Introduction to Anatomy Flashcards
(150 cards)
1
Q
Compare and contract the terms ‘Anatomy’ and ‘Physiology’.
A
Anatomy: observation of the human body
Physiology: focuses on function
2
Q
Identify the 4 notable figures in the history of anatomy.
A
- Herophillis
- Galen
- Da Vinci
- Henry Gray’s anatomy
3
Q
Identify the 5 structural organizations of the body
A
- Molecular (chemical) level:
- Cellular level:
- Tissue level
- Organ level
- Organ system level
4
Q
Identify the 4 types of tissues
A
- Muscle
- Nerve
- Epithelium
- Connective
5
Q
Identify the 11 organ systems
A
- Integumentary
- Skeletal
- Muscle
- Endocrine
- Cardiovascular
- Respiratory
- Reproductive
- Digestive
- Lymphatic
- Urinary
- Nervous
6
Q
Compare and contrast macroscopic and microscopic anatomy. What is the common name for macroscopic? What are the 2 study approaches for microscopic anatomy?
A
- Macroscopic: aka gross anatomy. Larger, visible structures
- Microscopic: require magnification. Histology (tissue) approach and cytology (cell) approach
7
Q
Identify the 6 approaches to gross anatomy. Briefly explain each approach.
A
- Comparative: similarities/differences
- Developmental: changes across the lifespan
- Embryology: fetal development
- Systemic: structures in a specific system
- Regional: structures within a single region
- Surface: anatomical markings related to skin
8
Q
What are the 3 specialized branches of anatomy?
A
- Pathologica/clinical
- Surgical
- Radiographic
9
Q
Identify and describe the 4 anatomical planes?
A
- Coronal (frontal): Divide body into front & back
- Transverse (horizontal): Divide body into upper & lower
- Midsaggital (media): Divide body into left & right
- Oblique: Slant/angle; used for convenience
10
Q
Identify the two anatomic regions. What structures are included in each region?
A
- Axial: head, neck, and trunk (vertical axis)
- Appendicular: upper and lower limbs
11
Q
The two main anatomic cavities are the dorsal (posterior) and the ventral (anterior), what are the 2 functions of cavities? What are the 2 dorsal cavities and the 3 ventral cavities?
A
Functions: protect organs, allow size/shape changes
Dorsal: Cranial and spinal cavities
Ventral: Thoracic, abdominal, pelvic cavities.
12
Q
Identify and describe the 4 regions of the mediastinum. Remembering the mediastinum is not a cavity.
A
Superior: above the heart
Inferior: below heart
Anterior: in front of the heart
Posterior: Behind the heart
13
Q
Identify the name of cavity membranes. What are the 3 ones found in the body?
A
Serous membrane (serosa)
1. Pleura: surround lungs
2. Pericardium: surround heart
3. Peritoneum: surround digestive organs
14
Q
Differentiate between the inner and outer serous membranes of a cavity.
A
Visceral (inner): Sits against organs
Parietal (outer): Not against organs
Cavity: space in between visceral and parietal
15
Q
What is contained in the right upper quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?
A
Lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portion of stomach, small/large intestine
16
Q
What is contained in the right lower quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?
A
cecum, appendix, small intestine portions, reproductive organs (right ovary/spermatic cord), right urether
17
Q
What is contained in the left upper quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?
A
lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portion of large intestine
18
Q
What is contained in the left lower quadrant of the abdominopelvic cavity?
A
Most small intestine, some large intestine, left urether, reproductive organs (left ovary/spermatic cord)
19
Q
What are the 4 main functions of bones?
A
- Support and protection
- Movement
- Hemopoiesis
- Mineral storage and energy reserve
20
Q
What are the two ways bones are classified?
A
- Location (axial vs. appendicular)
- Shape (4 classes)
21
Q
What are the classes of bones? Provide examples
A
- Flatbones: cranial bones, sternum, ribs, (sutural bones)
- Short bones: wrist and ankle bones (sesamoid bones)
- Long bones: humerus, radius, femur)
- Irregular bones: vertebrae, ossa coxae
22
Q
Identify and explain the 6 components of long bones.
