Identification Methods Flashcards

1
Q

Catalase

A

detects the production of catalase enzyme, which decomposes hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, resulting in bubbles; false positives can occur from using an iron loop, blood agar media, and reading the result too late

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Coagulase

A

a protein that has prothrombin-like activity (can convert fibrinogen into fibrin), resulting in clotting; There are two types of coagulase tests based on detecting bound (slide) or free (tube) coagulase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Latex agglutination

A

kits used to detect clumping factor A (a STAPAU cell wall antigen) instead of performing coagulase tests; MRSA can give false negatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

DNase

A

an enzyme that cleaves DNA into nucleotide subunits; a media with toluidine blue is used because it will turn pink if DNase is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Modified oxidase test

A

detects the enzyme cytochrome oxidase, which oxidizes tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine to form indophenol; dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is added in the modified test to make bacterial cells more permeable; blue is positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PYR

A

detects the enzyme L-pyroglutamyl aminopeptidase, which cleaves B-naphthylamine from L-pyrrolidonyl-B-naphthylamide (PYR); a red color is formed when N,N-dimethylaminocinnamaldehyde is added and free B-naphthylamine is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CAMP Test

A

detects CAMP factor, which is a heat-stable protein produced by bacteria as a result of a synergetic association with STAPAU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hippurate Hydrolysis

A

detects the enzyme hippuricase, which cleaves hippurate into sodium benzoate and glycine; A precipitate is formed when ferric chloride is added and sodium benzoate is present or a purple color forms from adding ninhydrin when glycine is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Bile Esculin Test

A

determines if an organism can hydrolyze esculin to esculetin and glucose in the presence of bile; esculetin combines with ferric ions in the agar to produce a black color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

6.5% NaCl Test

A

tests if an organism can grow in a broth tube with a high salt concentration; turbidity or an acidic pH level = growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Bile Solubility Test

A

bile salts can lyse S. pneumoniae when added to actively growing bacteria in agar or broth, leading to colonies dissolving (clearing of colonies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gelatin Hydrolysis

A

tests the presence of the gelatinase enzyme that can liquify gelatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Leucine Aminopeptidase (LAP) Test

A

LAP enzymes hydrolyze leucine-p-naphthylamide to release leucine and B-naphthylamide. Free B-naphthylamide reacts with cinnamaldehyde reagent to form a red color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lecithinase Test

A

assesses a bacteria’s ability to produce lecithinase (toxic, phospholipase enzyme); lecithinase degrades lecithin into diglycerides leading to a white, opaque zone on a egg-yolk agar; used for Clostridium spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nagler test

A

Lecithinase-positive clostridia can be divided based on Nagler test results; an antitoxin reagent is swabbed over one half of an egg yolk plate and a single streak of a lecithinase positive organism is made across the untreated and treated halves of the plate. A Nagler positive organism shows opacity in the untreated half and no opacity in the treated half while a negative one has opacity on both halves (antitoxin did not affect lecithinase activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Loeffler’s Stain/Medium

A

used to identify Corynebacterium species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lysozyme Test

A

to test if an organism is resistant to lysozyme (will grow in a tube containing lysozyme if resistant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MRS Broth

A

Used to cultivate lactobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Starch Hydrolysis

A

used to determine the ability of an organism to produce amylase and utilize starch as a carbon source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Cystine trypticase agar (CTA)

A

traditional method for identifying Neisseria spp.; results depend on the ability of an organism to grow with specific carbohydrates checked every 24 hours for 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Rapid carbohydrate tests

A

check for preformed enzymes (not growth dependent), results done after 1-4 hours and based on the commercially prepared kit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Oxidase Test

A

tests the enzymes cytochrome oxidase or indophenol oxidase; the test reagent turns blue when it is oxidized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Chromogenic substrate tests

A

detects enzymes leading to colored endproducts being formed when a specific substrate is hydrolyzed by the enzyme (Ex: B-galactosidase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Penicillin disk test

A

a penicillin disk is placed onto CHOC overnight and then a gram stain is prepared of the bacteria at the edge of the zone of inhibition; actual rods will elongate while actual cocci remain round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nitrate reduction test

A

In the anaerobic respiration process, bacteria derive their required oxygen from nitrate (NO3–) or can use NO3– as a terminal electron acceptor. In this process, nitrate needs to be reduced to nitrite. Nitrite reacts with acetic acid and forms nitrous acid. See image for full reactions. Positive = red. Some bacteria can reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas, giving a negative result. To differentiate a true negative and denitrification from each other, zinc powder is added. If nitrate is present, it will be reduced with the zinc (turning red), which indicates a true negative.

26
Q

X and V Paper disk Test

A

This test is used to differentiate Haemophilus spp. from each other based on their need for hemin (X factor) and NAD (V factor) for growth. Species that require only the X-factor will grow around X-disk and XV-disk but not around V-disk. Species that require only the V-factor will grow around the V-disk and XV-disk but not around X-disk. Species that require both X-factor and V-factor will grow around the XV-disk but not around the X-disk and V-disk.

