IFSTA SAFETY OFFICER Flashcards

1
Q

The NFA divides safety officer into what 2 titles?

A
  • health and safety officer
  • incident safety officer
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2
Q

fire department safety officer is what NFPA standard?

A

1521

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3
Q

who is the individual assigned and authorized by the fire chief as the manager of the health and safety program?

A

health and safety officer

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4
Q

who is a member of the command staff responsible for monitoring and assessing safety hazards or unsafe situations and for developing measures to ensure personal safety?

A

incident safety officer

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5
Q

NIMS was directed through what homeland security presidential directive?

A

5

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6
Q

what was developed to mandate a consistent nationwide approach to prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents?

A

NIMS

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7
Q

A safety officer ___ is qualified to deploy nationwide as part of a national incident management team.

A

1

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8
Q

A safety officer ____ is usually qualified at the state or local level to function at wildland and interface fires or other disasters.

A

2

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9
Q

what safety officer type can be the safety officer assigned to initial attack operations.

A

line

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10
Q

management of domestic incidents is what presidential directive?

A

5

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11
Q

what is a hometown hero LODD?

A

firefighters who suffered a heart attack within 24 hours of a physical exertion activity or stressful duty related activity.

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12
Q

what is it called when firefighters who suffered a heart attack within 24 hours of a physical exertion activity or stressful duty related activity.

A

hometown hero LODD

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13
Q

who is ultimately responsible for the safety of all members operating in an incident?

A

IC

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14
Q

who serves as the safety officer when no one has been delegated for the task?

A

IC

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15
Q

what is defined in writing and can take on may forms such as SOP, SOG, directives and temporary memorandums?

A

formal process

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16
Q

______ are strict directives that must be followed with little to no flexibility?

A

procedures

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17
Q

_______ are adaptable templates that allow flexibility in application?

A

guidelines

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18
Q

what is a process or operation that is part of a departments routine but that is not written?

A

informal process

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19
Q

carbon monoxide detectors are designed to activate at as little as ____ ppm.

A

20

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20
Q

OSHA regulations are also known as what?

A

code of federal regulations

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21
Q

what regulations often outline the equipment required for a given process to be accomplished?

A

code of federal regulations

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22
Q

what standards are designed to offer a minimum acceptable standard for equipment design, application and maintenance?

A

NFPA standards

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23
Q

the protective (insulate) quality of structural gear is given a relative value known as what?

A

thermal protective performance

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24
Q

a successful _____ program usually works in tandem with a successful ______ program.

A

safety, training

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25
Q

an organization plagued by injuries or suffering from costly accidents usually has a defeciency in its ______ program.

A

training

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26
Q

_______ is the process of learning and applying knowledge and skills.

A

training

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27
Q

______ is the process of ones analytical ability using principles, concepts and values.

A

education

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28
Q

of all the factors affecting safety, ______ is the hardest to address.

A

attitude

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29
Q

the departments ______ culture is made up of the ideas, skills, and customs that are passed from one generation to another.

A

safety

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30
Q

The function of incident action plan review falls under what authority?

A

ISO

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31
Q

What kind of analysis falls under the functions of both the ISO and HSO?

A

post-incident analysis

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32
Q

OSHA compliance falls under the responsibility of which kind of officer?

A

HSO

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33
Q

What year was NFPA 1500 adopted?

A

1987

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34
Q

what program was the direct descendent of the FIRESCOPE program?

A

NIIMS

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35
Q

what acronym is used to describe line safety officers in NIIMS?

A

SOFR

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36
Q

What organization sets the rates for workers compensation?

A

NCCI

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37
Q

How many components are necessary to a safe operational environment?

A

3

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38
Q

of all the factors affecting safety, ______ is the hardest to address.

A

attitude

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39
Q

______ can be simply defined as the chance of damage, injury, or loss.

A

risk

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40
Q

what is the process of minimizing the chance, degree, or probability of damage, injury or loss?

A

risk management

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41
Q

risk managers use a _____ step system called classic risk management.

A

5

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42
Q

identifying hazards is the primary function of an ____.

A

ISO

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43
Q

what can cause lung cancer with just one exposure?

A

benzene

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44
Q

_____ is the probability that an injurious event can happen.

A

frequency

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45
Q

_____ can be viewed as a harmful consequence or cost associated with injury or property damage from a give hazard.

A

severity

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46
Q

the overall strategy of hazard control is called _______.

