Immunology Flashcards
(252 cards)
1
Q
The majority of fluid distributed in the body is where?
A
Intracellularly
2
Q
Where is plasma contained?
A
Cardiovascular system
3
Q
What is the most common plasma protein?
A
Albumins
4
Q
Where are the plasma proteins synthesized?
A
In the Liver
5
Q
Binding to plasma proteins helps what with hormones?
A
prevents inappropriate metabolism and/or excretion
6
Q
Plasma albumin binds mainly to?
A
acidic drugs
7
Q
The general functions of plasma include what?
A
transport of nutrients for energy, growth and repair, removal of wastes; transport of hormones and regulation of body temperature
8
Q
Plasma is what percentage of blood volume?
A
55%
9
Q
Plasma is ___ percent water
A
91%
10
Q
What is the lifespan of Erythrocytes?
A
100-120 days
11
Q
what is the duration of development of Erythrocytes?
A
5-7 days
12
Q
How many Erythrocytes are in a microliter of blood?
A
4-6 million
13
Q
what is the function of Erythrocytes?
A
Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
14
Q
How many Neutrophils are in a microliter of blood?
A
3000-7000
15
Q
How many Eosinophils are in one microliter of blood?
A
100-400
16
Q
How many Basophils are in one microliter of blood?
A
20-50
17
Q
How many lymphocytes are in one microliter of blood?
A
1500-3000
18
Q
How many monocytes are in one microliter of blood?
A
100-700
19
Q
How many platelets are in one microliter of blood?
A
150,000-500,000
20
Q
What is the Duration of development for Neutrophils?
A
6-9 days
21
Q
What is the duration of development for Eosinophils?
A
6-9 days
22
Q
What is the duration of development for Basophils?
A
3-7 days
23
Q
What is the duration of development for Lymphocytes?
A
days to weeks
24
Q
what is the duration of development for monocytes?
A
2-3 days
25
what is the duration of development for platelets?
4-5 days
26
what is the life span of neutrophils?
6 hours to a few days
27
How many Leukocytes are in one microliter of blood?
4800-11,000
28
What is the lifespan of eosinophils?
8-12 days
29
what is the lifespan of Basophils?
a few hours to a few days
30
what is the lifespan of lymphocytes?
hours to years
31
what is the lifespan of platelets?
5-10 days
32
what is the function of neutrophils?
destroy bacteria by phagocytosis
33
what is the function of Eosinophils?
turn off allergic responses and kill parasites
34
what is the function of Basophils?
Release histamine and other mediators of inflammation
35
what is the function of lymphocytes?
mount immune response by direct cell attack (T-cells) or via antibodies (B-cells)
36
what is the function of monocytes?
Phagocytosis; develop into macrophages in tissues
37
what is the function of platelets?
Seal small tears in blood vessels; instrumental in blood clotting
38
Hemoglobin (Hb) is a _____ protein
heterotetrameric
39
Do mature RBC's have a nucleus?
no, they cannot divide
40
Do mature RBC's have any mitochondria or endoplasmic reticulums?
No, they only produce energy through glycolysis
41
what state is the iron in when used by hemoglobin?
Ferrous (Fe 2+)
42
Where are RBC's produced after twenty years of age?
membranous bones such as the vertebrae, sternum, and ribs.
43
In the embryo primitive nucleated RBC's are produced in the ___ ___
yolk sac
44
By the middle of the last trimester production of RBC's has moved exclusively to the ___ ____ in the ____ and ____
bone marrow in the femur and tibia
45
All blood cells originate from ____ _____ stem cells
pluripotential hematopoietic
46
By the _____ stage the ____ and ____ have either been absorbed or ejected from the immature RBC.
reticulocyte stage; nucleus and ER
47
Reticulocytes leave the bone marrow and enter the circulation to complete the maturation process which lasts how long?
one to two days
48
Lack of oxygen stimulates what?
Erythropoietin which causes an increase in production of RBC's but only can be worked with a little because it thickens the blood
49
What is hypoxia?
lack of oxygen delivery to tissues
50
What produces Erythropoietin?
The kidneys
51
What is anemia?
a decrease in the ability of the blood to carry oxygen
52
what vitamins are important for RBC's?
Iron, B12 and folate
53
How is hemoglobin formed?
Succinyl-CoA combines with glycine to form pyrrole and four of these compose to make protoporphyrin IX which binds to ferrous to make heme. Lastly heme is joined to the polypeptide globin.