A
- Diaphysis: shaft
- Metaphysis: neck
- Epiphysis (distal and proximal)
- Articular cartilage (covers epiphysis @ joint surface)
- Endosteum: Covers internal bone surface
- Periosteum: covers outer bone surface
23
Q
Identify and explain the 4 cells of bone connective tissues.
A
- Osteoprogenitor: stem cells in endosperm/periosteum
- Osteoblasts: formed from ^; add to bone matrix
- Osteocytes: differentiate from osteoblasts, maintain bone matrix
- Osteoclasts: phagocytic, remove bone matrix (HCl dissolves Ca & P)
24
Q
What are the two types of bone marrow? Distinguish between the two.
A
- Red bone marrow: produce new blood cells
- Yellow bone marrow: potential energy storage (lipids)
25
Name the 4 anatomical terms for articulating surfaces.
1. Condyle: large, rounded
2. Facet: small, shallow
3. Head: rounded epiphysis
4. Trochlea: groove, pulley-like
26
Name the 3 anatomical terms for depressions.
1. Alveolus: deep pit/socket
2. Fossa: shallow depression
3. Sulcus: narrow groove
27
Name the 9 anatomical terms for projections for tendon/ligament attachment
1. Crest: ridgelike
2. Epicondyle: adjacent to condyle
3. Line: low ridge
4. Process: bony prominence
5. Ramus: angular extension
6. Spine: slender and pointed
7. Trochanter: massive, rough projection
8. Tubercle: Small, rounded projection
28
Name the 4 anatomical terms for openings/spaces.
1. Canal: passageway
2. Fissue: narrow opening
3. Foramen: rounded passageway
4. Sinus: cavity/hollow space
29
Name the bones of the skull (8 cranial and 14 facial)
1. Frontal, temporal, occipital, parietal, sphenoid, ethmoid
2. zygomatic, maxilla, mandible, vomer, palatine, lacrimal bones, inferior nasal concha, nasal bones
30
How many C, T, and L vertebrae are there? How many are fused to from the sacrum and coccyx? How many rips are there?
C: 7
T: 12
L: 5
Coccyx: 4
Sacrum: 5
Ribs: 24 (2x14)
31
Name the 4 associated bones of the skull.
1. Hyoid
2. Incus
3. Stapes
4. Malleus
32
What are the 3 subdivided regions of the axial skeleton?
1. Skull & associated bones
2. Vertebral column
3. Thoracic cage
33
What are the 3 cranial fossa/depression?
1. Anterior cranial fossa
2. Middle cranial fossa
3. Posterior cranial fossa
34
There are 4 major fontanels of the infant skull, what are they? When do these fontanels close?
1. Anterior fontanel (bregma)
2. Posterior fontanel (lambda)
3. Sphenoidal fontanel x 2
4. Mastoid fontanel x2
Fontanels close around 15 months
35
What is the functional anatomy of fontanels?
Allow flexibility during the birthing process, exposed membranous areas (dura mater)
36
Differentiate between primary and secondary spinal curves.
1. Primary: thoracic and sacral curves during fetal development (concave)
2. Secondary: cervical and lumbar curve after birth (convex)
37
Name and explain the 3 abnormal curvatures of the spinal column.
1. Kyphosis: affects primary curvature (humpback - thoracic region)
2. Lordosis: affects secondary curvature (sway back)
3. Scoliosis: crooked or curved back (vertebrae rotate)
38
Name and describe the 3 injuries of the vertebral column.
1. Spondylosis: osteoarthritis of spinal joint
2. Spondylolysis: defect or fracture of the pars interarticularis
3. Spondylolisthesis: displacement of vertebrae as a result of spondylolysis
39
Which vertebrae lack a body and spinous process? What structures are in their place?
