Intensive Revision Period Flashcards

(105 cards)

1
Q

What does the DEXA score relate to?

A

Compares the bone density compared to that of a healthy young adult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Key differences between psoriatic and rheumatoid arthritis

A

Psoriatic arthritis = results in DIP swelling, dactylitis

Both have a pattern of inflammatory arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Scheurmann’s Disease?

A

Usually seen in pubertal females

See abnormal ossification of the thoracic vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Sudeck’s Atrophy =

A

= complex regional pain syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Sulphasalazine can result in… (males)

A

= oligospermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If on long term steroids need…

A

Need bisphosphonates e.g. alendronic acid

Make sure that they are not calcium or vitamin D deficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the Weber classification relate to?

A

Used to assess ankle fractures

Relates to the syndesmosis (made of anterior and posterior inferior tibiofibular ligament)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sunburst appearance =

A

= osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Blood test changes associated with Lupus (4)

Flare VS Infection

A
Haemolytic anaemia 
Leucopaenia 
Lymphopaenia 
Thrombocytopaenia 
ESR = raised in a flare 
CRP = raised in an infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Difference in blood tests:

Primary vs Secondary Hyperparathryoidism

A

= calcium

Will be high in primary, low in secondary (appropriate response to hypocalcaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Difference in blood tests:

Osteomalacia VS Paget’s

A

= calcium
Both will have high ALP and may present with pain
Calcium will be normal in osteomalacia and raised in Paget’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Epidural abscess VS discitis

A

Discitis pain will be a prominent feature

In an abscess there may not be focal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Behcet’s Disease =

A

= a vasculitis, classically see oral and genital ulcers and uveitis
May also see a polyarteritis, arterial thrombosis or DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PCI - deciding on anti-platelets

A

= dual antiplatelets e.g. aspirin + another agent
Aspirin + Prasugrel/Ticagrelor = if not on anti-coagulants
Aspirin + Clopidogrel = on anti-coagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is osteochondritis dissecans?

A

= loss of blood supply to part of bone, part of bone breaks off and causes pain and locking symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long are people with shingles infectious for?

A

Until the vesicles have crusted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What formulation is the chicken pox vaccine in?

A

2 doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the pathophysiology of seborrhoeic dermatitis?

A

It is a reaction to malassezia (type of fungus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Features of hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia (4)

A

Epistaxis
Telangiectases
Visceral lesions
Family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Investigation of suspected contact dermatitis

A

Patch testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PUVA

  • Uses
  • Risk
A

Used in management of psoriasis

Associated with SSC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prescribing courses of topical steroids in psoriasis

A

Need to have a gap of 4 weeks between courses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dot haemorrhages diagnostic of

A

Diabetic retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which cells in the body rely on glycolysis?