54
fetal Hb has a ____ ____ to oxygen than the mother
higher affinity
55
The iron in each heme group binds how many oxygen molecules?
one
56
Each hemoglobin molecule can bind to how many oxygen molecules
four (100% saturated)
57
Where does the body transfer the iron from?
GI tract
58
Where do RBC's self-destruct in the body?
in the spleen as they squeeze through the "red pulp" reticular mesh
59
Pernicious anemia results from
lack of absorption of B12
60
Sprue results from
lack of absorption of Folic acid
61
Sickle cell anemia is due to what?
a single amino acid change in a specific position in the globin polypeptide chain of Hb
62
What is Erythroblastosis fetalis?
when a Rh- mother has a child with Rh + and the mother's immune system produces antibodies to attack the baby (will have severe anemia)
63
What is polycythemia vera?
when too many RBC's are produced: causes the blood to be difficult to pump
64
what is hemostasis?
the prevention of blood loss when a vessel is severed or ruptured.
65
To limit blood loss what does a vessel do?
vascular constriction, formation of a platelet plug, formation of a blood clot, clot retraction, and finally removal of the clot, (dissolved), after repair.
66
What is the synthesis of TXA2?
PLA2 to Arachidonic acid to COX then to TXA2
67
what is the most important factor to cause vasoconstriction?
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
68
When activated platelets become ____
sticky
69
platelets are formed from
megakaryocytes in the bone marrow or blood from cell fragmentation
70
Platelets contain remnants of the ____ and ____ ____ in order to produce enzymes and store calcium.
ER and Golgi apparatus
71
fibroblasts are necessary for the platelets to do what?
multiply and grow
72
fibrin-stabilizing factor is necessary for platelets to do what?
repair
73
what prevents platelets from adhering to the undamaged vessel walls?
glycoproteins
74
platelets contain high concentrations of ____ that are involved in blood clotting.
phospholipids
75
platelets are removed by what?
macrophages in the spleen
76
What strengthens the clot?
fibrin fibers
77
A blood clot starts to form after ______ if trauma is significant and after ____ if minor
15-20 seconds if significant and 1-2 minutes if minor
78
after ____ most reasonable holes are plugged
3-6 minutes
79
after _____ the clot retracts due to platelets and closes the hole even tighter.
20-60 minutes
80
Once a clot has formed it can do what two things?
be invaded by fibroblasts or be dissolved
81
If invaded by fibroblasts the repair is usually _____ after 1-2 weeks
complete
82
Synonym for fibrinogen
factor I
83
synonym for prothrombin
factor II
84
synonym for tissue factor
factor III
85
synonym for calcium
factor IV
86
synonym for factor V
Proaccelerin
87
synonym for factor VII
serum prothrombin conversion accelerator (spca)
88
synonym for factor VIII
antihemophilic factor (AHF)
89
synonym for factor IX
plasma thromboplastin component (PTC)
90
synonym for factor X
stuart factor
91
synonym for factor XI
plasma thromboplastin antecedent (PTA)
92
synonym for factor XII
Hageman factor
93
synonym for factor XIII
fibrin stabilizing factor
94
synonym for prekallikrein
fletcher factor
95
synonym for high-molecular-weight kininogen
fitzgerald factor
96
What is the rate of turnover of RBC's?
10 to the 11th power
97
What kind of fats make vessels rougher?
saturated fats
98
what two factors are inhibited by activated protein C?
factor V and factor VIII
99
what is the most important in preventing inappropriate clotting?
endothelial surface factors
100
What inactivates or removes thrombin?
fibrin fibers and alpha-globulin a.k.a antithrombin III
101
What factors does heparin block?
Factors 2, 9, 10, 11, 12
102
Heparin combines with what to block clotting factors?
antithrombin III; this increases its activity a lot
103
What inactivates heparin?
heparinase (about 1.5-4 hours)
104
Warfarin decreases plasma levels of ____ and factors (3 different ones), by competing with ____?
decreases levels of prothrombin II and factors 7, 9, and 10 by competing with vitamin K
105
What is special about Rivaroxaban being specifically a factor Xa inhibitor?
I acts further "upstream" of the clotting factor cascade thus having a wider therapeutic window and less monitoring needed.
106
What three conditions are notorious for causing excessive bleeding?
vitamin K deficiency, hemophila, and thrombocytopenia
107
Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis of what four important clotting factors?