C1: Atlas; has an anterior and posterior arch and tubercle
40
What is unique about the C2: Axis vertebrae?
It has an odontoid process (dens)
41
What are the characteristics of a cervical vertebrae? What are the exceptions to these characteristics?
1. Smallest vertebrae
2. Has a bifid spinous process
3. Large vertebral foramen
C1 & C7 (vertebra prominens) are not bifid
42
What are the characteristics of a thoracic vertebrae?
- Long slender spinous processes that point down
- Costal demi facets - transverse process and body
43
What are the characteristics of the lumbar vertebrae?
- No specialized features
- Largest vertebrae
- Short spinous process
44
What are the 2 main functions of the sacrum?
1. Support the vertebral column
2. Site of attachment between axial and lower appendicular skeleton
45
What are the 4 components of the thoracic cage?
1. Sternum
2. Ribs
3. Costal cartilages
4. 12 thoracic vertebrae/intervetebral discs
46
What are the 2 functions of the thoracic cage?
1. Protection for contents of the thoracic cavity
2. Support and attachment for pelvic girdle and respiratory muscles
47
There are 12 sets of ribs. Differentiate and describe each rib based on the 5 rib classifications.
True ribs: 1-7; Connect to sternum via costal cartilages
False ribs: 8-10; Don't directly attach to sternum; cartilage fuse with 7th rib
Floating ribs: 11-12; single connect to vertebral column; no cartilage
Typical ribs: 2-9: 2 demi-facets on rib head and articulates with vertebrae
Atypical ribs: 1, 10-12; no facet on tubercle, doesn't articulate on transverse process
48
What ligament are the radius and ulna connected by?
Joined by an interosseous membrane (ligament)
49
Number the metacarpals
1st: thumb
5th: pinky
50
There are 8 carpals that are considered short bones. What type of short bone are they?
Sesamoid bone
51
Rank the carpals (top 3), in terms of how likely they are to fracture.
1. Scaphoid
2. Hamate
3. Triquetrum
52
What 3 things does the os coxae consist of? What is the general term for both the left and right os coxae?
1. Ilium
2. Ishium
3. Pubis
Pelvic girdle
53
What 3 things does the pelvis consist of?
1. Sacrum
2. Coccyx
3. Ossa coxae
54
What is the ischial tuberosity an attachment point?
Attachment point for the hamstrings
55
Name and describe the 3 features of the pelvis
1. Pelvic brim: continuous bony ridge
2. Pelvic inlet: enclosed by pelvic brim
3. Pelvic outlet: bounded by coccyx, ischial tuberosity, inferior border of pubic symphysis
56
Name and describe the 2 pelvic cavity subdivisions.
1. Greater (false) pelvis: left-right iliac crest to pelvic brim; contains lower digestive organs
2. Lesser (true) pelvis: pelvic brim to pelvic outlet; contains reproductive organs, bladder, rectum
57
What are some main differences between the sacrum and pelvis of males and females?
Female pelvis is wider and larger, shorter and wider sacrum, and broader subpubic angle
58
What type of bone is the patella?
Short, sesamoid bone.
59
What are the 4 types of tissues? What germ layer does each derive from?
1. Epithelia; all 3
2. Connective; mesoderm
3. Muscle; mesoderm
4. Nervous; ectoderm
60
What is the general function of epithelia?
Covers surfaces; lines organs & body cavities, produce glandular secretions
61
What is the general function of connective tissue?
Protects, binds, and supports organs, stores energy
62
Describe what develops from the 3 primary germ layers.
Ecto: epidermis, nervous, endocrine, nasal passage
Meso: dermis, skeletal, muscular, endocrine, cardio, lymphoid, urinary, reproductive
Endo: endocrine, respiratory, digestive, urinary, gametes
63
Define the following terms: Blastocyst, yolk sac, hypoblast, and epiblast.
