Introduction to Microbiology Flashcards
(199 cards)
1
Q
First person to describe microorganisms
A
Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek
2
Q
Father of Microbiology
A
Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek
3
Q
Designed the nomenclature system for all organisms
A
Caroleus Linnaeus
4
Q
Father of Modern Microbiology
A
Louis Pasteur
5
Q
Manner of reproduction for Prokaryotes
A
Binary Fission
6
Q
Enumerate all the Bacterial Morphology
A
Cocci, Bacilli, Spirilla, Pleomorphic
7
Q
Bacilli with tapered ends are known as?
A
Fusiform
Example: Corynebacterium
8
Q
2 most common example of a pleomorphic bacteria
A
Mycoplasma & Ureaplasma
9
Q
Enumerate the composition of the following parts of the bacteria:
Cell Wall:
Cell Membrane:
Capsule:
Pili:
Flagella:
A
Enumerate the composition of the following parts of the bacteria:
Cell Wall: PEPTIDOGLYCAN
Cell Membrane: PHOSPHOLIPID BILAYER
Capsule: POLYSACCHARIDE OR POLYPEPTIDE
Pili: PILIN
Flagella: FLAGELLIN
10
Q
Gram staining was developed by?
A
Hans Christian Gram
11
Q
What are the reagents used in gram staining? Enumerate the fxn of each.
A
Crystal Violet: Primary Stain
Gram’s Iodine: Mordant
95% Alcohol or Acetone: Decolorizer
Safranin red: Secondary Stain
12
Q
What color do red blood cell present with when stained with Gram stain
A
Purple
Crystal Violet is a positively charges stain attracted to negative charged particles (Such as the teichoic acid of Gram + organisms). RBC have a negatively charged outer membrane (Zeta potential)
13
Q
Unique bacteria with sterols on their membrane instead of Phospholipid bilayer
A
Mycoplasma & Ureaplasma
14
Q
Unique only to the cell wall of gram positive organisms
A
Teichoic Acid
15
Q
Unique to the cell wall of gram negative organisms
A
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
16
Q
Unique to the cell wall of Mycobacterium
A
Mycolic Acid
Mycolic acid allows Mycobacterium to present as Acid Fast in acid fast staining
17
Q
This part of the bacterial cell is also known as the K or Vi Antigen
A
Capsule
18
Q
A well defined capsule is known as?
A
Glycocalyx
19
Q
This is known as the “not-well defined capsule”
A
Slime Layer
20
Q
All encapsulated microorganisms is made up of polysaccharide gel except for?
A
Bacillus anthracis = Poly-D-Glutamic Acid
21
Q
This part of the bacterial cell is known as the H antigen
A
Flagella
22
Q
Functions for adherence of bacteria to host cell
A
Ordinary Pili
23
Q
Functions for bacterial conjugation
A
Sex Pili
24
Q
This comprises the outermost membrane of gram negative bacteria
A
Lipopolysaccharide
25
LPS contain 3 regions:
Antigenic O
Core polysaccharide
Lipid A
26
Also known as the murein layer
Cell wall
27
Alternating sugar components of the cell wall
N-acetylmuramic & N-acetylglucosamine
28
Used for cell wall stain
Dyar Stain
29
Which among the gram negative & gram positive bacteria has a thicker peptidoglycan layer?
Gram positive
30
The periplasmic space is unique only to (gram pos or gram neg)?
Gram negative
31
This pili functions for the production of infection/pathogenicity (observed with N. meningitidis)
Virulence pili
32
Cytoplasmic granules are composed of?
Polyphosphate
33
Cytoplasmic granules of Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Volutin or Babes-Ernst or Metachromatic granules
34
Cytoplasmic granules of Mycobacterium
Much Granules
35
Cytoplasmic granules of Yersinia pestis
Bipolar bodies
36
The cytoplasmic granules of Yersnia pestis is stained with
Wayson stain
37
Endospores are composed of?
