemolytic (green appearance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which type of bacteria do not haemolyse?

A

Enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What organism does a positive optochin test identify?

A

Streptococci pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give an example of an organism that is optochin resistant.

A

Viridans streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

Gram positive diplococci, alpha haemolytic, catalase negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe neisseria.

A

Gram negative diplococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the first line treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

IM ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of antibiotic is gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycoside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis via 30s ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What kind of virus is hepatitis B?

A

Double stranded DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the first line treatment of cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What organism is Legionnaire’s disease often caused by?

A

Legionella pneumophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What antibiotic is given to patients with suspected meningococcal septicaemia?

A

IM benzylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What lancefield grouping is strep pyogenes?

A

Lancefield group A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of trimethoprim?

A

Inhibits folate synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What agar is used to culture TB?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is blood agar used to grow?

A

Anaerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is chocolate agar used to grow?

A

Aerobic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What organism is charcoal agar used to grow?
Campylobacter jejuni
26
What is MacConkey agar used to grow?
Gram negative bacilli
27
Is c diff anaerobic or aerobic?
Anaerobic
28
Which types of bacteria are oxidase positive?
Neisseria, pseudomonas
29
What is the oxidase test?
Determines whether a bacteria possesses the cytochrome c oxidase enzyme
30
Are oxidase positive bacteria aerobic or anaerobic?
Aerobic
31
What kind of bacteria is the optochin test performed on
Alpha haemolytic streptococci
32
Give 3 examples of oxidase negative bacteria.
Shigella, salmonella, proteus
33
What antibiotic is given immediately to patients with suspected meningococcal septicaemia?
IM benzylpenicillin
34
What antibiotic is used in hospital to manage meningitis?
IV cefotaxime
35
What is the most appropriate treatment for a pregnant woman with a UTI?
Nitrofurantoin
36
When is nitrofurantoin contraindicated in pregnancy?
At full term
37
Give 3 symptoms of encephalitis.
Fever, headache, altered mental state
38
What do anti-fungal medications typically end in?
-azole
39
Give 3 examples of antifungals.
Clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole
40
Who typically gets symptoms with hepatitis E?
Pregnant women
41
What is whooping cough caused by?
Bordatella pertussis
42
What antibiotic is added to treat beta lactam resistant bacteria?
Clauvonic acid
43
What white cells predominate the CSF in bacterial meningitis?
Neutrophils
44
What is the treatment of MRSA?
Vancomycin
45
What is the treatment of cellulitis caused by staph aureus?
Flucloxacillin
46
What is the antibiotic of choice for treatment of tonisilitis?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
47
What side effects can ethambutol cause?
Optic neuritis
48
What types of antibiotics block DNA gyrase?
Quinolones and fluoroquinolones
49
What anitbiotics block folate synthesis?
Trimethoprim and sulfonamides
50
What is the treatment of pneumocystis jirovecii in AIDS?
Co-trimoxazole
51
What is the structure of a gram positive bacteria?
No outer membrane - only cytoplasmic membrane | Thicker peptidoglycan layer
52
What is the structure of a gram negative bacteria?
Double membrane - outer membrane and cytoplasmic membrane Thinner peptidoglycan layer Lipopolysaccharides present on outer membrane
53
What is XLD agar used for?
Gram negative pathogens such as shigella and salmonella
54
What kind of bacteria is haemophilus influenzae?
Gram negative bacilli
55
What type of bacteria is pseudomonas aeruginosa?
Gram negative bacilli
56
What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?
Inhibits RNA synthesis
57
What is the most common cause of meningitis in neonates?
Group B streptococcus
58
What is the most common cause of meningitis in the immunosuppressed?
Listeria monocytogenes
59
What is the most common cause of meningitis in the age group 6-60?
Neisseria meningitidis
60
Which age group are at risk of meningitis from E. coli?
Neonates (0-3 months)
61
Which antibiotics does atypical pneumonia not respond to and why?
Penicillins and cephalosporins - atypical pneumoniae lack a cell wall
62
What is atypical pneumonia treated with?
Doxycycline
63
What is the test for latent tuberculosis?
Mantoux test or tuberculin skin test
64
What antibiotics is MRSA resistant to?
Beta lactams Gentamicin Tetracycline Erythromycin
65
What does MRSA stand for?
Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
66
What is the treatment of threadworms?
Mebendazole
67
What are the features of a virus?
``` Only grows inside living cells Only possess RNA or DNA Have no cell wall Have an outer protein coat Have protein receptors on the surface that allow attachment to the host's cells ```
68
How do viruses cause disease?
Destruction of host cells Modification of host cell structure or function 'Overactivity' of the host immune system causing damage
69
What is the gold standard investigation in malaria?
Blood film