Blastocyst: cells that implant on the wall of the uterus
Yolk sac: contains fat, disappears ~2mo.
Hypoblast: forms endoderm
Epiblast: sits on hypoblast
64
What are the 3 cellular junctions?
1. Tight junctions
2. Anchoring junctions
3. Gap junctions
65
Describe tight junctions.
Close to the apical surface and allows for teh regulation of the passage of material
66
What are the 3 types of anchoring junctions
1. adhering junctions
2. Desmosome (cell to cell)
3. Hemidesmosome (cell to basal lamina)
67
Describe avascularity.
W/o blood; nutrients received through slow diffusion between dermis and blood vessel.
68
Describe innervation.
When a nerve interacts with a cell
69
Name and describe the 5 fibres of the cell skeleton.
1. Microfilaments; small, common in muscle/epithelia
2. Intermediate filament: myosin/keratin, in muscle cells
3. Microvilli: hair-like projections
4. Cillia: long projections
5. Microtubules: largest cytoskeleton fibres
70
What are the 3 shapes that are used to classify epithelia?
1. Squamous
2. Cubodial
3. Columnar
71
What are the two classifications of epithelia based on layers?
1. Simple
2. Stratified
72
What are the 2 'other' classifications of epithelial cells?
1. Pseudostratified: false appearance of layered cells
2. Translational: multiple layers
73
In squamous epithelia, what are the functions of both simple and stratified cells?
Simple: reduce friction, control permeability, perform secretions. E.g. linings
Stratified: protect against abrasive pathogens/chemical attack
74
In cuboidal epithelia, what are the functions of both simple and stratified cells?
Simple: secretion, production, absorption of nutrients ex. glands
Stratified: protection and secretion ex. sweat gland lining
75
In columnar epithelia, what are the functions of both simple and stratified cells?
Simple: Absorption and secretion; lines intestine
Stratified: protection and secretion ex. salivary gland ducts
76
Differentiate between exocrine and endocrine glands. What are the two arrangement classifications?
Exocrine: connect to the outside through an epithelial duct.
Arrange. classifications:
1. Simple glands
2. Compound glands
77
What is ground substance?
Gelatinous, rubbery consistency composed of sugars and proteins
78
What are the 5 kinds of proteins? Which is the most abundant in the body (provide %)?
1. Collagen *most abundant (25%)
2. Elastic fibres
3. Reticular fibres
4. Fixed cells
5. Wandering cells
79
What do the reticular fibers form, and where?
Form a branching network in the stroma of organs
80
Name and describe the 6 fixed (resident) cells.
1. Fibroblasts: produce CT fibres; young
2. Fibrocytes: maintain CT fibres/matrix; mature
3. Fixed macrophages: WBC
4. Adipocytes: stored lipid reserve (fat cells)
5. Mesenchymal cells: CT stem cells that differentiate
6. Melanocytes: synthesize melanin
81
The categories of connective tissue proper is based upon relative proportions of cells, fibers, and ground matrix. What are the 3 types of loose CT and 3 dense CT?
Loose:
1. Areolar tissue
2. Adipose tissue
3. Reticular tissue
Dense
1. dense regular CT
2. dense irregular CT
3. Elastic CT
82
Name and describe the 4 types of wandering cells.
1. Free macrophages: WBC mobile
2. Mast cells: stimulate local inflammation
3. Lymphocytes: WBC
4. Neutrophils and eosinophils: WBC
83
Describe the following terms: Ground substance, perichondrium, proteins, lacuna; in relation to cartilage
Ground substance: gel-like matrix, made of complex polysaccharides
Perichondrium: Chondrocyte: prevents the formation of blood vessels
Proteins: collagen and elastic fibers
Lacuna: little space where chondrocytes reside
84
What are the 3 types of cartilage? Briefly describe each
1. Hyaline: most common, loosely packed collagen, surrounded by perichondrium
2. Fibrous: little ground substance, lack perichondrium
3. Elastic: resilient and flexible, surrounded by perichondrium
85
What are the 4 types of body membranes?