A

mitigation

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47
Q

the actual action used for mitigation is called ______.

A

countermeasure

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48
Q

what is a process defined in writing?

A

formal process

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49
Q

_____ is an acceptable template that offers wide flexibility in application.

A

guideline

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50
Q

what is a process that is part of a departments routine, but is not written?

A

informal process

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51
Q

a ______ is a strict directive that must be followed with little or no flexibility.

A

procedure

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52
Q

_______ is the process of learning, and applying knowledge and skills.

A

training

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53
Q

the NFPA was established in ______.

A

1986

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54
Q

the ______ is recognized for developing consensus standards, guides and codes for a whole realm of fire related topics.

A

NFPA

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55
Q

______ is tasked with the creation and enforcement of workplace law.

A

OSHA

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56
Q

OSHA is part of what branch of government?

A

Department of labor

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57
Q

OSHA uses the _____ as the body of law to improve workplace safety.

A

CFR

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58
Q

______ is the safety and health research arm of the federal government.

A

NIOSH

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59
Q

a ____ is an enforceable rule of conduct that helps protect a society.

A

law

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60
Q

what type of law deals with rules of conduct in civil and criminal matters.

A

statutory

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61
Q

what type of law refers to a precedent established over time through the judicial process.

A

case law

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62
Q

a ______ typically outline details and procedures that have the force of law issued by an executive government authority.

A

regulation

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63
Q

a ______ is a work of law established or adopted by a rule-making authority.

A

code

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64
Q

the term ______ can apply to any set of rules, procedures, or professional measurements that are established by an authority.

A

standard

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65
Q

a ______ is a publication that offers procedures, directions, or standards of care as a reasonable means to address a condition or situation.

A

guide

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66
Q

NFPA 1500 was established in what year?

A

1987

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67
Q

NFPA ______ is now a professional qualifications standard containing job requirements for HSO and ISO.

A

1521

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68
Q

as applied to a residential structure fire, _______ ________ means fire propagation, building degradation, and smoke volatility.

A

environmental change

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69
Q

A _______ _______ can be defined as one at which the initial response assignment is 100% committed and more resources are needed.

A

working incident

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70
Q

Once the span of control grows past ___, the IC should include an ISO.

A

3

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71
Q

_____ are nothing more than static and dynamic weights that are applied to buildings.

A

loads

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72
Q

a ______ _____ refers to the weight of the building itself and anything permanently attached to it.

A

dead load

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73
Q

a ____ ____ refers to any force or weight, other than the building itself, that a building must carry or absorb.

A

live load

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74
Q

an ______ load is imposed through the centroid of another object.

A

axial

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75
Q

an ______ load is imposed off center to another object.

A

eccentric

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76
Q

a ______ load is imposed in a manner that causes another object to twist.

A

torsional

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77
Q

____ force causes a material to be crushed or flattened axially through the material.

A

compression

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78
Q

______ force causes a material to be stretched or pulled apart in line with the material.

A

tension

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79
Q

______ force causes a material to be torn in opposite directions perpendicular or diagonal to the material.

A

shear

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80
Q

the ______ of a material directly affects its fire resistance.

A

mass

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81
Q

______ materials will fracture or fail as they are deformed or stressed past their design limits.

A

brittle

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82
Q

____ materials will bend, deflect, or stretch, yet retain some strength as a force is resisted.

A

ductile

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83
Q

_____ is a ductile material that has excellent tensile, shear, and compressive strength.

A

steel

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84
Q

cold drawn steel, loses ___% of its strength at _____F.

A

55, 800

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85
Q

extruded steel loses _% of its strength at __F.

A

50, 1100

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86
Q

_____ refers to the crumbling and loss of concrete material when exposed to heat.

A

spalling

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87
Q

______ is a common term that refers to brick, concrete block, and stone.

A

masonry

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88
Q

a ______ wall supports only its own weight and is commonly used as a decorative finish.

A

veneer

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89
Q

buildings are an assembly of structural elements designed to transfer loads to the _____.

A

earth

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90
Q

_____ _____ can be defined as the primary load bearing columns, beams and connections used to erect a building.

A

columns

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91
Q

a ______ is any structural element that transmits a compressive force axially through its center.