Dipicolinic acid or Calcium dipicolinate
38
What are the two common endospore forming bacteria
Bacillus & Clostridium
39
True or false: Endotoxin are present in both gram pos and neg bacteria
FALSE: Only in gram neg
40
Protein A, Polysaccharide capsules, and M protein are examples of?
Antiphagocytic factors
41
Which among the endotoxin and exotoxin are heat stable and heat labile?
Exotoxin: Heat labile
Endotoxin: Heat stable
## Footnote
Exotoxin: destroyed rapidly by heating at >60 deg c
Endotoxin: withstand heating at >60 deg c
42
Which among the endotoxin and exotoxin are highly immunogenic?
Exotoxin
## Footnote
Exotoxin: Highly immunogenic thus it stimulates formation of high-titer toxin
Endotoxin: Weakly immunogenic
43
True or false: Exotoxin can be converted to antigenic toxoids
TRUE
## Footnote
Endotoxin: is not converted into toxoids
44
The phase of bacterial growth in which the bacteria is most metabolically active
Log phase (Exponential phase)
45
Phase of bacterial growth where the bacteria is most susceptible to antibiotics
Log phase (Exponential phase)
46
Bacterial growth phase in which the bacteria attempts to adapt to the new environment
Lag phase (Adjustment/Physiologic phase)
47
Phase of bacterial growth where waste products accumulate and nutrients are depleted
Plateu (Stationary phase)
## Footnote
Also known as the phase where the number of dying organisms is equal to the number of viable/living organisms
48
Phase of bacterial growth where the number of dying organisms are greater than the number of viable organisms
Decline (Death phase)
49
True or False: During the Decline/Death phase the decrease in the number of living bacteria affects the number of total bacterial count
FALSE
## Footnote
There is a decrease in living organisms but not i the total bacterial count. (Nandiyan pa rin yung "katawan" ng patay na bacteria)
50
Examples of psychrophilic clinically significant bacteria are?
Listeria monocytogenes
Yersinia enterocolitica
51
These are anaerobes which can grow in the presence of oxygen
Facultative aerobe
52
These are aerobes which can grow in the absence of oxygen
Facultative anaerobe
53
These type of bacteria are capable of growth in the presence of either reduced or atmospheric O2 but grow best under anaerobic conditions
Aerotolerant
54
Ambient air is composed of?
21% oxygen
0.03% carbon dioxide
55
Capnophile organisms require incubation in?
Candle Jar, CO2 incubator, or bag
## Footnote
It requires 5% to 10% CO2 and ~15% O2
56
Incubation requirement for Microerophile
Reduced O2 (5% - 10%)
Increased CO2 (8% - 10%)
57
This refers to both capnophiles and microaerophilic organisms
Microaerobic
58
Give 2 clinically significant capnophilic organisms
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria gonnorhoea
59
Give 2 clinically significant microaerophiles
Helicobacter pylori
Campylobacter jejuni
60
These are salt-loving organisms that grows at pH of 8.0 - 10.0
Halophilic organisms
61
Medically important halophilic organism
Vibrio
62
Example of an acidophilic organism
Lactobacillus acidophilus
63
Organisms that require organic substance (carbohydrate or peptone)
Heterotrophic/Organotrophic
64
Organisms that require inorganic substance
Autotrophic/Lithotropic
65
A process that kills all forms of microbial life, including bacterial endospores
Sterilization
66
A process that destroys pathogenic organisms, but not necessarily all micoroorganisms, endospores, or pions
Disinfection
67
The process of removing pathogenic organisms so items are safe to handle or dispose of
Decontamination
68
Incineration requires burning hazardous materials to temp of what?