A

Erythrocytes

They don’t have any mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What causes erysipelas?
Strep pyogenes
26
Association of thrombophelbitis migrans | What is it?
Pancreatic cancer | = Trosseau syndrome: phelbitis with a thrombus
27
Unusual presentation of hyperglycaemic hyperosmolar state
Focal neurology
28
Lateral medullary vs Weber's Syndrome
Lateral medullary = sensory Contralateral sensory loss body Ipsilateral sensory loss face Weber's = motor Contralateral hemiplegia Ipsilateral CN III palsy
29
CMV eye disease in HIV
Use ganciclovir | Wait to start HAART until they have recovered - may cause a deterioration
30
Lichen planus VS sclerosus
``` Planus = purple Sclerosus = white, itchy, vulva ```
31
Definition of orthostatic hypotension
Drop of 20 SBP after three minutes of standing
32
Fluconazole and warfarin
= p450 inhibitor | Greater availability of warfarin, INR increases
33
Previous fracture + discharging sinus
Consider osteomyelitis
34
1y hyperaldosteronism VS renal cell tumour
``` 1y = high aldosterone and low renin RCC = high aldosterone and high renin ```
35
ECG signs in digoxin toxicity (3)
T wave inversion ST depression Short QT
36
Widespread T wave inversion on ECG...
Think non-cardiac cause e.g. head injury
37
Indication for stopping a statin
Liver enzymes 3x the upper limit of normal | Below that, keep them on the statin and monitor
38
Add in management for hypertension but potassium is high
Avoid spirinolactone | Use alpha or beta blocker instead
39
What is cortical blindess?
= blindness without an ophthalmological cause | e.g. occipital lesion
40
What is reverse cholesterol transport?
Transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver Done by HDL - need HDL to process cholesterol
41
Ascending cholangitis VS acute cholecystitis
``` Cholecystitis = normal bilirubin Cholangitis = abnormal bilirubin, may be jaundiced ```
42
Management of acute sinusitis
Pain management Symptoms for 2 weeks = intranasal steroid Symptoms for 4 weeks or severe = phenoxymethylpenicillin
43
Causes of gradual visual loss (4)
ARMD Cataract Diabetic retinopathy Open angle glaucoma
44
Risks of Plasma Exchange (2)
Bleeding (lose clotting factors) | Hypocalcaemia
45
What is a Jacksonian Seizure?
= type of simple partial seizure | Usually starts in the mouth and the spreads to that side of the body
46
Management of orbital fracture
Delay surgical repair | Allows oedema and diplopia to improve
47
Investigation of recurrent UTIs
1. Urinary USS | 2. Flexible cystoscopy
48
Management of alcoholic hepatitis
Steroids
49
Infection in kids associated with lymphocytosis
Whooping cough
50
Proximal myopathy | - Associated gait
Waddling gait = can be associated with osteomalacia
51
Investigation of acute limb ischaemia
Doppler of pulses | Then want to determine whether is a thrombus or embolus
52
Investigation of Oesophageal Rupture
CT contrast
53
Investigation of suspected cervical spine #
CT neck
54
Proctitis + Lymphadenopathy
Lymphogranuloma venerum
55
Management of acute gout in CKD 4
Use steroids | NSAIDs contra-indicated
56
Confirmation of rotator cuff tendinopathy
Don't need to investigate, clinical diagnosis | Manage using physiotherapy
57
Management of 'terminal restlessness'
Midazolam
58
Where do you see the first changes in Alzheimer's Disease?
Temporal lobe
59
Epidural VS Spinal Anaesthesia as Post-Operative Pain Management
Epidural can be topped up/titrated, spinal cannot be
60
Presentation of delirium tremens (4)
Confusion Visual hallucinations Tachycardia Pyrexia
61
How long do you continue anti-coagulation in DVT?
``` Provoked = 3 months Unprovoked = 6 months ```
62
Anti-smooth muscle Ab associated with
Autoimmune hepatitis
63
Acute limb ischaemia + embolus suspected
= embolectomy
64
Management of Peripheral Arterial Disease (2)
Atorvostatin | Clopidogrel
65
H. pylori erradication
PPI + Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin OR Metronidazole
66
Surgical management of anal fissure | Why?
Sphincterotomy | = relaxes the muscle and gives the fissure time to heal
67
Aortic abnormality associated with Marfan's Syndrom
Dilated aortic root
68
An oliguric crisis is an example of what?
Acute dystonic reaction
69
Acute Dystonia Tardive Dyskinesia Akathisia
Acute Dystonia = sustained contraction: use procyclidine Tardive Dyskinesia = involuntary movements: use tetrabenazine Akathisia = severe restlessness: switch anti-psychotic or consider a beta-blocker
70
What is hemiballismus?
A type of chorea = involves the arms
71
Management of: - Achalasia - Pyloric stenosis
Achalasia = Heller myotomy | Pyloric stenosis = Ramstedt pyloromyotomy
72
P mitrale is what?
Suggests left atrial hypertrophy, commonly in response to mitral stenosis
73
Presentation of biliary atresia (4) | - Management
``` Prolonged neonatal jaundice Hepatosplenomegaly Abnormal growth Cardiac murmurs Management = surgical intervention ```
74
SNRIs e.g. venlafaxine | Monitoring requirement
Need to check blood pressure
75
Anal reflex =
S4, 5
76
Sudden onset headache Pituitary tumour Visual field defect Hypotension
Pituitary apoplexy | = haemorrhage or infarction of the pituitary
77
How does CN VII cause hyperacusis?
Get paralysis of the stapedius muscle
78
Management of HIV +VE and suspected LATENT TB
Isoniazid for 9 months
79
ST elevation classification =
Chest leads = 2mm | Limb leads = 1mm
80
PR Interval =
Start of the P wave to the start of the QRS complex
81
Cause of haemolytic anaemia + pneumonia + maculopapular rash =
= mycoplasma
82
Sertoli cell - Responds to - Produces
``` Responds = FSH Produces = sperm ```
83
Leydig cell - Responds to - Produces
``` Responds = LH Produces = testosterone ```
84
Difference between moderate and severe asthma
RR < or > 25 | HR < or >110bpm
85
Most common cause of infective exacerbation of COPD
H. influenzae
86
Initial investigation of Cushing's
24 urinary free cortisol
87
NSTEMI + Unstable
Immediate PCI
88
Investigation | Unprovoked DVT + No symptoms
Still consider CT abdomen and pelvis
89
Ferritin high + screening for haemochromatosis
Need a transferrin | Will be elevated
90
Management of superficial thrombophlebitis + no DVT
NSAIDs for pain management
91
1st line management of SVC due to tumour
Dexamethasone to reduce swelling
92
Most common cause of leg cellulitis
Strep pyogenes
93
Bronchitis - Presentation? - How do you decide about antibiotics?
Presentation = cough, rhinorrhoea, wheeze, sore throat Cough may or may not be productive Use the CRP to decide whether to prescribe antibiotics - Can offer either delayed prescription or immediate depending on level
94
What is used to reverse NOACs?
Andexanet alfa
95
What is used to reverse heparin?
Protamine
96
Ejection systolic murmur LOUDER on inspiration
= pulmonary stenosis | Remember during inspiration the venous return increases
97
Which bisphosphonate is only available IV?
Zoledronate
98
What does cricoid pressure do when intubating?
Compresses and seals off the oesophagus, prevents the passage of gastric contents into the airway
99
Painful eye and loss of visual acuity =
= ophthalmology assessment
100
Pressure of CSF in bacterial meningitis
= high pressure
101
Diffuse VS Limited Systemic Sclerosis
``` Diffuse = anti-Scl-70 antibodies, includes the chest and upper arms Limited = anti-centromere, doesn't involve the chest and upper arms ```
102
Difference between CML and CLL
CML is more likely to be symptomatic, CLL is likely to be an asymptomatic finding
103
Test that can be helpful in determining whether early labour
fFN | = foetal fibronectin
104
Management of mycoplasma pneumonia
Erythromycin
105
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca =
Sjogrens