27
Q

Porphyrin test

A

determines if an isolate requires X factor; those that do not require X possess enzymes that convert aminolevulinic acid (ALA) to hemin with porphyrins as an intermediate; porphyrins are detected by the reddish-orange fluorescence when exposed to UV light

28
Q

o-Nitrophenyl-B-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG)

A

The ONPG test is used to differentiate lactose fermenters, late lactose fermenters, and non lactose fermenters from each other. Two enzymes are involved in the fermentation of lactose into glucose and galactose (a permease and B-galactosidase) Some bacteria only have the enzyme B-galactosidase, resulting in a slower lactose fermentation than those that have both enzymes. B-galactosidase will cleave ONPG into galactose and o-nitrophenol (yellow). Clear = - ; yellow = +

29
Q

What is the difference between Kliger’s iron agar and Triple Sugar Iron Agar?

A

Triple Sugar Iron Agar: contains 3 sugars (glucose, lactose, and sucrose), so if the organism can ferment glucose or one of the other sugars it will be A/A Kliger’s Iron Agar: only contains glucose and lactose, so if the organism can only ferment glucose, then it will be K/A

30
Q

Voges-Proskauer Test

A

Tests to see if a bacteria follows the butylene glycol pathway to produce acetylmethylcarbinol (acetoin) and butanediol after glycolysis

31
Q

Urease

A

Urease is an enzyme that can hydrolyze urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide, resulting in an alkaline pH. The change in pH is detected using the indicator phenol red (positive/basic = red and negative/acidic = yellow)

32
Q

Triple Sugar Iron Test

A

Used to differentiate bacteria based on their ability to ferment glucose, lactose, and sucrose, and release acid and hydrogen sulfide gas. Same process as the KIA slant but it also has sucrose.

33
Q

Satellitism Test

A

Used to distinguish Haemophilus influenzae from other Haemophilus species. H. influenzae alone can’t grow in a blood agar medium, but it can grow (satellite) around S. aureus growing on BAP plate because it will hydrolyze blood cells, releasing V factor

34
Q

Phenylalanine Deaminase

A

Bacteria capable of producing phenylalanine deaminase enzyme can deaminate phenylalanine resulting in phenyl pyruvic acid and ammonia. Only Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia genera have the deaminase enzyme needed for this reaction. A green color develops if positive due to the addition of ferric chloride that reacts with the phenyl pyruvic acid.

35
Q

Oxidative-Fermentation Test

A

Saccharolytic microorganisms degrade glucose either fermentatively or oxidatively. Fermenters: can produce acid in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions. Oxidizers: can produce acid in only aerobic conditions (needs oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor). Yellow color = acidic/positive and Green color = basic/negative

36
Q

Motility Test

A

Motility by the bacterium is demonstrated in a semi-solid agar medium, where motile bacteria will migrate readily through the media causing cloudiness. Nonmotile bacteria will not cause cloudiness because they are not spreading throughout the media.

37
Q

Methyl Red (MR) Test

A

It identifies bacterial ability to produce stable acid end products by means of a mixed-acid fermentation of glucose. Organisms metabolizing pyruvic acid by the mixed acid pathway will produce more acid end products, such as lactic acid and acetic acid, and maintain an acidic environment (red color). Organisms that follow the VP pathway will decrease the pH, leading to a yellow color.

38
Q

Malonate Test

A

To test the ability of the organism to utilize malonate as sole source of carbon. Organisms which simultaneously utilize malonate and ammonium sulfate produce sodium hydroxide which thereby results in an alkaline reaction and changes the indicator from its original green color to light blue.

39
Q

MUG (4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide) Test

A

MUG is a fluorogenic substrate of β-glucuronidase, which is an enzyme produced by most strains of E. coli and other Enterobacteriaceae. The end product of hydrolysis, 4-methylumbelliferyl (4-MU), fluoresces blue under long-wavelength ultraviolet light; however, verotoxin-producing strains of E. coli do not produce MUG.

40
Q

Lysine Iron Agar Test

A

To differentiate gram-negative bacilli based on decarboxylation and deamination of lysine and the formation of hydrogen sulfide (H2S). When glucose is fermented, the butt will become acidic (yellow), causing lysine decarboxylase to be triggered to neutralize acids changing the butt back to an alkaline pH (purple). If there is no lysine decarboxylase, it will remain acidic and yellow = negative. If deamination of lysine occurs in the slant, a burgundy color forms on the slant. If deamination does not occur, the LIA slant remains purple.