870 deg to 980 deg c
69
This is known as the safest method to ensure that not infective materials remain in samples or containers when disposed
Incineration
70
A method of sterilization that uses steam under pessure
Autoclave
71
Autoclave setting for biologic waste (broth or solid media) also known as the displacement sterilizer
15 lbs psi at 121 deg c for 30 min
72
Autoclave setting for pre-vacuumed sterilizer
15 lbs psi at 132 deg c for 4 min
73
Autoclave setting for infectious medical waste (body fluids or blood)
15 lbs psi at 132 deg c for 30 to 60 min
74
Biological indicator for autoclave
Bacillus stearothermophilus
75
Method used to sterilize glassware, oil, petroleum, or powders
Oven
76
Setting for sterilization using oven (dry heat)
160 to 180 for 1.5 to 3 hrs
77
Biological indicator for oven sterilization
Bacillus subtilis var nigger
78
Method of sterilization for heat sensitive substances such as antibiotic solution, toxic chemicals, radioisotopes, vaccines, and carbohydrates
Filtration
79
Method of sterilization for disposables such as plastic syringes, catheters, or gloves before use
Ionizing (gamma) radiation
80
Most common chemical sterilant used for sterilizing heat-sensitive objects
Ethylene oxide
81
This chemical sterilant is an oxidizing agent used to sterilize HEPA filters in BSC, metals, and non-metal devices such as medical instruments
Vapor-phase hydrogen peroxide
82
Disinfection using boiling method requires (setting)
100 deg c for 15 min
83
Kills food pathogen without damaging the nutritional value or flavor
Pasteurization
84
This pasteurization technique kills milk-borne pathogens and vegetative forms
Batch method
85
Batch method (setting)
63 deg c for 30 min
86
Flash method of pasteurization (setting)
>72 deg c at 15 sec
87
Method of disinfection that uses UV light and is commonly used in BSC
Non-ionizing radiation
88
This type of sterilization technique is composed of short wavelength and high energy gamma rays
Ionizing (gamma) radiation
89
This method of disinfection uses long wavelengths and low energy rays
Non-ionizing radiation
90
This type of chemical disinfectant is used for cold sterilization
Glutaraldehyde
91
Examples of Halogen disinfectants
Iodine tincture
Iodophor
Chlorine
92
What is the difference between tincture of iodine and iodophor
Tincture of iodine: iodine + alcohol
Iodophor: povidone iodine
93
One of the most effective disinfecting agents against HIV and HBV. (How many minutes of exposure?)
Chlorine
HIV = 2 min
HBV = 10 min
94
Disposal of this hazardous waste requires double bagging of said waste and decontamination by autoclaving or incineration
Infectious waste (agar plates, tubes, reagent bottles)
95
Disposal of this hazardous waste requires placing said waste into rigid carboard containers before disposal
Pipets, swabs, and other glass materials
96
Disposal of this hazardous wastes requires placing said waste in thick boxes lined with plastic biohazard bags and when full is incinerated or autoclaved
Broken glass
97
Disposal of this hazardous waste requires said waste to be placed in a sharps container and is incinerated or autoclaved when full
Sharp objects
98
HEPA filters removes organisms larger than __ um
0.3 um
99
Most clinical microbiology uses what type of BSC
Class IIa or IIb
100
Centrifuges must be placed inside what type of BSC to prevent emitted aerosols from dispersing widely
Class III BSC
101
Type of BSC with an open front, with negative pressure, ventilated to the outside
Class I BSC
102
This type of BSC sterilizes air that flows over the infectious material, as well as air to be exhausted
Class II BSC
103
Also known as the vertical laminar flow BSC
Class II BSC
104
This type of Class II BSC recirculate 70% of air and is self contained
Class IIA
105
In this type of class II BSC exhaust air is discharged outside the building. This is commonly used for radioiosotopes, toxic chemicals, or carcinogens
Class II b
106
This type of BSC is completely enclosed, with negative pressure. This provides maximum protection to workers
Class III BSC
107
Class I and Class II BSC are used for what type of BSL
BSL 2 & 3
108
Class III BSC is used for what type of BSL
BSL 4
109
Biologic agents with no known potential for infecting healthy people and are well defined and characterized belong to what biosafety level group?