1. Mucous
2. Serous
3. Cutaneous
4. Synovial
86
What are the 3 types of muscle tissues?
1. Skeletal muscle
2. Cardiac muscle
3. Smooth muscle
87
What are the two types of neural tissue cells?
1. Neurons: specialized to conduct electricity
2. Neuroglia: supporting framework, smaller and more abundant
88
Fascia is the layer of connective tissue that can be seen during gross dissection. What are the 3 types of fascia?
1. Superficial fascia
2. Deep fascia
3. Subserous fascia
89
What is superficial fascia?
The layer of loose CT between the skin and underlying organs/ Provides padding/movement between skin and underlying structures.
90
What is deep fascia?
Dense CT that forms a strong fibrous internal network. Passes between muscles forming compartments
91
What is subserous fascia?
Areolar tissue between the serous membrane and deep fascia
92
What are the 2 layers of the cutaneous membrane?
1. Epidermis
2. Dermis
93
There are 4-5 layers in the epidermis. What is unique about the superficial layer? How long does it take cells to go from deep to superficial?
Superficial layer: multiple dead cells that lack nuclei and organelles and contain lots of keratin. 15-30 days for cells to move from deep to superficial
94
Describe the dermis. Include both the superficial and deep layers.
Superficial: made of areolar connective tissue
Deep: made of dense irregular CT (mostly collagen)
95
What is meant by the term aponeurosis?
A broad, flat tendon. Attaches angle of ribs to
96
What are the 2 general classifications of joints? Briefly explain each.
1. Structural: based on the type of CT
2. Functional: based on ROM of joint
97
What are the 3 structural classifications of joints? Briefly describe each.
1. Fibrous: Bones held together by dense regular CT
2. Cartilaginous: Bones held together by cartilage
3. Synovial: Fluid-filled joint cavity separating cartilage-covered bone surfaces
98
What are the 3 functional classifications of joints? Briefly explain each.
1. Synarthrosis: immovable joint
2. Ampiarthrosis: slightly moveable joint
3. Diarthrosis: freely moveable
99
Relate the 3 structural classifications with the 3 functional classifications
1. Fibrous; synarthrosis
2. Cartilagineous; amphiarthroses
3. Synovial; diarthrosis
100
What are the 3 synarthroses joints? (
1. Suture: joints in skull (fibrous)
2. Synostosis: fusion of bones in any type of joints (fibrous)
3. Synchondrosis: Connecting medium, hyaline cartilage (cartiligenous)
101
What are the 3 amphiarthroses joints?
1. Gomphosis: teeth and bone joint
2. Syndesmosis: connected by interosseous membrane (radio/ulnar; tib/fib)
3. Symphysis: connected by fibrocartilage pad (pubic bone and vertebrae)
102
What percents of water, albumen, and salts are in diarthroses joints?
95% water, 3.5% albumen, 1% salts
103
What are the 4 components of Diarthroses joints? Briefly explain the function of each
1. Articular cartilage: assists in 'sliding'
2. Joint capsule: boundary to joint; resists ROM
3. Joint cavity
4. Synovial membrane: Lubricates, protects, and distribute nutrients
104
What are the 5 accessory components of diarthroses joints?
1. Cartilage
2. Fat pads
3. Ligaments
4. Tendons
5. Bursae
105
What is the function of cartilage in diarthroses joints?
Cushions the joint and provides stability with a fibrocartilage pad
106
What is the function of fat pads in diarthroses joints?
Protect articular surfaces (superficial and deep)
107
What is the function of ligaments in diarthroses joints?
Reinforces selected portions both intrinsic and extrinsic to the joint
108
What is the function of tendons in diarthroses joints?
Attach to muscles around joint and are required for movement
109
What is the function of bursae in diarthroses joints?
Synovial fluid pocket that limits frictions and cushions the areas where tendons or ligaments rub
110
What are 4 factors that affect ROM or stability of the joint?