41
Q

Litmus Milk Medium Test

A

To differentiate microorganisms based on various metabolic reactions in litmus milk, including fermentation, reduction, clot formation, digestion, and the formation of gas

42
Q

Kligler’s Iron Agar (KIA) Test

A

Test to assess the different abilities of bacteria to either ferment glucose and/or lactose in a different way or lack of ability to ferment them at all together with the ability to produce H2S gas. Bacteria capable of fermenting glucose will initially ferment the glucose, releasing metabolic acids = yellow broth from decrease in pH. If the bacteria are lactose non-fermenter, they won’t be able to use lactose as a carbon source, and the depletion of glucose will trigger oxidative metabolism of peptone in the slant = increase in pH of the slant (red color). There is not enough oxygen in the butt to change the color of the butt so it will be K/A

43
Q

Indole Test

A

Detects a bacteria’s ability to produce indole from tryptophan, using the enzyme tryptophanase. The final products are indole, pyruvic acid, and ammonium. Indole, if present, combines with the aldehyde in the reagent to produce a pink to red-violet quinoidal compound (benzaldehyde reagent- tube test) or a blue to green color (cinnamaldehyde reagent- spot test).

44
Q

Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) Test

A

Some bacteria can metabolically reduce sulfur-containing compounds to hydrogen sulfide and derive energy during the process. Microbial production of H2S is detected by allowing it to react with ferric ions or lead acetate to produce black-colored ferrous sulfide or lead sulfide respectively

45
Q

Growth at 42°C Test

A

The growth at 42°C test is a presumptive identification test used to differentiate between the species of the fluorescent pseudomonas group as well as other non-fermentative bacteria. P. aeruginosa can grow at 42°C.

46
Q

Flagellar Stain

A

Motile bacteria (mostly) possess flagella, but they have different amounts, shapes, and positions.

47
Q

Esculin Hydrolysis Test

A

Based on the hydrolysis of esculin (a glucoside) into glucose and esculetin by a microorganism that has constitutive β-glucosidase or esculinase enzyme. If esculin is hydrolyzed, there will be a loss of fluorescence and ferric ammonium citrate can be added to the tube. If esculetin is produced, it will react with ferric ions and result in a black color (positive)

48
Q

Decarboxylases

A

This is a group of enzymes that are capable of reacting with the carboxyl portion of amino acids, forming alkaline-reacting amines. Usually testing lysine, argininine, or ornithine. A positive result is purple and negative is yellow/no color change

49
Q

Citrate Utilization

A

Some bacteria can use citrate (from sodium citrate) as a sole source of carbon. Sodium citrate and ammonium phosphate (sole source of nitrogen) and put together with bacteria. If the bacteria is able to use citrate, then the production of alkaline by-products will occur (ammonia). Bromthymol blue is used as an indicator (basic = blue and acidic = green)

50
Q

Cetrimide Agar Test

A

Performed to identify or differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other microorganisms based on its ability to grow with cetrimide (quaternary ammonium detergent that is toxic to most bacteria)

51
Q

Butyrate disk test

A

Used to ID Moraxella catarrhalis based on the presence of the enzyme butyrate esterase. There are two substrates that can be used: bromochloro-indolyl butyrate and 4- methylumbelliferyl butyrate. The hydrolysis of bromochloro- indolyl substrate by butyrate esterase releases indoxyl, which in the presence of oxygen forms indigo (blue color). The hydrolysis of 4-methylumbelliferyl substrate produces a fluorescent compound visible under UV light.

52
Q

Beta (β) Lactamase Test

A

Used to detect beta-lactamase enzymes produced by different bacteria.

53
Q

Aerotolerance

A

determines if an isolate can grow aerobically, anaerobically, or both by incubated a CDC blood plate in anaerobic conditions and a CHOC plate in aerobic conditions and observing growth

54
Q

Disk tests for anaerobic bacteria

A

The most commonly used disks are vancomycin, colistin, and kanamycin on a CDC blood plate in anaerobic conditions for 2-3 days; 10mm or more is susceptible and less is resistant

55
Q

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)

A

used to identify anaerobic GPC; it is the same as the disk test but a zone of inhibition is 12mm instead of 10mm

56
Q

Nitrate test for anaerobic bacteria

A

A paper disk saturated with nitrate is placed onto CDC blood for 24-72 hours of incubation instead of the tube test used for other bacteria

57
Q

Bile tolerance test for anaerobic bacteria

A

Bile disk- any zone = susceptible
Bile tube- inoculate two anaerobic broth tubes (THIO) one with bile and another without and then compare growth within the two tubes; equal growth in both tubes = resistant
Bile-containing agar- growth = resistant

58
Q

Catalase for anaerobic bacteria

A

Same as aerobic bacteria but it uses 15% instead of 3%

59
Q

Lipase test

A

Lipase degrades triglycerides into glycerol and free fatty acids, leading to a pearly, iridescent sheen on egg yolk agar surface (“oil on water” appearance)

60
Q

Spore test (ethanol method)

A

bacteria that produce spores are resistant to ethanol’s antibacterial effects; two CDC plates are incubated (one with ethanol and one without), spore forming bacteria will grow on both plates