Infectiology Flashcards
(113 cards)
1
Q
Why do neurological and ocular FIP need higher doses of GS441524 ?
A
Because of poor drug access across the blood ocular and blood brain barriers
2
Q
What babesia species can be transmitted directly dog to dog ?
A
Babesia gibsoni
3
Q
Of Nocardia spp. Actinomyces spp. and Mycobacterium spp., which one is acid-fast (Ziehl Nielsen) negative?
A
Actinomyces
4
Q
What rickettsial can be found in neutrophils?
A
Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Erhlichia ewingii
5
Q
What rickettsial can be found in mononuclear cells?
A
Erhlicha canis, ehrlichia chaffeensis and Neorickettsia risticii
6
Q
What rickettsial can be found in platelets?
A
Anaplasma platys
7
Q
What is usually the first type of antibody to be produced in case of infection?
A
IgM then after days/weeks IgG (IgA usually follows IgG levels)
8
Q
True or false: toxocara can result in human visceral larva migrans and ancylostoma, strongyloides and uncinaria in human cutaneous larva migrans
A
True
9
Q
What cryptosporidium are considered zoonotic?
A
Parvum and homonis which are really rare in dogs and cats
10
Q
What are the zoonotic assemblages of Giardia?
A
A and B (not the most frequently encountered in dogs and cats)
11
Q
Is Bordetella bronchiseptica a zoonosis?
A
Yes but only for immunocompromised people
12
Q
What zoonosis can be transmitted by lagomorphs, cats, ticks (and dogs)?
A
Francisella tularensis
13
Q
What is the agent of the zoonotic bubonic, septicemic or pneumonic plague transmitted by lagomorphs and cats?
A
Yersinia pestis
14
Q
What is the agent of the zoonotic Q fever of cattle, sheep, goat, cat (and dog)?
A
Coxiella burnetti
15
Q
What diseases can be transmitted by Ixodes?
A
Borrelia burgdorferi, Anaplasma phagocytophilum and Bartonella
16
Q
How does borrelia burgdorferi escape the immune system?
A
By DNA recombination (antigenic variation)
17
Q
What does the snap4DX measure for borrelia burgdorferi?
A
Antibodies against the C6 peptide antigen (only expressed in natural infection)
18
Q
True or false: OspA antibodies are more frequently observed in dogs vaccines for Borrelia burgdorferi and OspC in non vaccinated but both can be seen with natural or vaccin induced infection
A
True
19
Q
Which mycobacterium has the human as a reservoir host?
A
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
20
Q
True or false: Mycobacterium microti is more frequent in older cats in contrast to mycobacterium bovis. Hunting rodents is a risk factor and immunosuppression may reactivate the disease
A
True
21
Q
Which type of saprophytic mycobacterias are more likely in young/immunosuppressed animals?
A
Slow growing saprophytic Mycobacterium (mycobacterium avium complex…)
22
Q
True or false: rapid growing saprophytic Mycobacterium often affect obese apparently immunocompetent animals
A
True
23
Q
True or false: a biphasic age distribution is reported in cats with leproid mycobacterium
A
True: young immunocompetent (rapid progression on the limbs) and old cats suspected to be immunosuppressed (diffuse slowly progressive lesions)
24
Q
To what antibiotic are usually sensitive Actinomyces spp.?
A
Penicillins
25
Where can we found Actinomyces spp. and Nocardia spp.?
Nocardia is ubiquitous and Actinomyces is a commensal of oral cavity and mucous membranes
26
What is the usual antibiotic that Nocardia spp are sensitive to?
Sulfonamides
27
True or false: Brucella bacteremia may persist for 6 months
True
28
Why the highly sensitive rapid slide agglutination test for Brucella is poorly specific?
Cross reaction with other gram negative bacterias
29
How much time does take seroconversion for Brucella infection ?
4 to 12 weeks
30
What test is more specific than rapid slide agglutination test for Brucella infection?
Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID)
31
What are two toxins secreted by Clostridium tetani and their action?
Tetanolysin (local tissue damage)
Tetanospasmin (the light chain impedes the release of presynaptical neurotransmitter in inhibitory neurons --> spasms)
32
What are the four clinical classes of tetanus?
Class I: only facial signs
Class II: general rigidity or dysphagia
Class III: dogs are recumbent or have seizures
Class IV: dogs have abnormal FC, FR or PA
33
What is the main infection route of clostridium tetani? And clostridium botulinum?
Clostridium tetani: wound inoculation
Clostridium botulinum: spoiled food ingestion
34
What is the main toxin of Clostridium botulinum infection?
Type C
(1 case report for toxin D and toxin B)
35
What is the mechanism of action of the toxin C of Clostridium botulinum?
Inhibition of release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular synapse (flaccid paralysis)
36
Name vectors of Bartonella spp.