1. Structure of bones involved
2. Strength of joint capsule and ligaments
3. Surrounding musculature and tendons
4. Menisci (stability not ROM)
111
What are the two common injuries associated with diarthroses joints? Briefly describe each
1. Dislocation: separation or luxation
2. Subluxation: partial separation
112
What 4 things are the types of diarthrosis joints based on?
1. Shape of the articulating surface
2. Type of movement they permit
3. Type of dynamic movement (linear, angular, rotation)
4. Planes of motion (uni, bi, multiaxial)
113
What are the 6 types of diarthrosis joints?
1. Gliding/plane or arthrodia
2. Hinge or ginglymus
3. Pivot or trochoid
4. Condyloid or ellipsoid
5. Saddle or reciprocal reception
6. Ball and socket or enarthrosis
114
What are the two movement terminologies for describing movement?
1. Refers to a bone or region
2. Refers to a joint
115
There are two types of movements of diarthrosis joints: angular and rotational movements. What are the 4 angular movements? Identify the planes of motion for each.
1. Abduction/adduction: frontal plane
2. Flexion/extension: Saggital plane
3. Lateral flexion: head moving along frontal plane
4. Circumduction: cone shape; both abductor/adductor and flexion/extension
116
There are two types of movements of diarthrosis joints: angular and rotational movements. What are the 2 rotational movements? What 2 types of diarthrosis joints are required for rotation?
1. Medial/lateral rotation
2. Supination/pronation
Joints: pivot or diarthrosis
117
Describe medial and lateral rotation in terms of the scapula.
Lateral rotation: inferior angle away from the midline
Medial rotation: inferior angle toward midline
118
What are the 4 special movements at diarthrosis joints?
1. Inversion/eversion
2. Dorsiflexion/plantar flexion
3. Protraction/retraction
4. Depression/Elevation
119
What are the 3 thumb movements?
1. Abduction/adduction
2. Extension/flexion
3. Opposition/reposition
120
What are the 4 suture of the skull called? What bones do each
1. Coronal suture
2. Lambboid suture
3. Saggital suture
4. Squamous suture
121
What is the pterion?
The junction between the frontal, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal bones. Middle mingeal artery passes under this weakspot
122
What type of joint in the temporomandibular (jaw) joint?
Hinge and gliding joint (ginglymo-plane)
123
What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint? What movements does this joint perform? What are the 2 supporting ligaments of this joint?
Synovial joint; flexion/extension and slight lateral motion; anterior & posterior atlantooccipital ligament
124
What type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint? What 2 movements does this joint perform? What are the 4 supporting ligaments of this joint?
Diarthroses; Pivot and plane; anterior & posterior atlantoaxial lig., zygopophysial lig., and transverse lig.
125
What are the two types of joints in the vertebral column? Where are each located?
1. Diarthrosis plane; between facet joints
2. Amphiarthrosis symphysis; between vertebral bodies
126
What are the 5 intervertebral ligaments and where do they connect?
1. Anterior longitudinal lig.; connects bodies anteriorly
2. Posterior longitudinal lig.; connects bodies posteriorly
3. Ligamentum flavum; connects laminae
4. Interspinous lig.; connects spinous processes
5. Supraspinous lig.; connects tips of C7-sacrum
127
What are the 2 types of joints between the ribs and vertebrae? What type of joints are they? Where do they connect?
Diarthrosis joints
1. Costovertebral: rib head to vertebrae body
2. Costotranverse: rib tubercle w/ transverse process
128
What are the 3 types of joints between the cartilages of the ribs and the sternum? What type of joint is each?
1. Costochondral joints: synarthrosis
2. Interchondral joints: diarthrosis
3. Chondrosternal: synarthrosis (rib 1); diarthrosis (rib 2-7)
129
What type of joint is the sterno-calvicular joint? What are the 3 ligaments associated with this joint?
