Information Governance and Legislation Flashcards

(45 cards)

1
Q

What is information governance?

A

Rules to keep data safe (as long as they are interpreted appropriately).

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2
Q

Why is information governance important?

A

To safeguard and use patient information appropriately, allowing patients to trust the NHS to hold their information. This encourages patients to disclose information truthfully, allowing clinical services to use this information for diagnosis and treatment.

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3
Q

What are information asset owners (IAO)?

A

Individuals responsible for ensuring that information risk is managed appropriately.

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4
Q

Describe the hierarchy of information risk management

A

An Information Asset Officer (IAO) supported by an Information Asset Administrator (IAA) reports to a Senior Information Risk Owner (SIRO) who reports to an Accounting Officer, normally the Chief Executive.

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5
Q

What is the difference between a SIRO and a Caldicott Guardian?

A

A SIRO oversees an organisation’s information risk policy and management, but a Caldicott Guardian protects the confidentiality of health and care information by ensuring its proper use.

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6
Q

What are the 6 key pieces of legislation surrounding information governance?

A

1) UK General Data Protection Regulation
2) Data Protection Act 2018
3) Computer Misuse Act 1990
4) Freedom of Information Act 2000
5) Health and Social Care Act 2012
6) Network and Information Systems Regulations 2018

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7
Q

What is the difference between the articles and the recitals in GDPR?

A

Articles are legally binding (mandatory) whereas recital are guidance on good practice and are open to interpretation.

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8
Q

What do the Data Protection Act 2018 and UK GDPR focus on?

A

Protecting personal information about specific individuals.

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9
Q

What does the Freedom of Information Act 2000 focus on?

A

General information about an organisation and specific information about what the organisation is doing.

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10
Q

According to GDPR, what is personal data?

A

Information relating to natural persons who can be identified or who are identifiable either directly from the information in question or who can be indirectly identified from that information in combination with other information.

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11
Q

According to GDPR, what is the data controller?

A

The entity who determines the purposes and means of processing data.

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12
Q

According to GDPR, what is the data processor?

A

The entity that is responsible for processing data on behalf of a controller.

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13
Q

According to GDPR article 5(1)(a), how must data be processed?

A

Lawfully, fairly, and in a transparent manner in relation to individuals.

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14
Q

According to GDPR article 5(1)(a), what must you do when collecting an individuals data?

A

Tell the subject:
- Why you are collecting their data
- What you are going to do with it
- Who you will share it with

All subjects must be treated equally and their data must not be used to disadvantage them.

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15
Q

According to GDPR article 6, what are the lawful bases for collecting and storing data?

A
  • Explicit consent (not as easy to withdraw in healthcare)
  • Performance of a contract
  • Compliance with legal obligation
  • Protecting the vital interest of the data subject or other natural person
  • Public interest or by official public authority
  • Legitimate interest, except where these conflict with the fundamental rights and freedoms of the data subject
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16
Q

According to GDPR article 7, which special categories of personal data have additional processing restrictions?

A
  • Racial or ethnic origin
  • Political opinions
  • Religious or philosophical beliefs
  • Trade union membership
  • Identification by genetic or biometric data
  • Health
  • Information about a person’s sex life
  • Sexual orientation
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17
Q

Under what circumstances can special category personal data be collected?

A
  • If explicit consent is given
  • Obligation or right of the data controller
  • Vital interests (if consent isn’t possible)
  • Activities of a political, philosophical, religious, or trade union body
  • Data already made public by the data subject
  • Court/legal cases
  • Health or social care (alongside other lawful bases)
  • Public interest
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18
Q

According to GDPR article 5(1)(b), data can be collected for _________, ______, and ________ purposes. This data ______ be further processed in a manner that is incompatible with those purposes.

A

Specified
Explicit
Legitimate
Cannot

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19
Q

What does GDPR article 5(1)(c) say about what data can be collected for processing?

A

It should be adequate, relevant and limited to what is necessary for the intended processing. Data should only be collected and kept if it is required for the intended purpose.

20
Q

True or false: Data collected must be accurate, and every reasonable step must be taken to ensure that any inaccurate data is erased.

21
Q

How long can collected data remain identifiable?

A

For no longer than is necessary for the purposes which the personal data is processed (unless the data is collected for archiving, research, or statistical purposes).

22
Q

How can organisations ensure that identifiable data isn’t kept for longer than necessary?

A

By using organisational data retention policies with appropriate disposal policies after this period.

23
Q

Why does personal data need to be protected by appropriate security measures?

A

To prevent unauthorised or unlawful access, accidental loss, destruction, or damage (a personal data breach).

24
Q

What are the 5 data protection responsibilities of an organisation?