A

column

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92
Q

a structural element that transfers loads perpendicularly to its imposed load is called a ______.

A

beam

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93
Q

a ____ beam is supported by 2 points near its ends.

A

simple

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94
Q

a ____ beam is supported in 3 or more places.

A

continuous

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95
Q

a ____ beam is supported at only one end.

A

cantilever

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96
Q

a _____ beam spans an opening in a load bearing masonry wall.

A

lintel

97
Q

a lintel beam is commonly called what?

A

header

98
Q

a _____ beam carries other beams.

A

girder

99
Q

a _____ is a wood framing member used to support floors or roof sheathing.

A

joist

100
Q

a ______ is a series of beams placed perpendicularly to other trusses or beams to help support roof decking.

A

purlin

101
Q

In a ____ _____ truss, the top and bottom chords run in the same plane.

A

parallel chord

102
Q

in a ____ truss, the top cord is arched.

A

arched

103
Q

a ______ can be defined as a structural element used to attach other structural elements to each other.

A

connection

104
Q

______ connections use nuts, bolts, screws, nails and rivets.

A

pinned

105
Q

Type I building?

A

fire-resistive

106
Q

fire-resistive is what type of building?

A

I

107
Q

high rises, mega malls, large stadiums and larger hospitals are what type?

A

I

108
Q

type II building construction?

A

non combustible

109
Q

non combustable is what type?

A

II

110
Q

type ____ buildings are susceptible to steel deformation.

A

II

111
Q

type III construction.

A

ordinary

112
Q

ordinary construction is what type?

A

III

113
Q

type _____ construction includes buildings in which the load bearing walls are noncombustible (masonry).

A

III

114
Q

the primary fire and collapse concerns with _______ construction are the many void spaces.

A

ordinary

115
Q

type IV construction.

A

heavy timber

116
Q

heavy timber is what type?

A

IV

117
Q

type ____ construction can be defined as those that have block or brick exterior load bearing walls and interior structural elements that have substancial dimension.

A

IV

118
Q

type V construction.

A

wood frame

119
Q

wood frame is what type of construction?

A

V

120
Q

a ____ _____ is a non load bearing wall that supports only itself and is used to keep weather out.

A

curtain wall

121
Q

predicting collapse by classifying the buildings construction is what step?

A

1

122
Q

predicting collapse by determining structural involvement is what step?

A

2

123
Q

predicting collapse by visualizing and tracing loads is what step?

A

3

124
Q

predicting collapse by evaluating time is what step?

A

4

125
Q

predicting collapse by communicating the collapse potential is what step?

A

5

126
Q

unfinished wood that is being rapidly heated emits a ______ smoke.

A

brownish

127
Q

brownish smoke is a _______ warning sign in lightweight wood construction.

A

collapse

128
Q

structural failure is often the result of a ______ failure.

A

connection

129
Q

______ are nothing more than fake beams.

A

trusses

130
Q

in type _____ construction, void spaces are numerous.

A

III

131
Q

a _____ wall is the extension of a wall past the top of the roof.

A

parapet

132
Q

smoke leaving a structure has 4 key attributes; they are what?

A

volume, velocity, density, and color

133
Q

___ is the chemical breakdown of compounds into other substances by heat alone.

A

pyrolysis

134
Q

surfaces that are smoking, not burning, are off _____.

A

aggregating

135
Q

soot is ____.

A

carbon

136
Q

____ is the trace materials that can no longer support flame.

A

ash

137
Q

carbon will add a ______ color to smoke.

A

black

138
Q

ash will add a dirty _____ color to smoke.

A

white

139
Q

an _____ can be defined as a suspended or propelled liquid.

A

aerosal

140
Q

within a room, the off-gassed smoke from so many low-mass materials, _______ air, leading to what is termed as a ______ _____ condition.

A

displaces, ventilation limited

141
Q

the ____ phase includes the event that brings together heat, fuel, and oxygen to start the self-sustaining process of combustion.

A

ignition

142
Q

the _____ _____ phase has also been labeled as the fuel-controlled phase.

A

initial growth

143
Q

in what phase is fire growth controlled by the proximity of burning fuels to other fuels?

A

initial growth

144
Q

the ____ _____ phase is a compartmentalized fire condition where open flaming decreases because smoke production displaces and limits available air.