Prothrombin II and factors 7, 9, and 10 also to note is that protein C is affected (anti-coagulant)
108
vitamin K is normally synthesized by ____ ____
gut flora
109
Hemophilia primarily effects males because...
it is a genetic disease that is sex-linked
110
Thrombocytopenia can be noticed by what?
purpura; which is purplish blotches on the skin from loss of clot retraction by platelets
111
what two things kill virtually all pathogens entering the GI tract?
HCl secretion and the protease pepsin
112
What does mother's milk contain that is antimicrobial to help protect the baby?
the enzyme lactoperoxidase
113
Defecation and vomiting caused by some microbial toxins acting on the smooth muscle of the GI tract work via _____ areas to expel toxins
chemosensitive
114
Where are Leukocytes produced?
bone marrow
115
What is the function of Neutrophils?
Phagocytosis, releases chemicals involved in inflammation
116
what is the function of Basophils?
release histamine and other chemicals involved in inflammation
117
what is the function of Eosinophils?
Destroy multicellular parasites, participate in immediate hypersensitivity reactions
118
what is the function of monocytes?
carry out functions in blood similar to those of macrophages in tissues, enter tissues and transform into macrophages
119
what is the function of macrophages?
phagocytosis, extracellular killing via secretion of toxic chemicals, process and present antigens to helper T cells, secretion of cytokines involved in inflammation, activation and differentiation of helper T cells, and systemic responses to infection or injury
120
Where is IL-1, tumor necrosis factor, and IL-6 located?
Antigen-presenting cells (e.g. macrophages)
121
What is the target cell of IL-1, tumor necrosis factor, and IL-6?
Helper T cells; certain brain cells; numerous systemic cells
122
what is the major function of IL-1, tumor necrosis factor, and IL-6?
stimulate IL-2 secretion and IL-2 receptor expression; induce fever; stimulate systemic responses to inflammation, infection, and injury
123
what is the source of IL-2?
Most immune cells
124
what is the target cell of IL-2
Helper T cells; cytotoxic T cells; NK cells; B cells
125
What are the major functions of IL-2?
stimulate proliferation, promote conversion to plasma cells
126
What is the source of Interferons?
Most cell types
127
what are the target cells of interferons?
most cell types
128
what is the major function of interferons?
stimulate cells to produce antiviral proteins (nonspecific response)
129
what is the source of interferon-gamma?
NK cells and activated helper T cells
130
what are the target cells of interferon-gamma?
NK cells and macrophages
131
what are the major functions of interferon-gamma?
stimulate proliferation and secretion of cytotoxic compounds
132
what is the source of Chemokines?
damaged cells, including endothelial cells
133
what are the target cells of chemokines?
neutrophils and other leukocytes
134
what are the major functions of chemokines?
facilitate accumulation of leukocytes at sites of injury and inflammation
135
what is the source of Colony-stimulating factors?
Macrophages
136
what are the target cells of colony-stimulating factors?
bone marrow
137
what are the major functions of colony-stimulating factors?
Stimulate proliferation of neutrophils and monocytes
138
What is diapedesis?
mobile cells pass through gaps in the capillary endothelium to enter the tissues and can follow chemical trails
139
What two mechanisms are innate and help direct WBC's to pathogens?
they have rough surfaces and most pathogens lack the repellant protective coats that our cells posses
140
What is the alternate complement pathway?
where the complement system is activated without the involvement of antibodies during inflammation to tag bacterial pathogens
141
What is opsonization?
The relatively non-specific binding of the complement system factor C3b to cell surface/cell wall carbs of bacteria which allows more effective phagocytosis
142
What does the MAC do?
perforate bacterial membranes which makes them leaky and kills the bacteria
143
What is a phagosome?
Where a pathogen that is enveloped by the cell
144
what is a phagolysosome?
the pathogen when enveloped fuses with lysosomes
145
about how many bacteria can a neutrophil phagocytize?
20-Mar
146
Macrophages can typically ingest how many bacteria?
around 100
147
some tissues/organs have their own subclass of macrophages such as ____
Kupffer cells in liver and Dendritic cells of the skin
148
Anything not phagocytized must be removed via the ____ as it cannot cross the endothelium and enter the blood.
lymph
149
If an invading organism enters the blood it can be removed by what?
the spleen and bone marrow by macrophages
150
What is the first stage of attraction for a Leukocyte?
chemokine expression
151
what occurs after chemokine expression in the attraction of leukocytes?
the change in integrin receptors to facilitate diapedesis (increases affinity)
152
What can interferons do within a cell?
they are cytokines that inhibit viral replication inside host cells with the secretion of antiviral proteins.