A
  • Be able to demonstrate data protection is embedded throughout organisational processes
  • Complete a Data Protection Impact Assessment
  • Enhanced recording of activities
  • Appointent of Data Protection Officers (DPOs)
  • Adherence to codes of conduct, particularly ‘approved codes of conduct’
25
What is a Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA)?
An assessment of the impact of the envisaged processing operations on the protection of personal data. It is required for any new data processing likely to result in high risk to individuals. A Data Protection Officer (DPO) should be consulted when producing a DPIA.
26
What must a DPIA include?
- The nature, scope, and context of the data processing - An assessment of necessity and proportionality - Identification of risks, their likelihood, and potential severity - Identification of additional measures to mitigate
27
What is right of access?
A fundamental right under GDPR that gives individuals the right to request and receive a copy of their personal data held by an organisation. It can by requested by any means, is generally provided for free, and a response is required within a month.
28
What is data portability?
The right of an individual to receive their personal data in a structured, commonly used, and machine-readable format, and to have it transmitted to another controller. This allows individuals to move and reuse their data across different services.
29
What is the right of erasure?
The right of an individual to request that their data is removed from the data controllers records as long as the right conditions are met.
30
What is a personal data breach?
A breach of security that leads to the accidental or unlawful destruction, loss, alteration, unauthorised disclosure of, or access to personal data. If there isn't a risk to people's rights and freedoms then a data breach doesn't need to be reported to the ICO.
31
Can personal data be transferred outside of the UK according to GDPR?
No, unless: - There is explicit consent and information about the lack of adequate protections - The transfer is necessary for the performance of a contract between the subject and controller - The transfer is necessary for important reasons of public interest - The transfer is necessary for legal claims - The transfer is necessary to protect the vital interests of the data subject
32
What are the 7 Caldicott Principles?
1) Confidential information should only be used for a justified purpose 2) It should only be used when absolutely necessary 3) Use the minimum data required 4) Access should be on a strict need to know basis 5) Everyone must understand their responsibilities 6) Understand and comply with the law 7) Duty to share information can be as important as duty to protect patient confidentiality
33
How can NHS trusts abide by the Caldicott Principles?
By employing a Caldicott Guardian.
34
What are the 3 specific offenses of the Computer Misuse Act 1990?
1) Unauthorised access to computer material (hacking or cracking) 2) Unauthorised access with the intent to commit or facilitate the commission of a serious crime 3) Unauthorised modification of computer material directly(e.g. manual modifications) or indirectly (e.g. viruses)
35
What is the aim of the Freedom of Information Act 2000?
To drive transparency in the affairs of public authorities.
36
What does the Freedom of Information Act cover?
- Giving persons access to information held by public authorities - Publication schemes - Basic rights of access & fees - Complying with requests - Exemptions (absolute & qualified) - Offences
37
What are the 4 FOI basic rights of access?
- A requestor must be informed if the authority holds relevant information, and if there is no exemption, then the requestor must provide access to it - Requests for information must be in writing (can be by email) with your name, address, and a clear description of the information required - If a request is turned down then the requester can refer to the Information Commissioner who can serve an enforcement notice - The public authority can charge a fee (that is limited and related to costs)
38
How can public authorities comply with FOI?
- Make documents publicly available anyway - Respond to requests within 20 days (taking into account payment of fees) - Comply with the requester's preferred means of communication - Authority doesn't need to reply if the same request has been recently addressed and published - Authorities only need to answer specific information about the data actually recorded; they don't need to perform analysis of the data, generate new data, or give opinions on the data.
39
What is the difference between absolute and qualified exemptions to FOI?
Absolute: no value judgement is required, the request can be simply refused Qualified: the authority needs to balance public interest in disclosure with public interest in withholding
40
What are the absolute exemptions to FOI?
- Personal information - Information accessible by other means - If the authority is dealing with a security matter - Court records
41
What are the qualified exemptions to FOI?
- If information will be revealed at a reasonable future date - If in relation to an offence - Royal family communications - Trade secrets and commercial interests
42
If a requester disagrees with qualified exemptions, they can apply to the ________ ________.
Information Commissioner
43
Certain FOI restrictions are removed after __ _____.
30 years
44
What is considered an offence under FOI?
It is an offence to alter, deface, block, erase, destroy, or conceal any record with the intention of preventing disclosure. This applies to both the authority and employees.
45
What are the 7+1 principles of processing personal data?
GDPR 5(1) 1) Lawfulness, fairness, and transparency 2) Purpose limitation 3) Data minimisation 4) Accuracy 5) Storage limitation 6) Integrity and confidentiality 7) Protected by appropriate security GDPR 5(2) 1) Accountability