A

ventilation limited

145
Q

the ____ ____ phase is a rapid fire growth phenomenon that occurs when combustion air is reintroduced into a ventilation-controlled fire.

A

explosive growth

146
Q

the _____ ______ phase leads to total flame involvement of the interior flow paths.

A

fully developed

147
Q

______ is a hostile event warning sign and is characterized as the intermittent ignition of small pockets of smoke.

A

ghosting

148
Q

_____ is usually seen as fingers of flame that dance through the upper smoke layers.

A

ghosting

149
Q

____ includes the ignition and sustained burning of the overhead smoke layer within a room.

A

flameover

150
Q

a _____ _____ is a hostile event that occurs when a spark or flame is introduced into a pocket of smoke that is below the ignition temp but above the flashpoint.

A

smoke explosion

151
Q

_____ _____ typically occur in a trapped area away from the fire.

A

smoke explosion

152
Q

______ is a sudden, hostile, fire event that occurs when all the surfaces and contents in a space reach their ignition temperatures at once.

A

flashover

153
Q

in most cases, _______ occurs because the room itself can no longer absorb heat.

A

flashover

154
Q

a ______ is an explosive event that occurs when air is suddenly reintroduced into an area.

A

backdraft

155
Q

acronym to remember how to read smoke?

A

VVDC

156
Q

______ volume by itself tells very little about a fire.

A

smoke

157
Q

smoke velocity is an indicator of ______ that has built up in the building.

A

pressure

158
Q

when smoke is leaving the building, its ____ is caused by heat.

A

velocity

159
Q

the faster smoke moves, the more _____ it has.

A

heat

160
Q

turbulent smoke that has filled a compartment is an indicator of ______.

A

flashover

161
Q

______ smoke is closer to the seat of the fire.

A

faster

162
Q

the ______ of smoke refers to the thickness.

A

density

163
Q

black smoke that is high velocity and very thin is ______ pushed.

A

flame

164
Q

unfinished wood gives off a very distinct ______ smoke.

A

brown

165
Q

black fire can reach temps over _____F

A

1000

166
Q

_____ ______ is physical property whose loss will cause harm to the community.

A

valued property

167
Q

what is defined as the degree of accuracy to which one’s perception oh his/her current environment mirrors reality.

A

situational awareness

168
Q

______ learning can be defined as the process of observing others to develop knowledge, skill, or experience.

A

vicarious

169
Q

what is a mental model that suggests that many quick decisions are made using mental templates from previous experiences that fit the images that you are currently witnessing?

A

RPD

170
Q

what is the process of observing others to develop knowledge, skill, or experience base.

A

vicarious learning

171
Q

_____ ______ is defined as the unintended, and often sudden, release of stored, residual or potential energy that will cause harm if contacted.

A

hazardous energy

172
Q

what type of energy is not likely to change?

A

stable

173
Q

electricity is always trying to find the path of ______ resistance.

A

least

174
Q

a tingling sensation when approaching electrical equipment is known as what?

A

ground gradient.

175
Q

_____ _____ is electrical energy that has established a path to ground through the earth and is energizing it.

A

ground gradient

176
Q

a downed power line may be energizing the earth up to how far away?

A

30 feet

177
Q

a difference in the potential voltages at any two points is knows as ____ ___.

A

step potential

178
Q

step potential can be eliminated by wearing the appropriate ______ footwear.

A

nonconductive

179
Q

a firefighter who feels tingling in his feet should get away from the source how?

A

shuffling feet

180
Q

can smoke become electrically charged?

A

yes

181
Q

keep a distance of at least _____ feet from downed power lines.

A

10

182
Q

efforts to improve an individuals strength, flexibility and aerobics to help prevent overexertion at incidents can be defined as _____ ______.

A

work hardening

183
Q

_______ is the science of adapting work or working conditions to a worker.

A

ergonomics

184
Q

the ______ strategy acknowledges that the workers are less apt to suffer an injury if they are aware of the problem.

A

awareness

185
Q

a _____ _____ can be defined as the option or approach that an ISO uses to help remind firefighters to be situationally aware and to perform in a safe and predictable manner.

A

safety trigger

186
Q

a ____ _____ can be defined as awareness or suggestive communications made to crews or command staff that cause them to modify their observations and activities to prevent an injury.

A

soft intervention

187
Q

a ____ ______ can be defined as a direct order to immediately stop, alter, suspend, or withdraw personnel, activities, and operations due to an imminent threat.