Ctenocephalides felis
Ixodes spp., Rhipicephalus sanguineus
37
True or false: Bartonella are passed through the skin in arthropod feces, and infect dendritic and endothelial cells (also microglial, macrophages and progenitors in the bone marrow)
True
38
What are the main two type of virulence factors of Bartonella?
Adhésions to adhere to cells and Type IV secretion system to translocate effector proteins into the cell (inhibition of apoptosis, bacterial persistence...)
39
True or false: Bartonella bacteremia never occurs in the absence of antibodies
False 50% occur in the absence of antibodies
40
What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction in Bartonella infected dogs?
Signs of SIRS secondary to the rapid death of the bacterias with consequent release of endotoxins
41
True or false: prevalence of Bartonella infection in cats is higher in warm temperature, high humidity, infestation by fleas and feral cats
True
42
True or false: it is recommended to adopt cats older than 1 year, avoid rough play and maintain flea control to avoid Bartonella zoonosis
True
43
Why unlike other gram negative bacterias, leptospira bacteremia do not result in fulminant septic disease?
Because of low endotoxic potential of leptospira's LPS
44
What are the 4 serovars included in the leptospira's vaccine in Europe?
Icterohemorrhagiae, Canicola, Grippotyphosa and Bratislava
45
What is the agent and the vector of canine monocytic ehrlichiosis?
Erhlicha canis transmitted by Rhipicephalus sanguineus
46
True or false: immune suppression may be secondary to ehrlichia canis infection in dogs with secondary opportunistic infections such as papillomatosis
True
47
What are the agents of canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis and their vectors?
Ehrlichia ewiingii with Amblyomma americanum
Anaplasma phagocytophilum with Ixodes
48
What is the agent of canine thrombocytic anaplasmosis and its presumed vector?
Anaplasma platys and Rhipicephalus sanguineus
49
What is the vector of Neorickettsia helminthoeca the agent of salmon poisoning disease?
Nanophyetus salmincola
50
True or false: fecal analysis is frequently positive for Nanophyetus salmincola ova in case of salmon poisoning disease
True
51
What's the agent of Rocky mountain spotted fever and its vector?
Rickettsia rickettsii with Dermacentor and Rhipicephalus sanguineus
52
Which hemotropic Mycoplasma is the most prevalent in cats?
Candidates M. Haemominutum
53
Is FIV infection associated with hemotropic Mycoplasma infection in cats?
Yes, not FelV (male outdoor cats overrepresented)
54
What 2 genes expression of Clostridium perfringens may be associated with diarrhea (and AHDS)?
CPE: Clostridium perfringens enterotoxin
Netf for AHDS
55
What enteric bacteria is encountered frequently (30%) in dogs eating raw chicken diet?
Salmonella spp.
56
True or false: Toxoplasma, Neospora and Cystoisospora oocysts must sporulate outside the host to be infectious
True
57
True or false: Hepatozoon americanum can also be transmitted to dogs by predation
True
58
What is the main source of Neospora caninum infection in dogs?
Infected bovine placenta and infected deer
59
Between Neospora and Toxoplasma tissue cyst, which one has a greater wall thickness?
Neospora > Toxoplasma
60
True or false: dogs and humans can also complete the coccidian life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii, not just the cat
False, only the cat can complete its life cycle
61
True or false: Leishmania transmission appears to be primarily dog to dog in Foxhound in the USA
True
62
Which type of Babesia can be transmitted by bitting?
Babesia gibsoni
63
To what predisposes FIV infection?
Immunosuppression, chronic gingivostomatitis and lymphoma
64
True or false: FelV vaccines protect against progressive infection AND regressive infection
False, it mainly protects against progressive infection
65
Is it feline parvovirus or canine parvovirus that is capable of also infecting the dog or cat?
Canine parvovirus (CPV-2a and CPV-2b) are able to infect cats
66
In the USA which ones are more commonly seen for rabies infection: dogs or cats?
Cats with rabies are seen 3 times more commonly than dogs
67
True or false: rabies is uncommon in vaccinated cats and dogs but can occur
True
68
Is exposure to rabies by aerosols possible?
Yes, especially in bat caves
69
What are the two most prevalent virus of canine infectious respiratory disease?
Canine Parainfluenza virus and canine respiratory coronavirus
70
What two pathogens may produce more severe forms of canine infectious respiratory disease?
Canine influenza virus and streptococcus equi subsp zooepidemicus
71
What happens to dogs infected with distemper virus according to the level of immune response ?