153
When are eosinophils produced in higher concentrations?
in response to parasitic infections when they are attracted by chemotaxis
154
What are the primary cells involved in an increased response of Eosinophils?
Mast cells and basophils
155
What is the Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor?
the substance released by mast cells and basophils that attract eosinophils which may then detoxify certain substances involved in inflammation.
156
What antibody is released during an allergic response?
IgE
157
What chemicals are released during an allergic response by basophils?
histamine, bradykinin, serotonin, heparin, setc.
158
what is leukopenia?
bone marrow condition where it starts to produce very few WBC's
159
What can cause leukopenia?
radiation, chemicals
160
What is Leukemia?
cancerous mutations of WBC precursor cells where an uncontrolled production of WBC's occurs
161
where does myelogenous leukemia originate?
bone marrow
162
where does leukemia spread?
throughout the body especially to lymph nodes, spleen, and liver...cells are often undifferentiated with bizarre shapes.
163
what is the primary result of leukemia?
the production of non-functional/partially functional WBC's in inappropriate areas of the body resulting in infection, severe anemia, and a tendency to bleed due to thrombocytopenia
164
Why does leukemia cause thrombocytopenia and a tendency to bleed?
it is caused by the physical displacement of normally functioning bone marrow by the cancerous cells
165
what is the most significant effect on the patient by leukemia?
a very high metabolic demand placed on the body by these rapidly dividing cells; other tissues can be starved and forced to rely on protein catabolism
166
B-lymphocytes produce a humoral response by synthesizing ____ ____ that target the invader for destruction .
circulating antibodies
167
T-lymphocytes produce activated ____ ____ that directly destroy the invaders.
Killer Cells
168
antigens are recognized specifically by _______
immunoglobulins
169
What do T-lymphocytes require to activate?
APC's (Antigen-Presenting Cells)
170
When molecules are identified as foreign what is produced?
antigens
171
what is the function of lymphocytes?
recognition cells
172
What is the function of B cells?
initiate antibody mediated immune responses by binding antigens to the B cell's plasma membrane receptors
173
What happens to B cells once activated?
They transform into plasma cells and present antigen to helper T cells
174
what is the function of cytotoxic T cells?
bind to antigens on plasma membrane of target cells and directly destroy the cells
175
what is the function of helper T cells?
secrete cytokines that help to activate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, NK cells, and macrophages
176
what is the function of NK cells?
Bind directly and nonspecifically to virus-infected cells and cancer cells and kill them...they also function as killer cells in antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
177
what is the function of plasma cells?
they secrete antibodies
178
Potential T-lymphocytes first migrate to the ___ for processing.
thymus
179
potential B-lymphocytes first migrate to the ___ ___ for processing.
liver prior to birth but afterwards the Bone Marrow
180
each T-lymphocyte develops specific reactivity to how many antigens?
one
181
What three cells principally can present antigens to T-cells?
Macrophages, B-lymphocytes, and Dendritic cells
182
Macrophages secrete what to promote reproduction and growth of lymphocyte clones?
IL-1
183
What three events are required for activation of helper T-lymphocytes?
Presentation of an antigen bound to MHC II, Binding of matching non-antigenic proteins, secretion by APC or B-cell of cytokines including IL-1 and TNF which act on the helper lymphocyte
184
T-lymphocytes only respond when the ____ is ____ to special surface molecules called what?
antigen is bound to the special surface molecules call major histocompatibility complexes (MHC's)
185
What proteins are vital to present to and activate Helper T-cells?
MHC II proteins
186
MHC 1's present to what cells?
Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
187
MHC 2's present to what cells?
Helper T-cells
188
To activate the T-cell after the MHC binding what must occur?
a second "handshake" between the T-Helpers and APC's by binding of matching, non-antigenic proteins
189
Lastly the secretion by the APC of ____ fully activates the T-Helper cells.
Cytokines (especially IL-1 and TNF)
190
Helper T-cells secrete ____ after activation which enhances the activation of processed ____.
lymphokines; B-lymphocytes
191
What do memory cells help with?
when presented to the same antigen they can produce a far more rapid and effective response
192
Antibodies are gamma globulins called what?
immunoglobulins
193
The specificity of the antigen biding sites is due to what?
appropriate amino acids forming a highly specific binding site analogous to a drug receptor or enzyme active site
194
what are the five different antibodies?
IgM, IgG, IgA, IgD, and IgE
195
what is the most commonly found antibody in the body?