A

firm intervention

188
Q

the firm intervention by an ISO is an ______ order.

A

official

189
Q

bunker cop, CYA and worker are three traps of what position?

A

safety officer

190
Q

the ISO has the authority of an IC only when an ____ ______ is present.

A

imminent threat

191
Q

the ISO should have face to face communications with the IC every ______ minutes at routine incidents.

A

15

192
Q

M in MEDIC:

A

monitor

193
Q

E in MEDIC:

A

evaluate

194
Q

D in MEDIC:

A

developed

195
Q

I in MEDIC:

A

interventions

196
Q

C in MEDIC:

A

communications

197
Q

Which NIMS type is a local event that can be handled with the original jurisdiction?

A

Type 5

198
Q

Which NIMS type is a local even that can be handled with the original jurisdiction and mutual aid from neighboring departments?

A

Type 4

199
Q

Which NIMS type is a regional event?

A

type 3

200
Q

Which NIMS type is a multi region, state, or initial federal event?

A

type 2w

201
Q

which NIMS type is a federal event?

A

type 1

202
Q

An ____ _____ is a template that outlines a mental or physical process that considers inputs that lead to an output or outcomes.

A

action model

203
Q

_______ is an exploratory examination of the incident scene conditions and activities.

A

recon

204
Q

______ becomes a crucial part in identifying conditions and activities that need to be evaluated.

A

recon

205
Q

the ______ method of MEDIC is the most important, and difficult to execute.

A

evaluate

206
Q

the IC must be notified of any ______ intervention from the ISO.

A

firm

207
Q

what is defined as key phrases that signal the completion of significant tactical objectives?

A

incident benchmark

208
Q

what is a wild land fire term used to describe the sudden advancement and increase-in fire intensity?

A

blowup

209
Q

what is a violent convection column caused by a large continuous area of intense fire?

A

fire storm

210
Q

what is a sudden, short lived rise in the rate of fire spread?

A

flare-up

211
Q

what is the burning of the foliage of a single tree, or small bunch of trees?

A

torching

212
Q

the assignment of an ISO at technician level hazmat incidents is ______.

A

mandatory

213
Q

complex incidents requiring specialty trained personnel and equipment to complete the mission describe what?

A

technical rescue

214
Q

post incident thought ________ are the reflective or introspective mental pre-occupations that firefighters experience just after incident control.

A

patterns

215
Q

the _____ is a formal and/or informal reflective discussion that the fire department uses to summarize the successes and failures of an operation.

A

PIA

216
Q

what is the legal phrase for the effort to act in a reasonable or prudent way, given the circumstances?

A

due diligence

217
Q

there is an average of _______ LODD due to training each year.

A

10

218
Q

______ is a training approach in which a trainee closely observes experienced mentors as they perform their assigned duties.

A

shadowing

219
Q

standards are used using which kind of language?

A

mandatory language

220
Q

where are the JPR’s for fire officer 1 found?

A

NFPA 1601

221
Q

what type of material is masonry?

A

brittle

222
Q

when drywall is exposed to heat, water is sacrificed in a process known as what?

A

calcination

223
Q

parapet walls are generally made from what?

A

masonry

224
Q

is smoked hotter when the color is primarily black?

A

yes

225
Q

what structural identifier is assigned to unreinforced masonry?

A

URM

226
Q

which governing body oversees the US fire administration?

A

DHS

227
Q

what task can a projection light be used for when carried by an ISO?

A

reading smoke

228
Q

wooden I-beams are a combination of laminated veneer lumber and ___.

A

OSB

229
Q

what fire-resistive device is generally used to protect the roof structure of a type II building?

A

drop ceiling

230
Q

what term refers to temporary bracing used to support incomplete structural elements?

A

false work

231
Q

a precautionary withdrawal order is issued by who?

A

IC

232
Q

where does a flame over generally originate?

A

at the seat of the fire

233
Q

an area with what minimum temp at floor level would indicate a zero rescue profile?

A

300F

234
Q

where does most of the useful recon information come from at a hazmat site?

A

TECHREF

235
Q

how many components are necessary for a safe operational environment?

A

3

236
Q

how many items should be considered when writing equipment guidelines?

A

7

237
Q

what kind of thinking should the ISO employ?

A

cyclic

238
Q
A