-Poor immune response: severe clinical signs and death or recovery and likely to develop CNS signs (weeks-months later)
-Intermediate level: mild/silent disease with possibility to finally develop CNS signs
-Strong immune response: clinical signs unlikely
72
True or false: dogs infected by CDV that developed pustular skin lesions are less likely to develop CNS disease but hyperkeratosis of footpads and nasal planum is associated with CNS disease development
True
73
True or false: the canarypox recombinant CDV vaccine may be prefered over modified live vaccine
True (more efficient and no interference with RT-PCR results)
74
True or false: unlike CDV, CAV-1 is not airborne
True
75
True or false: most CAV-1 vaccines use CAV-2 isolates
True
76
True or false: canine papillomas (interdigital, footpads) associated with Canis familiaris papillomavirus type 2 have been associated with the development of squamous celle carcinoma in immunosuppressed dogs
True
77
True or false: West Nile virus induces severe clinical signs in dogs
False, most dogs are resistant, some cases of meningoencephalitis/multisystemic disease have been reported
78
True or false: Cryptococcus neoformans is more important in immunosuppressed animals and C. gatti often causes disease in patient with normal immune function
True
79
What is the main vector for Cryptococcus neoformans?
Birds especially pigeon habitats
80
What are the three main sites of dissemination of Cryptococcus?
Skin, eyes and CNS
81
True or false: in dogs infected by Cryptococcus, CNS signs are most frequent
True
82
True or false: bodies of animals that died of coccidioides should be immediately incinerated
True due to the risk of mycelial form formation and exposure
83
True or false: sporotrichosis mainly infects cats and can be disseminated whereas dogs rarely present the disease and mainly as a cutaneous disease
True
84
What is the main infectious source of sporotrichosis in humans?
Infected cats
85
True or false: dogs infected by pythiosis frequently have exposure to warm freshwater habitat
True
86
True or false: pythiosis do not respond well to medical therapy because ergosterol in its membrane is generally lacking
True
87
Name two fungal disease that are similar to the cutaneous form or pythiosis
Lagenidiosis and Paralagenidiosis
88
What is the main vector of Bartonella ?
Ctenocephalides felis
89
What is associated with Bartonella endocarditis in dogs ?
Aortic involvement, absence of fever, increased odds of death
90
What is recommended for immunosuppressed people regarding cats and Bartonella ?
Avoid having stray cats, cats younger than 1 year old, cats infested with fleas and avoid rough plays
91
What are the 4 serovars included in the quadrivalent vaccine for leptospirosis in dogs, in Europe ?
Icterrohaemorrhagiae, Canicola, Grippotyphosa, Bratislava
92
True or false : Canine Hemoplasmas might be transmitted by Rhipicephalus sanguineus and fights
True
93
What are the small babesia species ?
Gibsoni, conradae and vulpes
94
What are the big babesia species ?
Rossi, canis and vogeli
95
Which babesia is more likely transmitted by fights in the usa ? Especially in Pit Bull
Babesia gibsoni
96
What kind of immune response is seen in wet FIP and in dry FIP ?
Wet: Th-2
Dry: mixed Th-1/Th-2
97
To what genotype has been primarily associated pantropic CCoV ?
CCoV-2a
98
What are the two most common Canine Influenza Virus ?
H3N8 and H3N2
99
What kind of signs are frequently associated with cutaneous signs in Canine Distemper disease ?
Neurological signs
100
Which kind of vaccine is safer for fetuses in an immunologically naive pregnant dog ?
Recombinant canarypox CDV vaccine
101
What virus has been linked to chronic hepatitis and hepatocellular carcinoma in cats ?
Domestic Cat Hepadnavirus
102
What are the risk factors of Domestica Cat Hepadnavirus infection in cats ?
Retroviral infection and increased ALT
103
What are risk factors for Felis catus Gammaherpesvirus 1 viremia ?
Adult, male, entire, FIV+, FeLV+, Hemoplasmas+
104
What is the suspected etiologic agent of the staggering disease in cats ?
Rustrela Virus
105
True or false: Cats are more likely to exhibit disseminated forms of cryptococcosis than dogs.
False, dogs are
106
True or false: 1/3 of cats with histoplasmosis are kept strictly indoor
True
107
Why leptospirosis may lead to hypokalemia in non oliguric state?
Inhibition of Na/K ATPase
108
How does cats get infected by Sporothrix schenckii ?
Traumatic cutaneous inoculation (cat fight...)
109
What is the main lesion secondary to encephalitozoon cuniculi infection in cats ?
Uveitis
110
Against which fungi fluconazole is poorly effective ?
Histoplasma and Blastomyces
111
What are the mechanisms of action of amphotericin B and azoles ?
Amphotericin B binds to sterol of the fungal membranes and induces lysis
Azoles inhibit fungal membrane synthesis
112
Which azole is note recommended in cats and why?
Voriconazole due to neurologic and ocular toxicity
113
Which animals are predisposed to disseminated form of Nocardia infection?
Immunosuppressed and young animals and dogs>cats