BSL 1
110
Biologic agents acquired by ingestion or exposure to percutaneous or mucous membrane belong to what BSL
BSL 2
111
Biologic agents most commonly being sought in clinical specimens and are used in diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories belong to what BSL
BSL 2
112
Biologic agents which are potential agents for aerosol transmission belong to what BSL
BSL 3
113
Biologic agents which are considered exotic agents that are considered high risk and can cause life threatening diseases belong in what BSL
BSL 4
114
Wrong site, wrong procedure, and wrong patient errors are termed as never events or…
Sentinel events
115
Interpretation of specimen results by the microbiologist belong under what step of the total testing process
Analytical step
116
Interpretation of report by the clinician belong to under what step of the total testing process
Post-analytical
117
Long term storage of aerobes or anaerobes can be done through the use of?
Lyophilization
118
The process that combines dehydration and freezing to prevent microorganisms from reproducing and to store them for future use
Lyophilization
119
Nonfastidious, aerobic organisms can be saved up to ________ on _________
1 year on trypticase soy broth
120
Frozen nonfastidious organisms should be thawed, reisolated, and refrozen every ________
5 years
121
Frozen fastidious organisms should be thawed, reisolated, and refrozen every ________
3 years
122
It is the process of being dessicated or thoroughly dried
Dessication
123
Specimens for culture must be collected during ___________ and before ________
Specimens for culture must be collected during the acute phase of infection (within 2-4 days of viral infection) and before antimicrobial, antifungal, or antiviral administration
124
____________ is used to neutralize antimicrobials in a sample if patient is already on antimicrobial
Thiol broth
125
This removes antimicrobials before culture
Antimicrobial removal device (ARD)
126
For anaerobe which type of specimen is preferred
Aspirates are preferred to swabs
127
For swab specimens what type of swabs should be used
Dacron or polyester-tipped swab on plastic shaft
128
Calcium alginate inactivates what virus?
Herpes simplex virus
129
Cotton and calcium alginate is toxic to what type of bacteria
Neisseria gonorrheae
130
Wooden shaft are toxic to what bacteria?
Chlamydia trachomatis
131
After collection specimens must be placed in a biohazard and transported to the laboratory ideally within __________
30 min, preferably within 2 hours
132
This transport medium consists of swabs in a test tube with transport media that can be activated by crushing an ampule
Stuart’s medium
133
This type of transport medium contains sodium thioglycolate and can maintain bacteria up to 72 hrs
Buffered semisolid agar
134
Also known as the modified stuart’s medium
Amies medium
135
This transport medium is used for transport of stool specimen and for enteric pathogen
Cary-blair medium
136
This is the most commonly used anticoagulant for microbiology specimen
Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
137
Concentration of sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS) for microbiology specimens
0.025%
138
Anticoagulant of choice for viral cultures
Heparin
139
Anticoagulant of choice for isolation of Mycobacterium spp. from blood
Heparin
140
This type of specimens for microbiology must not be refrigerated
Anaerobes, CSF, specimens suspected of harboring N. gonorrhoea
141
Are specimens fixed in formalin acceptable for processing in the microbiology lab
No (Rejected)
142
True/False: Specimens contaminated with barium, chemical dyes, or oily chemicals are still acceptable specimens for the microbiology lab
False
143
True/False: Gastric washings are acceptable specimens for anaerobic culture
False
144
These specimens are critical specimens and must be processed immediately in the lab
CSF, tissue specimens, blood specimens, sterile fluid
145
Blood specimens for culture must be collected _________ the fever spike
30 - 45 min BEFORE
146
Specimens suspected of harboring Brucella organisms should be incubated for?