Diarthrosis saddle
1/2. Joint capsule (ante/post sternoclavicular lig.)
3. Interclavicular lig.
130
What are the 2 ligs. of the acromioclavicular (AC) joint? What type of joint is the AC joint?
1. Trapezoid lig.
2. Conoid lig.
Diarthrosis plane joint
131
What type of joint is the glenohumeral (GH) joint? What are the 3 bursa of this joint?
Diarthrosis ball-and-socket
1. Subacromial bursa
2. Subdeltoif bursa
3. Subcoracoid bursa
132
What structure provides stability to the shoulder joint?
The glenoid labrum fibrocartilage pad
133
There are two sub-joints in the elbow joint. What type of joint are they?
Diarthrosis hinge
1. Humeoulnar
2. Humeoradial
134
What are the 3 sub-joints of the radio-ulnar joint? What type of joint is each?
1. Superior radio-ulnar joint (diarthrosis pivot)
2. Middle radio-ulnar joint (amphiarthrosis syndesmosis)
3. Inferior radio-ulnar joint
135
Describe the radiocarpal joint. What type of joint is it?
Fibrocartilage pad between the radius and the proximal row of the carpal bones. Diarthrosis condyloid joint.
136
There are 5 diarthrosis joints of the hand; name each and indicate the type of diarthrosis joint.
1. Carpometacarpal joint fo thumb (saddle)
2. Intercarpal (plane)
3. Metacarpophalangeal joints (condyloid)
4. Carpometacarpal joints (plane)
5. Interphalangeal joints (hinge)
137
What are the 2 ligaments of the hand?
Superficial (back) transverse metacarpal lig.
Deep (front) transverse metacarpal lig.
138
What type of joint is the sacroiliac joint currently classified as?
Diarthrodial synovial plane joint
139
What type of joint is the pubis symphysis? What 3 joints are associated with this joint?
Amphiarthrosis symphysis, cartilaginous.
1/2. Superior/inferior pubic ligaments
3. Inguinal ligament
140
What type of joint is the coxal joint?
Diarthrosis ball and socket joint; synovial
141
Define the following terms: coxa vara, coxa valga, genu valga, and genu vara
Coxa vara: femur angle in (<120)
Coxa valga: femur angle out (>140)
Genu valga: tin/fib angle out
Genu vara: tib/fib angle in
142
What are the 3 types of torsion angles of the femur? What direction do the feet point in each case?
1. Retroversion - feet point out
2. Normal ante version - feet neutral
3. Excessive anteversion - pigeon-toed
143
What type of acetabular depth is ideal for either runners or weight lifters?
Runners: deep hip socket
Weight lifter: shallow socket
144
What type of joint is the knee joint? What are the 2 points of contact in this joint?
Complex hinge joint
1. Patella and femur
2. Femur and tibia
145
Where does the patellar retinacula lig. connect?
The medial and lateral sides of the patella to the tibia
146
What movements do the ACL and PCL's prevent?
ACL: prevents hyperextension
PCL: prevent hyperflexion
147
There are 3 articulations between the tibia and fibula, what are the names and types of each?
1. Superior articulation; diarthrosis plane
2. Middle articulation; amphiarthrosis syndesmosis
3. Inferior articulation; amphiarthrosis, syndesmosis
148
What type of joint is the ankle joint? What 2 articulations are in the ankle joint? What is the main ligament in this joint?
Diarthrosis hinge, synovial
1. Tibiotalar articulation
2. Fibulotalar articulation
Medial (deltoid) lig.
149
What are the 2 joints of the foot that inversion/eversion are a result of?
1. Subtalar (talocalcaneal joint)
2. Transverse tarsal joint (medio-tarsal joint)
150
What are the 3 ligaments of the intertarsal joints? Which bones do these each connect?
1. Long plantar ligament - calcaneus and cuboid
2. Short plantar ligament - calcaneus and cuboid
3. Spring ligament - calcaneus and navicular