IgG
196
IgM is produced during the ____ response and is effective due to what?
the primary response and is effective due to having ten binding sites
197
what is agglutination?
when large invaders become bound together via antibodies into a clump
198
what is precipitation?
when the linked molecules become so large that they become insoluble (such as toxins)
199
what is neutralization?
when binding antibodies cover and inactivate toxic sites on the invader
200
what is Lysis?
some antibodies can rupture the cell membranes of invading organisms, however are not sufficient enough on their own.
201
Antibodies are also used for what?
pharmacological tools and treatments
202
What are the four different types of T-lymphocytes?
Helper, cytotoxic, suppressor, and natural killer (NK)
203
what are Helper T-lymphocytes?
most numerous and they help the immune system function effectively and are involved in regulating virtually all immune functions
204
What are suppressor T-lymphocytes?
decrease function of cytotoxic and helper T-cells to suppress autoimmune responses
205
what are cytotoxic T-lymphocytes?
kill invading organisms by punching a hole through their membranes via perforins
206
What are NK cells?
they target virus-infected and cancerous cells. They kill their target after binding to them...not much is known on how
207
Infection in the body leads the Brain to do what?
fever, decreased appetite, decrease food intake, sleepiness, fatigue
208
Infection in the body leads the Liver to do what?
Retain Fe, Zn, secrete acute phase proteins
209
Infection in the body leads the Bone Marrow to do what?
Increase production and release of leukocytes
210
Infection in the body leads the Adipose tissue to do what?
increase lipolysis
211
Infection in the body leads the Muscle to do what?
increase protein breakdown and amino acid release
212
Infection in the body leads the Hypothalamus to do what?
increase ACTH secretion
213
A rise in ACTH secretion due to infection in the body leads the Adrenal cortex to do what?
increase cortisol secretion
214
Immunization eliminates what to speed up response time?
eliminates the time lag required for specific recognition
215
What is anaphylaxis?
An extreme response triggered in tissues surrounding small blood vessels due to Mast cells and eosinophils that rapidly spread throughout the circulation
216
What is Urticaria?
triggered by antigens entering the skin and releasing histamine (hives)
217
What is Hay fever?
the allergen-regain reaction occurs in nasal passages with released histamine, also causes sneezing as the body tries to eject the causative agent
218
What is Asthma?
the allergen-regain reaction in the bronchioles
219
What is type I hypersensitivity?
immediate hypersensitivity from a release of mast cell mediators, IgE
220
what is Type II hypersensitivity?
antibody mediated, IgM, IgG antibodies
221
What is type III hypersensitivity?
immune complex mediated, formation of immune complexes, activates inflammatory cells
222
What is type IV hypersensitivity?
CD4+Tcells (delayed), macrophage activation of cytokine-mediated inflammation
223
What is the additional sugar residue on Group B blood?
Galactose
224
what is the additional sugar residue on Group A blood?
N acetyl-galactosamine
225
What antigen is on blood group A?
A
226
what antigen is on blood group B?
B
227
what antigen is on blood group AB?
A and B
228
what antigen is on blood group O?
neither A or B
229
what antibody is found on blood group A?
Anti-B
230
what antibody is found on blood group B?
Anti-A
231
what antibody is found on blood group AB?
neither A or B
232
what antibody is found on blood group O?
Anti-A and Anti-B
233
Which blood groups can have a homozygous and heterozygous form?
group A and group B (AA or AO) (BB or BO)
234
which blood group does not have a homozygous form?
AB
235
which blood grouping does not have a heterozygous form?
O
236
Which blood type is the universal donor?
O
237
which blood type is the universal acceptor?
AB
238
Where are the antibodies to the non-expressed antigen found?
in the plasma
239
Blood antibodies are mostly which immunoglobulins?
IgG and IgM
240
Antibody production is stimulated by what for A-B-O grouping?
certain bacteria and food
241
Which blood groups will A not interact with?
O and A
242
Which blood groups will B not interact with?
O and B
243
Which blood groups will O not interact with?
O
244
Which blood groups will AB not interact with?
AB, O, B, A
245
Unlike the O-A-B system rhesus antigens are not normally produced until when?
exposure to the antigens from an exogenous source
246
What are the common types of Rh antigens?
C,D,E, c, d, e
247
Which Rh antigen is most widely expressed in the population?
D
248
What is Erythroblastosis fetalis?
when the Rh- mother's antibodies attack her Rh+ baby's blood cells
249
Isograft is between what?
identical twins
250
Autograft is between what?
within an individual
251
Allograft is between what?
beings of the same species
252
Xenograft is between what?
beings of different species