3 weeks (21 days)
147
CFU count significant for UTI
100,000 or 1 x 10^5 CFU/mL
148
CFU count significant for UTI in S. saprophyticus
10 000 CFU/mL or 1 x 10^4 CFU/mL
149
Measurement for the calibrated inoculating loop used for all urine specimens
0.001 mL (1uL)
150
Calibrated inoculating loop used for specimens from women with suspected acute urethral syndrome and suprapubic aspirates
0.01 mL (10uL)
151
Most common pathogen in throat culture
Streptococcus pyogenes
152
Pathogen for oral thrush
Candida albicans
153
Pathogen for epiglotittis
Haemophilus influenzae
154
This type of specimen is used to detect the carrier state of staphylococcus aureus
Nasal swab
155
This is the specimen of choice for Bordatella pertussis isolation
Nasopharyngeal swab
156
This specimen is used for detection of carrier state of N. meningitidis
Nasopharyngeal swab
157
This assesses the quality of sputum samples
Bartlett’s classification
158
Revised criteria for indication of mucosal or saliva contamination
>25 epithelial cells per LPF
159
All spiral organisms are reported as (Gram pos or neg)?
Gram negative
160
All yeasts are gram pos of neg?
Gram positive
161
Auramine-rhodamine method is used for?
Acid fast organisms
162
Mycobacterial cells appear _________ when stained using the Auramine-Rhodamine method
Bright yellow or orange against a greenish background
163
This type of acid fast staining method differentiates M. smegmatis & M. tuberculosis
Pappenheim method
164
This type of acid fast staining method differentiates M. leprae & M. tuberculosis
Baumgarten Method
165
Type of acid fast staining method useful for the identification of coccidian oocytes, and ideal for cryptosporidia and cyclospora
Modified acid fast stain
166
Oocytes appear _________ when stained using the Modified Acid Fast Stain
Magenta against a blue background
167
Special stain for Cell wall
Dyar stain
168
Special stains for Capsule
Anthony’s, Hiss’, Gin’s
169
Special stain for metachromatic granules
Albert, Neisser
170
Special stain for endospore
Dorner, Schaeffer-Fulton
171
Schaeffer-Fulton stain is composed of?
Malachite green and Safranin red
172
Stains flagella
Gray, Leifson
173
Stains DNA
Feulgen
174
Stains spirochetes
Levaditi’s, Fontana-Tribondeau
175
Stains Rickettsia
Gimenez
176
Demonstrates metachromatic granules and characteristic morphology of Corynebacterium diphtheriae from Loeffler coagulated serum medium
Methylene Blue
177
Example of an indirect or negative stain
India ink/Nigrosin
178
Used to stain specimens directly for the presence of fungi
Calcofluor white
179
Produces Chartreuse fluorescence when exposed to UV light
Fusobacterium nucleatum
180
Produces a brick-red fluorescence under UV
Prevotella porphyromonas
181
Produces red color under UV
Veilonella
182
Produces pyoverdin that fluoresces under UV light
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
183
Produces a green pigment
P. aeruginosa
184
Produces a brick red pigment
S. marsescens
185
Produces a blue pigment
Kluyvera spp
186
Produces a brown-black pigment
Prevotella melaninogenica
187
Produces a purple pigment
Chromobacterium violaceum
188
Old sock odor
S. aureus
189
Fruity or grape like odor
P.aeruginosa
190
Putrid odor
P. mirabilis
191
Musty basement, mousy or mouse nest odor
Haemophilus spp., Pasteurella
192
Mushroom odor
Pasteurella
193
Freshly plowed field odor
Nocardia
194
Horse stable odor
C. difficile
195
Burnt chocolate, chocolate cake odor
Proteus
196
Gold standard for molecular techniques in microbiology
Polymerase chain reaction
197
Most abundant normal flora of throat and nasopharyngeal cultures
Streptococcus viridans
198
Most common pathogen of throat and nasopharyngeal cultures
Streptococcus pyogenes
199
Preservative of choice for urine culture
Boric acid
